What is one of the easiest ways to control bleeding of a scalp laceration?
a. Raise the head above the heart
b. Apply direct pressure
c. Apply a clotting agent
d. Apply pressure to the carotid artery
b. Apply direct pressure
Rationale: Although scalp lacerations can bleed heavily, they are usually controllable with direct pressure.
The correct initial dosage of thiamine in the adult patient is?
a. 100 mg
b. 25 mg
c. 50 mg
d. 200 mg
a. 100 mg
Rationale: The correct initial dosage of thiamine in the adult patient is 100 mg over 2-5 minutes.
Which list contains the fundamental elements of the Life Support Chain?
a. Perfusion, anaerobic metabolism, and cell environment
b. Cell environment, aerobic metabolism, and anaerobic metabolism
c. Oxygenation, perfusion, and cell environment
d. Oxygenati
c. Oxygenation, perfusion, and cell environment
Rationale: The three fundamental elements of the Life Support Chain are oxygenation, perfusion, and cell environment. While aerobic metabolism is one component of cell environment, it does not describe all f
Which of the following best describes the function of endocrine glands?
a. Endocrine glands release hormones that coordinate bodily functions such as metabolism, mood, and sexual development
b. Endocrine glands have ducts that carry secretions to the surf
a. Endocrine glands release hormones that coordinate bodily functions such as metabolism, mood, and sexual development
Cranial nerve V is what nerve?
a. Hypoglossal nerve
b. Trigeminal nerve
c. Spinal nerve
d. Acoustic nerve
b. Trigeminal nerve
Rationale: Cranial nerve V is the trigeminal nerve. It is responsible for mastication, muscular sensibility, and general sensibility of the face.
XII Hypoglossal nerve - tounge movement; test by asking the patient to push their tongue
In the cell environment, Aerobic Metabolism produces ______________ and _________________; while Anaerobic Metabolism produces __________________ and ________________.
a. high ATP and carbon monoxide; low ATP and lactic acid
b. high ATP, water and carbon
d. high ATP, water and carbon dioxide; low ATP and lactic acid
As a person inhales, the diaphragm and intercostals contract, causing the intrapulmonic pressure to be:
a. Lower than atmospheric pressure
b. Higher than the intraaveolar pressure
c. Higher than atmospheric pressure
d. Lower than intraveolar pressure
a. Lower than atmospheric pressure
Rationale: During inspiration, the contraction and flattening of the diaphragm, along with the contraction of the intercostals increases the size of the thoracic cavity and causes a decrease in the pressure inside the al
If a person has a dysconjugate gaze, what are his eyes doing?
a. Both eyes gaze up to the left.
b. Both eyes move inward toward each other.
c. Failure of both eyes to turn in the same direction.
d. Both eyes gaze up to the right.
c. Failure of both eyes to turn in the same direction.
Rationale: If your patient has a dysconjugate gaze, the eyes don't turn and track together. This can indicate a brain injury.
Which of the following assessment considerations should not be included for facial and eye injuries?
a. Inspection
b. Eye examination
c. Palpation of facial bones
d. Palpation of cranial bones
d. Palpation of cranial bones
Rationale: Assessment considerations for facial and eye injuries include: Inspection, palpation of facial bones, and eye examination.
You are administering a solution of lactated ringers and you know that this solution has an osmotic pressure that is_______________________ the fluids in the body.
a. Equal to
b. More than
c. Less than
d. Weaker than
a. Equal to
Rationale: Isotonic solutions have the same osmotic pressure as the fluids in the body.
If an injury is inferior and posterior to the patella, it is located?
a. On the inner thigh
b. On the calf
c. On the tricep
d. Just below the shoulder blade
b. On the calf
Rationale: Anatomically, inferior is down and superior is up while anterior is front and posterior is back. The patella is the knee cap.
You arrive on scene to find a 5-year-old boy who has suffered a fall running up the stairs. His mother states he was unconscious for approximately 20-30 seconds. She is holding him in her arms and he has a small laceration and swelling on the edge of his
a. C-spine precautions, O2, and rapid transport
Rationale: The best course of action would include c-spine precautions, O2, and rapid transport. An altered LOC and loss of consciousness would warrant immediate transport. Just because a backboard was not m
You are securing a traction splint to a 65 year old patient with a potentially fractured femur. Which of the following would you do first?
a. Align the leg to its normal position
b. Manually stabilize the fracture
c. Check PMS
d. Measure the device
b. Manually stabilize the fracture
Rationale: Manually stabilizing the fracture is the first thing you should do and then check PMS.
