Gynecology Set 3

Q1 | What are the signs of ovulation on Ultrasonography :

Q2 | The uterus is held in anteflexed position by :

Q3 | The most common symptom of adenomyosis is :

Q4 | The commonest cause of stress incontinence is

Q5 | Perforation of the uterus while doing endometrial biopsy in non pregnant uterus, needs

Q6 | Least common type of uterine anomaly in patients with recurrent pregnancy loss :

Q7 | Diagnosis of stress incontinence coded by which of the following before taking the patient for surgery

Q8 | The following are the factors associated with CIN EXCEPT

Q9 | Best treatment for severe stress incontinence without prolapse is

Q10 | Bartholin’s gland duct opens in.....

Q11 | A 19-year-old female comes to the physician because of left lower quadrant pain for 2 months. She states that she first noticed the pain 2 months ago but now it seems to be growing worse. She has had no changes in bowel or bladder function. She has no fevers or chills and no nausea, vomiting, or diarrhea. The pain is intermittent and sometimes feels like a dull pressure. Pelvic examination is significant for a left adnexal mass that is mildly tender. Urine hCG is negative. Pelvic ultrasound shows a 6 cm complex left adnexal mass with features consistent with a benign cystic teratoma (dermoid). Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

Q12 | A 54-year-old woman comes to the physician for an annual examination. She has no complaints. For the past year, she has been taking tamoxifen for the prevention of breast cancer. She was started on this drug after her physician determined her to be at high risk on the basis of her strong family history, nulliparity, and early age at menarche. She takes no other medications. Examination is within normal limits. Which of the following is this patient most likely to develop while taking tamoxifen?

Q13 | A 62-year-old woman comes to the physician because of bleeding from the vagina. She states that her last menstrual period came 11 years ago and that she has had no bleeding since that time. She has hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus. Examination shows a mildly obese woman in no apparent distress. Pelvic examination is unremarkable. An endometrial biopsy is performed that shows grade I endometrial adenocarcinoma. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

Q14 | Ovarian precursors of oestradiol include :

Q15 | Female patient with endometrial hyperplasia could be all of these except:

Q16 | Endometroid cyst, on examination:

Q17 | Considering epithelial neoplasm of the ovaries all true except :

Q18 | The Commonest ovarian neoplasm complicated with torsion during pregnancy:

Q19 | Female patient with acute abdomen , CBC normal , B-HCG negative , No vaginal bleeding , Mostly is :

Q20 | Considering mucinous cystadenoma :

Q21 | Considering Brenner tumor all true except :

Q22 | Considering Meig's syndrome it is associated with :

Q23 | Considering malignant ovarian neoplasm histologically may be all except :

Q24 | For endometrial cyst all true except :

Q25 | Female patient with history of induction of ovulation present with tender lowerabdominal pain and discomfort , TVS show cyst , Next step is :