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This set of Indian Evidence Act Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on Indian Evidence Act Set 12

Q1 | Proviso 1 to Section 33, Indian Evidence Act, not only covers cases of privity in estate andsuccession of title, but also cases where which of the following condition is met?
  • the interest of the relevant party in the second proceeding is the subject matter of the first proceeding and is consistent with and not antagonistic to the interest therein of the relevant party to the first proceeding
  • the interest of both in the answer to be given to the particular question in issue in the first proceeding is identical
  • either (a) or (b)
  • both (a) and (b)
Q2 | Relevancy of facts forming part of same transaction is dealt under which of the followingsection of the Indian Evidence Act?
  • section 4
  • section 6
  • section 10
  • section 8
Q3 | Section 132 of the Indian Evidence Act does not apply to a statement made by a person duringan investigation under:
  • section 159 cr. p.c
  • section 161 cr. p.c
  • section 163 cr. p.c
  • section 166 cr. p.c
Q4 | Section 31, Indian Evidence Act declares:
  • that admissions are not conclusive proof of the matters admitted, but they may operate as estoppels
  • unless admissions are contractual or unless they constitute estoppels they are not conclusive, but are open rebuttal or explanation.
  • either (a) or (b)
  • both (a) and (b)
Q5 | Section 65, Indian Evidence Act with which of the fol-lowing situation under which secondaryevidence can be given?
  • when the original is shown or appears to be in possession and power of the person against whom the document is sought to be proved
  • when it is in possession or power of any person who is out of reach, or not subject to the process of the court
  • when it is in the possession of any person legally bound to produce it, but he fails to produce it after the notice mentioned in section 66, indian evidence act is given to him
  • all of them
Q6 | The defence of alibi is best because:
  • if the accused was not there, when the deceased was murdered, he could not have murdered her
  • once the pleas of alibi is raised no other defence is open to the prosecution
  • it leaves room for no other defence for the accused
  • none of them
Q7 | An estate called “the Rampur Tea Estate” is sold by a deed which contains a map of theproperty sold. Applying Section 92, Indian Evidence Act:
  • the fact that land not included in the map had always been regarded as part of the estate and was meant to pass by the deed need not be proved
  • the fact that land not included in the map had always been regarded as part of the estate and was meant to pass by the deed is irrelevant
  • the fact that land not included in the map had always been regarded as part of the estate and was meant to pass by the deed cannot be proved
  • none of them
Q8 | Which of the following is the way to assess damage under Section 12, Indian Evidence Act? I. the damage suffered should be near as possible to the sum which will put the injured party in the same position as he would have been if he had not sus-tained the wrong for which he was awarded damages or compensationII. damages are usually assessed on the basis of actual loss suffered and are called general orordinary damagesIII. where the plaintiff has not suffered any real damages by reason of breach of contract, normally,nominal damages are awardedIV. special damages can be awarded for personal incon-veniences or physical dis-comfort caused bythe other party
  • i, iii and iv
  • ii, iii and iv
  • i, ii and iv
  • all of them
Q9 | The history sheet of an accused person, kept in the police station is not a man’s character, as itis based on:
  • conviction
  • hearsay
  • investigation
  • none of them
Q10 | The principle on which a dying declaration is admitted in evidence is indicated in legal maxim:
  • nemo moriturus proesumitur mentiri
  • lex fori
  • res judica
  • none of them
Q11 | The principles of Section 44, Indian Evidence Act cannot be extended to which of the following?
  • misrepresentation or undue influence
  • fraud
  • collision
  • all of them
Q12 | Section 15, Indian Evidence Act deals with a particular application of the general principle laiddown in:
  • section 7, indian evidence act
  • section 10, indian evidence act
  • section 12, indian evidence act
  • section 14, indian evidence act
Q13 | The question is, whether A poisoned B. Applying Section 6, Indian Evidence Act which of the following facts can be relevant?
  • marks on the ground produced by a struggle at or near the place where the murder was committed
  • the state of b’s health before the symptoms ascribed to poison, and habits of b, known to a, which afforded an opportunity for the administration of poison
  • the facts that shortly before the poisoning, b went to a fair with money in possession, and that he showed it or mentioned the fact that he had it, to third persons
  • none of them
Q14 | To invoke the doctrine of estoppel which of the follow-ing condition must be satisfied?
  • representation by a person to another
  • the other shall have acted upon the said representation
  • such person shall have been detrimental to the interest of the person to whom the representation has been made
  • all of them
Q15 | What do you understand by admission of execution?
  • it means only admission of signature
  • it means only valid attestation of the signature by two witnesses as required by law
  • both (a) and (b)
  • none of them
Q16 | Under Section 82, Indian Evidence Act the Court must presume:
  • that the seal or stamp or signature is genuine
  • that the person signing the document held, at the time when he signed, the judicial or officialcharacter he claims
  • both (a) and (b)
  • none of them
Q17 | What do you understand by libellous character?
  • constituting or containing a libel
  • constituting or containing a praise
  • constituting or containing a commendation
  • none of them