You suspect a significant mechanism of injury. In what order would you conduct the assessment?
a. Vital signs, SAMPLE history, rapid trauma assessment
b. SAMPLE history, rapid trauma assessment, focused physical
c. Primary survey, SAMPLE history, rapid fu
c. Primary survey, SAMPLE history, rapid full-body scan
Rationale: The National EMS Education Standard details that assessment be done in the following order: Scene size-up, primary survey/primary assessment, history taking, secondary assessment (of which
All of the following are transport considerations with brain trauma patients except:
a. Patient who do not respond to painful stimuli may need rapid extrication
b. Patients frequently have seizures
c. Patients frequently vomit, suction should be available
d. Patients should always be transported to the nearest medical facility
Rationale: Transport considerations with brain trauma include: Head trauma with impaired airway or ventilation, open wounds, abnormal vital signs, or patients who do not respond to p
Critical thinking aspects of rapid transport for multi-system traumatic injuries include all of the following except:
a. Early notification of hospital resources is essential
b. Siren and emergency lights must be used during transportation
c. Rapid extric
b. Siren and emergency lights must be used during transportation
Rationale: Critical thinking aspects of rapid transport for multi-system traumatic injuries include all of the following: The definitive care for multi-system trauma may be surgery which can
Dispatch has called you and your partner to an ATV accident. You arrive on scene to find a 60 yr old man lying to the side of the road. He tells you that he lost control of the four wheeler and it rolled several times. Which of the following answer choice
b. BSI - Direct assistant to maintain manual immobilization of the head - Check circulation and motor sensory - Apply C -collar
Rationale: While the NREMT no longer tests candidates over longboard spinal immobilization skill, it is an important skill that
Before your partner's 3rd attempt at setting an IV on a rolling vein you suggest that this time she might?
a. Enter the vein from the top a little quicker
b. Use a bigger needle
c. Enter the vein from the side
d. Try to flatten the vein with skin traction
c. Enter the vein from the side
Rationale: It is often easier to enter a rolling vein from the side and advance the catheter into the center of the vein.
What are the 3 types of muscles in the human body?
a. Connective, involuntary, and voluntary
b. Skeletal, cardiac, and smooth
c. Striated, gastrointestinal, and myocardial
d. Visceral, skeletal, and epithelial
b. Skeletal, cardiac, and smooth
Rationale: Skeletal, cardiac, and smooth. Skeletal is often referred to as striated.
Direct pressure on an external bleed may include:
a. Application of uneven pressure with focus on areas distal and proximal to the injury
b. Application of even pressure including areas just distal and proximal to the injury
c. Application of even pressur
b. Application of even pressure including areas just distal and proximal to the injury
Rationale: Direct pressure includes: Application of even pressure to an open injury that includes the area just proximal and distal to the injury; using a gloved hand a
How many bones are in the human body?
a. 206
b. 110
c. 166
d. 216
a. 206
Your partner Lewis is setting an IV on a 60-year-old hypovolemic patient who has a blood pressure of 100/62. What should Lewis do after seeing flashback?
a. Occlude the vein and dispose of the needle in a bio bag
b. Dispose of the needle and palpate the v
c. Occlude the vein, then connect the administration set after disposing of the needle properly
Rationale: After seeing flashback in the chamber you should occlude the vein, retract the needle, hook up the administration set that is already attached to th
You arrive on scene to find a 50 year old male unconscious for unknown reasons. His pulse is weak and he is breathing at approximately 20 shallow breaths per minute. A blood glucose reading shows 360 mg/dL. Which of the following answer choices contains t
a. Have your partner take manual c-spine stabilization, apply O2 at 10 LPM via NRB and give a 20mL/kg bolus of normal saline.
Rationale: While assisting ventilations could become necessary the patient is currently within accepted respiratory range. The do
You are transporting a woman who has driven her car off the road at a low speed and bumped her head. The woman appears to be intoxicated. Medical control has asked you to get a blood draw as the transport time is over an hour. At the sight of the needle,
b. Committing battery
Rationale: You have just committed battery as you were requested to stop doing a procedure which involved touching the patient and you did not stop.
You and your partner Conner arrive on scene to find an 89 year old woman who has fallen 15 feet from a ladder while she was putting up Christmas decorations. She is complaining only of pain in her pelvis. You should?
a. Palpate her pelvis to determine sev
c. Visually inspect the pelvis
Rationale: If a person tells you their pelvis hurts, what are you going to gain from palpating it? Nothing, it does not change your treatment. Look at it only.
What is the best indication of the need to apply a traction splint to a fracture of the femur?
a. Shortening and rotation of the injured limb
b. A pale, cool foot on the injured limb
c. Severe pain in the injured limb
d. Swelling in the thigh of the injur
b. A pale, cool foot on the injured limb
Rationale: The best indication from the options listed would be the pale, cool foot. This indicates blood flow is compromised distally to the injury. Remember that you can only apply a traction splint if it is an i
Your 94-year-old patient is complaining of pain in her pelvis after a fall down 2 stairs. Your assessment should include:
a. Even left and right pelvic pressure
b. Palpation of the exterior pelvic area only
c. Assumption of a pelvic fracture
d. Palpation
c. Assumption of a pelvic fracture
Rationale: If a patient has a supporting mechanism of injury with an associated fall and pelvic pain, an assumption can be made that a pelvic injury has occurred and any palpation can exacerbate the injury.
Which of the answer choices should not be included when assessing a head injury?
a. Percussion
b. Pupils
c. Vital signs
d. Ventilation
a. Percussion
Rationale: Assessment of head injuries should include: Airway patency, ventilation, vital signs, pupils, and neurological exam.
