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This set of Indian Evidence Act Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on Indian Evidence Act Set 10

Q1 | Facts of which the judicial notice is to be taken are stated in:
  • section 56 of evidence act
  • section 57 of evidence act
  • section 58 of evidence act
  • section 55 of evidence act.
Q2 | List of facts of which the judicial notice has to be taken under section 57 of Evidence Act:
  • is exhaustive
  • is illustrative only
  • is both (a) & (b)
  • is neither (a) nor (b).
Q3 | Facts which need not be proved by the parties include:
  • facts of which judicial notice has to be taken
  • facts which have been admitted by the parties at or before the hearing
  • both (a) & (b)
  • neither (a) nor (b).
Q4 | The court may in its discretion call for proving the facts:
  • of which judicial notice has to be taken
  • which have been admitted otherwise than such admissions
  • both (a) & (b)
  • neither (a) nor (b).
Q5 | Oral evidence under section 60 of Evidence Act may be:
  • direct only
  • hearsay
  • both (a) & (b)
  • either (a) or (b).
Q6 | Contents of a document may be proved under section 61 of Evidence Act:
  • by primary evidence
  • by secondary evidence
  • either by primary or by secondary evidence
  • only by primary evidence & not by secondary evidence.
Q7 | Secondary evidence of a document means:
  • copies of that document
  • oral account of the contents of the documents
  • both (a) & (b)
  • only (a) & not (b).
Q8 | The circumstances under which the secondary evidence is admissible have been enumeratedin:
  • section 63 of evidence act
  • section 64 of evidence act
  • section 65 of evidence act
  • section 66 of evidence act.
Q9 | Secondary evidence is admissible:
  • where the non-production of primary evidence has not been accounted for
  • where the non-production of primary evidence has been accounted for
  • irrespective of whether the non-production of primary evidence has been accounted for or not
  • both (a) & (c) are correct.
Q10 | Oral account of the contents of a document is admissible:
  • when given by a person who has seen & read the document
  • when given by a person who has seen but not read the document
  • when given by a person to whom the document was read over
  • when given by any of the above.
Q11 | A will is required to be proved by calling at least one attesting witness:
  • when it is registered
  • when it is unregistered
  • when it is admitted
  • all of the above
Q12 | Documents which are not covered under section 74 of Evidence Act are called:
  • semi-public documents
  • quasi-public documents
  • private documents
  • all the above.
Q13 | Maxim ‘omnia proesumuntur rite esse acta’ means:
  • all acts are presumed to be rightly done
  • all acts are presumed to be not rightly done
  • all acts are presumed to be wrongly done
  • all acts are presumed to be not wrongly done.
Q14 | Principle of ‘omnia proesumuntur rite esse acta’ is contained in:
  • section 78 of evidence act
  • section 79 of evidence act
  • section 80 of evidence act
  • section 81 of evidence act.
Q15 | Section 79 of Evidence Act applies to:
  • certificates issued by a government officer
  • certified copies issued by a government officer
  • other documents duly certified to be genuine by a government officer
  • all the above.
Q16 | Section 79 of Evidence Act contains:
  • an irrebuttable presumption of law
  • a rebuttable presumption of law
  • a presumption of fact
  • no presumption either of fact or law.
Q17 | Sections 79 to 85 of Evidence Act contain:
  • presumption of facts
  • rebuttable presumptions of law
  • irrebuttable presumption of law
  • irrebuttable presumptions of facts.
Q18 | Presumption as to the accuracy of maps & plans made by the authority of Government iscontained in:
  • section 81 of evidence act
  • section 82 of evidence act
  • section 83 of evidence act
  • section 84 of evidence act.
Q19 | Under section 83 of Evidence Act, presumption as to accuracy of maps & plans can be raised inrespect of:
  • maps & plans made by private persons
  • maps & plans made by the authority of government
  • both (a) & (b) above
  • only (a) & not (b).
Q20 | Which of the following statements hold true for dying declarations?
  • dying declarations cannot be used as a sole basis of conviction
  • dying declarations unless corroborated cannot be used as sole basis of conviction
  • dying declaration which is brief must be discarded
  • when eyewitness affirms that the deceased was not in a fit state to make the declaration, medical opinion cannot prevail
Q21 | In which of the following cases the evidence given by the witness will NOT be relevant under section 33 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872?
  • when the witness is staying abroad
  • when the witness is dead
  • when witness cannot be found
  • when the witness is in coma
Q22 | Accused wants to submit a document for consideration under section 35 of the Indian EvidenceAct, 1872. In which of the following cases will the document become irrelevant?
  • it does not deal with a fact in issue
  • it does not deal with a relevant fact
  • it is not an entry made in public or other official book, register or record
  • it is not an entry made by public servant
Q23 | A party wants to set aside a judgement under section 44 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872. Inwhich of the fol-lowing circumstances can he do so?
  • in case the judgement was passed by a superior court
  • in case the person challenging is a stranger to the proceedings
  • in case the judgement was a result of gross negligence
  • all of these
Q24 | According to section 61 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 –
  • the contents of documents must be proved by primary evidence
  • the contents of documents must be proved by secondary evidence
  • the contents of documents must be proved by both primary and secondary evidence
  • the contents of documents must be proved either by primary or secondary evidence
Q25 | Definition of secondary evidence has been given under ___ of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872?
  • section 61
  • section 62
  • section 63
  • section 64