Assessment considerations in facial and eye injuries include inspection for all of the following except:
a. Pupillary constriction
b. Eye symmetry
c. Bone alignment in anatomical position
d. Eye clarity without foreign objects
a. Pupillary constriction
Rationale: Assessment considerations of facial and eye injuries include inspection for: Open wounds, swelling, deformity of bones, eye clarity without foreign objects, eye symmetry, and bone alignment in anatomical position.
You are responding to a house fire where the report comes in that there is only one patient. He has burns that cover both of his legs. He is conscious and breathing. There are no other injuries reported. What percentage of his body is burned according to
d. 36 Percent
Which best describes the brain stem?
a. Nerve pathways that conduct messages of the brain
b. Composed of nerve cells
c. Coverings of the brain
d. Center for involuntary functions
d. Center for involuntary functions
Rationale: The brain stem is the center for involuntary functions such as temperature regulation, respirations, heart rate, regulation of consciousness, and nerve function transmission. The brain stem is comprised of th
A silver fork deformity is associated with a fracture of what part of the body?
a. Proximal ulna
b. Distal tibia
c. Hand
d. Distal radius
d. Distal radius
Rationale: Distal radius fractures are common in falls where the person tries to brace himself or herself with his/her arm, which results in a fracture of the radius.
All of the following are transport considerations with brain trauma patients except:
a. Patients with abnormal vital signs, or a decreased level of consciousness may need rapid extrication
b. Patients may deteriorate rapidly and may need air medical trans
c. Nasopharyngeal airways should be used in patients with facial trauma
Rationale: Transport considerations with brain trauma include: Head trauma with impaired airway or ventilation, open wounds, abnormal vital signs, or patients who do not respond to pa
A patient is complaining of difficulty breathing after being struck in the ribs by a baseball, and is now cyanotic around the lips. Proper action would include:
a. Sweeping the tongue out of the way to look for airway obstructions
b. High flow oxygen via
b. High flow oxygen via non-rebreather mask and rapid transport
Rationale: As long as the patient is able to talk and keep his/her respirations within range, then high flow Oxygen and transport would be the best choice.
When dealing with electrical burns, all of the following signs and symptoms should cause concern except:
a. Electricity that may cause burns, can also cause cardiac arrest
b. Temperature of contact with heat source
c. Entrance and exit wounds
d. External
b. Temperature of contact with heat source
Rationale: Signs and symptoms you should be concerned with when dealing with electrical burns include: burns, cardiac arrest, entrance and exit wounds and more serious injuries than indicated by the signs and sym
Your patient has been kicked in the chest by a horse and is having trouble breathing. Lung sounds are non existent on the right side where she was kicked and you believe she has a tension pneumothorax. During inhalation, her ______ ______________ impeding
b. mediastinum moves left / mediastinum shifts, distorting the vena cava which results in poor venous return
During secondary assessment of the arms, attention should be focused on all of the following except:
a. Sensation
b. Track marks
c. Muscle atrophy
d. Pain
c. Muscle atrophy
Rationale: During secondary assessment of the arms, attention should be focused on: Pain, distal circulation, sensation, motor function, track marks, and medical jewelry.
The components of the spine include all of the following except:
a. Cervical vertebrae
b. Cerebrum
c. Spinal cord
d. Lumbo-sacral nerve
b. Cerebrum
Rationale: The components of the spinal column include: Cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, coccyxegeal vertebrae. The nerves of the spine: Cervical, thoracic, and lumbo-sacral nerve. Another component is the spinal cord. The cerebrum is part
Of the following answer choices, where shouldn't attention be focused during secondary assessment of the legs?
a. Venous distention
b. Motor function
c. Pain
d. Track marks
a. Venous distention
Rationale: During secondary assessment of the legs, attention should be focused on: Pain, distal circulation, sensation, motor function, track marks, and medical jewelry.
Spinal trauma is often present with all of these injuries except:
a. Head trauma
b. Falls or diving injures
c. Car crashes
d. Leg trauma
d. Leg trauma
Rationale: Spinal trauma is often present with these injuries: head trauma, penetrating trauma, direct blunt trauma, falls or diving injuries, car crashes and multi-system trauma, and rapid deceleration injuries.
Appropriate considerations when dealing with sexual assault include all of the following except:
a. Patient confidentiality
b. Evidence management
c. Attempt to identify perpetrator
d. Treat injuries appropriately
c. Attempt to identify perpetrator
A patient who has a tension pneumothorax would exhibit____upon percussion.
a. Hyporesonance
b. Hyperresonance
c. No resonance
d. Percussion would not be applicable with this patient
b. Hyperresonance
Rationale: Due to the free air, upon percussion you would have hyperresonance.
The following are considered central lines EXCEPT?
a. Femoral vein
b. Internal Jugular vein
c. Subclavian vein
d. External jugular vein
d. External jugular vein
Rationale: The external jugular is considered a peripheral IV.
The causes of shock can be broken down into 3 categories. They are?
a. Poor perfusion, poor mentation, and poor respiratory function
b. Trauma, cardiac event, and seizure
c. Vessel constriction, poor vessel function, and poor respiratory function
d. Poor
d. Poor cardio function, fluid loss, and vessel dilation
You and your partner Blaze are called to the scene of a stabbing. There are two patients reported. A woman with a stab wound to the URQ and a man with a stab wound to the LRQ. The woman with the wound in the URQ is having problems breathing and has a puls
d. Make sure law enforcement has secured the area
Rationale: Don't enter the scene until it is safe. The existence of law enforcement at a scene does not make it safe. Wait until they have told you it is safe to treat the victim of a crime.
The pelvis is made up of all of the following except:
a. Acetabulum
b. Ileus
c. Ilium
d. Ischium
b. Ileus
Rationale: The pelvis is made up of: Ilium, ischium, pubis, and acetabulum. Ileus is a partial or complete blockage of the small or large intestine.
It's 4:30 p.m., you and your partner Jim are called to a motor vehicle accident on a busy side street. You arrive on scene and can see at least 6 patients from 4 cars. The cars are a twisted mess and are covering one whole lane of traffic with multiple fl
b. Assure the fire department is en route, establish a safety zone, and assist in keeping traffic at a safe distance
Rationale: Scene safety before all else in this case. The best thing you can do for everybody is help to keep the accident from getting ev
Which of the following is not a type of splint?
a. Formable
b. Long spine board
c. Short spine board
d. Wide spine board
d. Wide spine board
Rationale: Types of splints include: Rigid, formable, traction, air, vacuum, pillow/blanket, short spine board, and long spine board.
You are applying a traction splinting device to a patient who has rolled his four wheeler and has an obvious fracture of the left femur. Choose which order of splint application is correct
a. Stabilize the leg, take manual traction of the leg, check PMS,
a. Stabilize the leg, take manual traction of the leg, check PMS, and apply splinting device
Rationale: Stabilize, manual traction, and checking PMS with applying the splinting device is the only answer in a possibly correct order.
The kinematics of trauma definition can include all of the following except:
a. Deceleration injuries
b. Blunt trauma
c. Penetrating trauma
d. Acceleration injuries
d. Acceleration injuries
Rationale: The definition for Kinematics of Trauma include: looking at a trauma scene and attempting to predict what injures might have resulted based on an evaluation of the motion involved; kinetic energy - function of weight of
In regard to circulation compromise, all of the following can cause obstruction of blood flow except:
a. Heart failure
b. Parietal pleura
c. Pulmonary embolism
d. Cardiac tamponade
b. Parietal pleura
Rationale: In regard to circulation compromise, obstruction of blood flow can be caused by: Pulmonary embolism, tension pneumothorax, heart failure, and cardiac tamponade. The parietal pleura is a membrane that covers or lines the chest
Your patient is a male in his 20's who has an open fracture to the lateral portion of his lower leg. What bone is likely broken?
a. Tibia
b. Fibula
c. Radius
d. Ulna
b. Fibula
Rationale: The smaller and thinner bone of the lower leg on the lateral (outside) is the fibula and is most likely the bone involved.
Signs and symptoms of internal bleeding may include all of the following except:
a. Swelling of an injured limb
b. Bleeding from any body orifice
c. Abdominal tenderness
d. Abdominal distension
a. Swelling of an injured limb
Rationale: Signs and symptoms of internal bleeding may include: Guarding, tenderness, deformity, discoloration of the affected area, coughing up blood, blood in urine, rectal bleeding, abdominal tenderness, guarding, rigidit
You are transporting a 34 year old patient who was in a vehicle accident. She suffered significant blood loss from several wounds and appears to be suffering from hypoperfusion. How would you initiate fluid replacement therapy in this patient?
a. Start tw
a. Start two IV's using 16 gauge catheters
Rationale: For fluid replacement in a patient in shock, two large-bore IV's are recommended. A large-bore IV would be any catheter size greater than 18. Remember, the smaller the gauge number, the larger the actu
Dispatch has reported "a man in the road", you arrive to find an elderly Asian man in his 70's lying prone in the middle of the road with his wallet laying next to him. Which of the following observations would be considered the MOST important when formul
a. A laceration squirting blood from his neck
Rationale: Your general impression of the patient is your first visual impressions of him or her. It includes the patient's gender, race, age, appearance, distress level, and other visual clues that can help y
Effects of increased Intracranial Pressure (ICP) on vital signs may include all of the following except:
a. Decreased pulse rate
b. Irregular respirations
c. Increased systolic pressure
d. Hypoglycemia
d. Hypoglycemia
Rationale: Effects of increased Intracranial Pressure (ICP) include: Increased systolic blood pressure, decreased pulse rate, and irregular respirations. High, prolonged ICP can be fatal.
The pathophysiology in diving emergencies (dysbarism) include _________________________ and _________________________.
a.Repeated dives at depth on the same day; occurs after patient rises to the surface too slowly following a dive at depth
b. Diver remai
b. Diver remains at depth too long; compressed air in blood at depth expands upon ascent, turning into bubbles in blood which obstruct flow
Rationale: The pathophysiology of diving emergencies include; Diver remains at depth too long; compressed air in bl
Signs and symptoms of fractures and other head injuries include all of the following except:
a. Discoloration around ears
b. Hyponatremia
c. Skull deformity
d. Nausea
b. Hyponatremia
Hyponatremia- A condition that occurs when the level of sodium in the blood is too low.
Rationale: The signs and symptoms of fractures and other head injuries include: Clear drainage from ears or nose of cerebral spinal fluid, discoloratio
Which of the two lower leg bones is the largest?
a. Tibia
b. Fibula
c. Ulna
d. Femur
a. Tibia
Rationale: The tibia or shin bone is the larger of the two lower leg bones. The femur is the upper leg bone.
Place the following steps in order for insertion of a Morgan Lens:
1. Place the patient in supine position
2. Connect the delivery set to the Morgan Lens using an aseptic technique
3. Flush the delivery system allowing the solution to moisten the lens whi
c. 4,2,3,1,5,6
1. Prepare solution using an aseptic technique
2. Connect the delivery set to the Morgan Lens using an aseptic technique
3. Flush the delivery system allowing the solution to moisten the lens while maintaining asepsis
4. Place the patient i
The components of the brain include all of the following except:
a. Spinous process
b. Cerebral spinal fluid
c. Cerebellum
d. Brain stem
a. Spinous process
Rationale: The parts of the brain include: Cerebrum, cerebellum, brain stem (midbrain, pons, and medulla oblongata), cerebral spinal fluid (CSF), and more... The spinous process is a structure on the vertebra for muscle attachment.
Unique management considerations of hymenoptera stings include _________________________ and _________________________.
a. Removing stinger or venom sack; following protocol if anaphylaxis develops
b. Following protocol if anaphylaxis develops; ice pack o
a. Removing stinger or venom sack; following protocol if anaphylaxis develops
Hymenoptera - a large order of insects that includes the bees, wasps, ants, and sawflies. These insects have four transparent wings and the females typically have a sting.
Ratio
In a low temperature exposure, all of the following factors contribute to the risk of cold injury except:
a. Alcohol ingestion
b. Local blood flow impairment
c. Pre-existing injury
d. Age of patient
b. Local blood flow impairment
Rationale: Low temperature exposure factors contributing to the risk of cold injury include: clothing of the patient, age, time exposure, alcohol or other medication ingestion, activity level of victim, and pre-existing inju
Which of the following answer choices is not a part of the management of external bleeding?
a. Splints
b. Tourniquet
c. Internal pressure
d. Direct pressure
c. Internal pressure
Rationale: Management of external bleeding includes: Direct pressure, splints, and tourniquet.
You have responded to an unknown injury accident involving a 23 year old male. You arrive to find the patient sitting on the grass holding his leg. A bystander says the man fell off of his bicycle while attempting a rail grind on the stair railing. Upon a
a. C-spine precautions, backboard and rapid transport
Rationale: Unequal pupils are associated with head trauma and cerebral hemorrhage. You should treat this patient as if they have a spinal injury and provide the necessary immobilization and transport.
You and your partner Genovese suspect a significant MOI to a patient who has been in a high-speed front end collision. In what order should you do your assessment?
a. SAMPLE history - Rapid trauma assessment - Focused physical
b. Primary survey - SAMPLE h
b. Primary survey - SAMPLE history - Secondary assessment
Rationale: According to the newest NREMT trauma assessment skill sheet, a primary survey should be followed by history taking and then a secondary assessment.
Dispatch has called you to the scene of a U.S. mail truck that slid out of control on a dirt road and rolled over. Bystanders reported the truck has caught on fire and the driver is outside the truck trying to gather the dumped mail. As you arrive on scen
d. Do a standing backboard technique on the driver
Rationale: Given the mechanism of injury of a rollover, you should take c-spine precautions for this patient with a standing backboard technique. Adrenalin can mask serious injury and although the driver
Indicators of lower portion (medulla) brain stem involved ICP include all of the following except:
a. Cheyne Stokes respirations
b. Ataxic respirations
c. Pulse rate changes
d. Flaccid response to painful stimuli
a. Cheyne Stokes respirations
Rationale: Indicators of lower portion (medulla) brain stem involved ICP include: pupil blown - same side as injury, ataxic respirations, flaccid response to painful stimuli, pulse rate changes, diminished blood pressure. Che
Which answer choice would not be included among the unique anatomy, physiology, and pathophysiology considerations of injured geriatric patients?
a. Loss of strength increases risk of falls
b. Multiple medications may affect assessment, especially vital s
c. Brain swells leading to higher risk of cerebral bleeding following head trauma
Rationale: Unique anatomy, physiology, and pathophysiology considerations of injured geriatric patients include: Changes in pulmonary, cardiovascular, neurologic, and muscul
People who have unequal pupils ?
a. May be normal
b. Have always suffered a head injury
c. Usually have meningitis as well
d. All of the above
a. May be normal
Rationale: 2 to 4 percent of people have a condition known as anisocoria, where their pupils are normally unequal.
You and your partner Stan are in route to a 28 year old female who has suffered an apparent closed fracture of her tibia as the result of a rock rolling on her leg. The reporting party says she is beginning to show signs of shock and your ambulance is at
c. Scene safety - PMS - splint the leg - PMS
Rationale: Making sure the scene is safe always comes first and you should check the PMS before and after splinting.
Management considerations of heat-related illness with hot skin include all of the following except:
a. transport immediately
b. assist ventilation if inadequate
c. administer oral glucose
d. administer high concentration oxygen
c. administer oral glucose
Rationale: Management considerations of heat-related illness, with hot skin include: remove patient from hot environment; administer high concentration oxygen; assist ventilation if inadequate; cool packs to armpits, groin, and
You and your partner Monroe arrive on scene to a house fire that has just been put out. You are treating a female patient with a full thickness burn to her leg. Which of the burn zones is the one most likely to recover?
a. Zone of stasis
b. Zone of hemopt
d. Zone of hyperemia
Rationale: Zone of coagulation is the central part of the burn, zone of stasis has partial viable tissue out from that, and then there is the zone of hyperemia which is the part that will most likely recover from the injury.
Zone of h
Indicators of middle brain stem involved ICP (Intracranial Pressure) include all of the following except:
a. Wide pulse pressure
b. Nonreactive pupils
c. Central neurogenic hyperventilation
d. Constriction of pupils
d. Constriction of pupils
Rationale: ICP (Intracranial Pressure) is the pressure inside the skull and the brain tissue from increased cerebral spinal fluid, brain lesion, or swelling of the brain. Indicators of middle brain stem involved ICP include: Wide
The unique circulation signs and symptoms of submersion incidents include all of the following except:
a. Skin may be cold
b. Skin may be cyanotic
c. May be in cardiac arrest
d. May be coughing
d. May be coughing
Rationale: The unique circulation signs and symptoms of submersion incidents include: May be in cardiac arrest, skin may be cyanotic, and skin may be cold.
Tissue that connects muscle to bone is called ___________.
a. A ligament
b. A tendon
c. A muscle
d. Epithelial
b. A tendon
Rationale: Bone to bone is ligament and muscle to bone is tendon.
Two types of brain injuries are _____________________ and _____________________.
a. Cerebral edema; cerebral ischemia
b. Intracranial hematoma; concussion
c. Direct; indirect injuries
d. Primary; secondary injuries.
b. Intracranial hematoma; concussion
Rationale: Types of brain injuries include intracranial hematoma, concussion, contusion, diffuse axonal, penetration, coup-contrecoup, anoxia, and hypoxic.
Anoxia - an absence of oxygen
Diffuse axonal injury - is a for
The definition of multi-system trauma includes all of the following except:
a. A patient considered to have "multi-system trauma" has more than one major system or organ involved
b. Multi-system trauma has a high level of morbidity and mortality
c. Almost
d. A patient considered to have "multi-system trauma" has one major system and one minor system or organ involved.
Rationale: The definition of multi-system trauma includes: trauma affecting more than one system; typically a patient considered to have "mu
A complete neurological exam of a brain trauma patient, as part of the general assessment, should include all of the following except:
a. Hearing and vision
b. Speech and language
c. Memory and attention
d. Thoughts and perceptions
a. Hearing and vision
Rationale: A complete neurological exam of a brain trauma patient should include: appearance and behavior, observe posture and motor behavior, facial expression, speech and language, thoughts and perceptions, memory and attention, pu
* Assessment considerations in non-spinal neck injuries include all of the following except:
a. Palpation of thymus
b. Monitor airway throughout care
c. Patient may not be able to swallow with esophageal injury
d. Larynx injuries will cause changes in voi
a. Palpation of thymus
Rationale: Assessment considerations in non-spinal neck injuries include: Monitor airway throughout care, patient may not be able to swallow with esophageal injury, swelling may be related to air escape under skin which can "crackle
* You and your partner Max are called to a house where a 72 year old man is having chest pain and complaining of trouble breathing. The man is diaphoretic and has a pulse of 107, respirations of 24, and a BP of 160/84. He says he has never had any heart p
c. Put him on O2 at 15 lpm and transport
Rationale: The best thing you could do in this case is to give him oxygen and get him to the hospital.
Brain injuries that are indirect ?
a Cause the skull to come in contact with the brain on impact
b. Cause pieces of bone to penetrate or puncture the brain
c. Are not life threatening
d. Are only seen in stroke victims
a. the skull to come in contact with the brain on impact
Rationale: With indirect, the skull transfers the energy absorbed during impact to the brain. With direct impact, the brain is penetrated, lacerated, or punctured with bone fragments or a foreign ob
* You and your partner Paul arrive on scene to find a woman in her early twenties with a large gash on her leg that is spurting bright red blood. You apply pressure with your gloved hand as Paul hands you a trauma dressing. The woman is pale with rapid pu
c. Explain to her that you are almost finished and then you will leave her alone
Rationale: Not knowing why she is being abrasive, you should tell her you are almost done and then will not bother her anymore.
* Which answer choice would not be included in general management of orthopedic trauma?
a. Transport to appropriate facility
b. Determine life threat
c. Appropriate communication
d. Conduct a neurological/circulatory exam where appropriate
b. Determine life threat
Rationale: General management for orthopedic trauma includes: Control hemorrhage, perform appropriate immobilization/splinting, conduct a neurology/circulatory examination, pain management, transport to appropriate facility, and a
The signs and symptoms of heat-related illness (hot skin) include all of the following except:
a. rapid breathing
b. nausea
c. little or no perspiration
d. loss of consciousness
b. nausea
Rationale: Signs and symptoms of heat-related illness (hot skin) include: little or no perspiration - in exertional heat stroke the skin may be sweaty and hot; loss of consciousness; rapid breathing; rapid pulse; and seizures.
Your male patient is the victim of a moderate speed MVA. The patient is unconscious and not breathing. You attempt to open his airway with a jaw thrust maneuver and are unsuccessful. What should you do next?
a. Use the head tilt chin lift maneuver
b. Use
a. Use the head tilt chin lift maneuver
Rationale: AHA Guidelines state that after an unsuccessful attempt at opening the patient's airway with the jaw thrust maneuver, you should use the head tilt chin lift maneuver. Recognize this may be potentially dam
* Of the following, which general physical findings of the upper extremities should not be included when examining the musculoskeletal system during secondary assessment?
a. Arm drift
b. Color
c. Range of motion
d. Circulatory function
b. Color
Rationale: When examining the musculoskeletal system during secondary assessment, general physical findings for the upper extremities should include: Range of motion, sensory, motor function, circulatory function, and arm drift.
A 9 year old girl was riding her bike when she ran into a tree. Which of the following choices of assessment techniques would you use to rapidly form a general impression of this patient?
a. PAT
b. KID
c. BOB
d. MIC
a. PAT
Rationale: You would want to use the PAT or Pediatric Assessment Triangle to quickly form a general impression of the patient. Appearance, Work of Breathing and Circulation of the skin are the three components of the PAT.
According to the National Head Injury Foundation, what is the best definition of Traumatic Brain Injury (TBI)?
a. A traumatic insult to the brain capable of producing physical and intellectual changes
b. A traumatic insult to the brain capable of producin
c. A traumatic insult to the brain capable of producing physical, intellectual, emotional, social, and vocational changes
Rationale: Traumatic Brain Injury (TBI) is defined by the National Head Injury Foundation as: A traumatic insult to the brain capable
* Which would not be included in management of laryngeal injuries?
a. Cervical immobilization
b. Treat for shock
c. Stabilize impaled objects that do not obstruct airway
d. Oxygenation and ventilation
b. Treat for shock
Rationale: Management of laryngeal injuries include: Oxygenation and ventilation; cervical immobilization (avoid rigid collars); and stabilize impaled objects if not obstructing airway.
* Signs and symptoms of brain injury may include all of the following except:
a. Combative behavior
b. Rapid heart rate
c. Visual complaints
d. Unequal pupil size
b. Rapid heart rate
Rationale: Signs and symptoms of brain injury may include: Decreased mentation; irregular breathing pattern; widening pulse pressure; slow heart rate; ecchymosis about eyes or behind the ear over the mastoid process; clear or pink CSF
* Your unit is called to the scene of a motor vehicle collision at a busy intersection. A man in his 40's, driving a small truck, has hit a telephone pole head on. He was unrestrained and ejected through the windshield at approximately 50 MPH. When you ar
b. Liquid filling the pericardium increases pressure and inhibits the ventricles from filling properly, which in turn leads to low stroke volume and low pressure
Rationale: This patient is exhibiting signs of cardiac tamponade and pulsus paradoxus, making
* Indicators of middle brain stem involved ICP include all of the following except:
a. Pupils sluggish
b. Widening pulse pressure
c. Flaccid response to painful stimuli
d. Bradycardia
c. Flaccid response to painful stimuli
Rationale: ICP (Intracranial Pressure) is the pressure inside the skull and the brain tissue from increased cerebral spinal fluid, brain lesion, or swelling of the brain. Indicators of middle brain stem involved ICP
Trauma due to gunshot is influenced by all of the following except:
a. Velocity of weapon
b. Fragmentation
c. Length of wound
d. Distance from shooter
c. Length of wound
Rationale: Trauma due to gunshot is influenced by: distance from shooter, size of bullet, fragmentation, cavitation, and velocity of weapon. The length of wound isn't a consideration in this scenario.
* Which of the following answer choices is not a part of the management of external bleeding?
a. Tourniquet
b. Direct pressure
c. Internal pressure
d. Splints
c. Internal pressure
Rationale: Management of external bleeding includes: Direct pressure, splints, and tourniquet.
* Assessment of brain stem injuries should focus on all of the following except:
a. Posturing
b. Memory deficit
c. Seizures
d. Bradycardia
b. Memory deficit
Rationale: The focus of assessment in brain stem injuries should include: vagus nerve pressure resulting in bradycardia, respiratory centers, posturing, and seizures. The Brain Stem regulates heart rate, balance and respiration, and rece
* Unique management considerations of black widow bites include all of the following except:
a. Immobilize extremity
b. Ice pack to area of bite
c. Clean bite site with soap and water
d. Transport immediately with supportive care
a. Immobilize extremity
Rationale: Unique management considerations of black widow bites include: Ice pack to area of bite, clean site with soap and water, and transport immediately with supportive care.
The mechanism of injury in orthopedic trauma includes all of the following except:
a. Twisting force
b. Turning force
c. Indirect force
d. Direct force
b. Turning force
Rationale: The mechanism of Injury in orthopedic trauma includes: Direct force/blow fractures the bone at the point of impact. Indirect force causes injuries at a distant point. Don't overlook associated injuries. Identify point of contac
* You and your partner Wilson arrive on scene to a fire that is under control. You are treating a patient with full thickness burns to the arm. During transport to the helicopter Wilson says, "Hey, what zone of the burn is the part that will recover?" You
d. Zone of hyperemia
Rationale: Zone of coagulation is the central part of the burn. Zone of stasis has partial viable tissue out from that. Then there is the zone of hyperemia which is the part that will most likely recover from the injury.
Resources: NE
* Which of the following statements best reflects burn injuries?
a. Burns are classified based on the size and area of the burn
b. The mortality rates from burns is dependent upon socioeconomic status, gender, and age of the patient
c. A leg submerged in
b. The mortality rates from burns is dependent upon socioeconomic status, gender, and age of the patient
Rationale: A small child's tissues are not capable of withstanding the same temperatures for the same time as an adult. Injury is quicker and more sev
* A limb that has been exposed to cold and is considered a localized injury should be ____.
a. Held above the head and massaged
b. Massaged and heat packs applied
c. Splinted and warmed
d. None of the above
c. Splinted and warmed
Rationale: Never massage a cold injury because you may make it worse as there could be tissue damage already. Passive, gradual warming is an accepted method of treating this injury along with immobilization.
* A complete neurological exam of a brain trauma patient as part of the general assessment should include all of the following except:
a. Appearance and behavior
b. Posture and motor behavior
c. Facial expression
d. Ventilation and respiration
d. Ventilation and respiration
Rationale: A complete neurological exam of a brain trauma patient should include: Appearance and behavior, observe posture and motor behavior, facial expression, speech and language, thoughts and perceptions, memory and atte
What are the functions of the Musculoskeletal System?
a. Support, retraction, rotation, extension
b. Support, mineral and lipid storage, blood cell production, movement
c. Form tendons, protect ligaments, support the muscles, support the bones
d. Store en
b. Support, mineral and lipid storage, blood cell production, movement
Rationale:
The Musculoskeletal System includes, bones, muscles, tendons, ligaments, nerves, and cartilage. The function of the Musculoskeletal System is to provide support for the body
* A 20-year-old male has injured his back at a local swimming hole. You and your partner Missy arrive to find the man moaning and lying partially in the water next to a pile of rocks. Witnesses say he slipped while climbing a tree over the swimming hole a
a. Assist ventilations and elevate the man's legs
Rationale: This man is in need of ventilatory support as his respiration rate AND depth are not sufficient. Treatment should include slight elevation of the legs in order to help treat for shock as well as
* The signs and symptoms of diving emergencies (dysbarism) include all of the following except:
a. Respiratory distress
b. Pain in joint
c. Cough
d. SCUBA (diving at greater depths for long periods of time)
d. SCUBA (diving at greater depths for long periods of time)
Rationale: The signs and symptoms of diving emergencies occur after the patient rises to the surface too quickly following a dive at depth and includes: Cyanosis, coughing, respiratory distress,
Injuries of concern when you are dealing with bites and envenomations include all of the following except:
a. formicidae
b. hymenoptera
c. spider bites
d. snake bites
a. formicidae
Rationale: Injuries of concern when dealing with bites and envenomations include: spider bites, snake bites, and hymenoptera (bees, wasps, ants, yellow jackets). Formicidae is the family name for ants.
* Which best describes the brain stem?
a. Nerve pathways that conduct messages of the brain
b. Composed of nerve cells
c. Coverings of the brain
d. Center for involuntary functions
d. Center for involuntary functions
Rationale: The brain stem is the center for involuntary functions such as temperature regulation, respirations, heart rate, regulation of consciousness, and nerve function transmission. The brain stem is comprised of th
* Of the possible answer choices, which is not include in the bones of the head or face?
a. Mandible
b. Zygoma
c. Manubrium
d. Orbital
c. Manubrium
Manubrium is the broad upper part of the sternum
Rationale: The bones of the head and face include: Nasal, zygoma/zygomatic arch, orbital, maxilla, mandible, and skull. The manubrium is the broad area of the proximal sternum.
Within the kinematics of trauma, the definition of blunt trauma includes all of the following except:
a. Unrestrained driver and front seat passengers collide during accident
b. Damage influenced by energy levels
c. Direction of the force impacts the type
b. Damage influenced by energy levels
Rationale: Within Kinematics of Trauma the definition of blunt trauma includes: Objects colliding during crashes, unbelted drivers and front seat passengers suffering trauma due to multiple collisions of body and orga
Dopamine promotes?
a. Vasoconstriction
b. Vasodilation
c. Beta 2 properties
d. Venous return
a. Vasoconstriction
Rationale: Due to the alpha properties, dopamine promotes vasoconstriction.
* Common venipuncture sites include which of the following?
a. Cephalic vein
b. Radial vein
c. Metacarpal vein
d. All of the above
d. All of the above