Patient Care

What is the normal rate of respiration for an adult patient?
A. 5 to 7 breaths per minute
B. 8 to 12 breaths per minute
C. 12 to 20 breaths per minute
D. 20 to 30 breaths per minute

C. 12 to 20 breaths per minute

Which of the following would be a normal pulse rate range for a child between the ages of 4 to 10?
A. 40 to 50 beats per minute
B. 55 to 65 beats per minute
C. 70 to 80 beats per minute
D. 90 to 100 beats per minute

D. 90 to 100 beats per minute

Which of the following types of shock is caused by a massive infection?
A. hypovolemic
B. septic
C. neurogenic
D. cardiogenic

B. septic

Which of the following lines or catheters is typically placed in the pulmonary artery?
A. CVP line
B. Foley catheter
C. Swan-Ganz catheter
D. chest tube

C. Swan-Ganz catheter

Which of the following is another term for a laxative?
A. emetic
B. cathartic
C. diuretic
D. antitussive

B. cathartic

For what purpose would a patient be placed in the Sims position?
A. administration of oral contrast
B. insertion of barium enema tip
C. response to allergic reaction
D. insertion of myelography needle

B. Insertion of barium enema tip

Bonus and infusion are examples of what type of contrast administration?
A. oral
B. rectal
C. intravenous
D. inhalation

C. intravenous

As it relates to contrast media, miscibility refers to
A. the degree of thickness of the contrast compared to blood
B. the potential for side effects resulting from contrast administration
C. the ability of the contrast to mix safely with the bloodstream

C. the ability of the contrast to mix safely with the bloodstream

Which of the following best describes anaphylaxis?
A. an inflammatory reaction
B. pulmonary asthma
C. acute or chronic chest pain
D. an allergic reaction or shock

D. an allergic reaction or shock

Which of the following best describes emphysema?
A. air within the pleural space that cannot escape
B. fluid within the pleural space that prevents normal respiration
C. Infection within the pericardial sac due to an accumulation of fluid
D. Accumulation

D. Accumulation of air in pulmonary tissues, resulting in over distention of the alveolar spaces

Which of the following is an example of a nosocomial infection
A. infection acquired in the hospital
B. infection acquired in a crowd of people
C. type of rhinitis
D. upper respiratory infection

A. infection acquired in the hospital

Which of the following is an example of indirect infection transmission by means of airborne contamination?
A. droplets or dust
B. mosquitoes and insects
C. objects such as the radio graphic table or calipers
D. staphylococcic or streptococcic infections

A. droplets or dust

Which of the following routes of infection transmission occurs when a person becomes infected as a result of touching an object that is infected?
A. direct contact
B. indirect contact by means of fomites
C. indirect contact by means of vectors
D. indirect

B. indirect contact by means of fomites

Which of the following is NOT a form of intentional misconduct
A. slander
B. negligence
C. invasion of privacy
D. assault

B. negligence

The Latin term "res ipsa locquitur" literally means
A. let the master answer
B. let the decision stand
C. the thing speaks for itself
D. the matter is set by precedent

C. the thing speaks for itself

Which of the following should NOT be done in case of a fire?
A. stand by for further instructions from authorized personnel
B. report the fire and precise location
C. Immediately report the fire to your supervisor
D. prepare patients for further evaluatio

C. Immediately report the fire to your supervisor

Which of the following would be a normal pulse rate range for an adult?
A. 40 to 50 beats per minute
B. 55 to 65 beats per minute
C. 70 to 80 beats per minute
D. 90 to 100 beats per minute

C. 70 to 80 beats per minute

Which of the following is true concerning a Swan-Ganz catheter?
A. it is placed in the urinary bladder
B. it is assists in the aspiration of gas and fluid in the intestinal tract
C. it is used for feeding or gastric suction
D. it is an angio catheter

D. it is an angio catheter

Bronchitis and pulmonary emphysema are examples of which of the following pathologies?
A. pneumonia
B. pleural effusion
C. pneumoconiosis
D. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

D. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

Blood pressure is measured in which of the following units?
A. beats per minute
B. mmHg
C. degrees F
D. L/min

B. mmHg

When a patient with an arm injury needs help undressing, the radiographer should
A. remove clothing from the uninjured arm first
B. always remove clothing from the left arm first
C. remove clothing from the injured arm first
D. always cut clothing away fr

A. remove clothing from the uninjured arm first

Which of the following is an example of indirect infection transmission by means of vectors?
A. droplets or dust
B. mosquitoes and insects
C. objects such as the radiographic table or calipers
D. staphlococcic or streptococcic infections

B. mosquitoes and insects

Which of the following routes of infection transmission occurs when a person becomes infected as a result of exposure to droplets or dust?
A. direct contact
B. indirect contact by means of fomites
C. indirect contact by means of vectors
D. indirect contac

D. indirect contact by means of airborne contamination

Which of the following isolation techniques does not require the use of gloves?
A. strict isolation
B. respiratory isolation
C. reverse isolation
D. enteric isolation

B. respiratory isolation

Isovue, Hexibrix, and Omnipaque are examples of
A. oil-based contrast agents
B. non-ionic contrast agents
C. negative contrast agents
D. ionic contrast agents

B. non-ionic contrast agents

Which of the following statements are FALSE?
A. Ionic solutions have a higher osmolarity associated with them than non-ionic solutions
B. As the osmolarity of a contrast agent increases, the risk of reaction also increases
C. The kVp range of iodinated co

D. Intravenous, non-iodinated contrast will result in substantially less chemotoxic reactions

Anaphylaxis is also known as which of the following?
A. neurogenic shock
B. cardiogenic shock
C. allergic shock
D. hypovolemic shock

C. allergic shock

Which of the following types of shock results in a failure of arterial resistance and hypotension?
A. hypovolemic
B. septic
C. neurogenic
D. cardiogenic

C. neurogenic

A technologist can be guilty of which of the following for performing a radiographic procedure on the wrong patient?
A. assault
B. battery
C. false imprisonment
D. invasion of privacy

B. battery

If a technologist reveals confidential information on a patient to unauthorized persons, he/she may be guilty of
A. slander
B. libel
C. invasion of privacy
D. defamation

C. invasion of privacy

Which of the following is the most common method of spreading infection?
A. hand contact
B. contaminated instruments
C. soiled linen
D. improperly disposed contaminated waste

A. hand contact

Which of the following stages of infection is the infection the most communicable?
A. incubation period
B. disease period
C. latent period
D. convalescent period

B. disease period

Which of the following routes of infection transmission occurs when the host is touched by an infected person placing the organisms in absolute contact with susceptible tissues?
A. direct contact
B. indirect contact by means of fomites
C. indirect contact

A. direct contact

Which of the following methods of contrast administration requires sterile technique?
A. orally
B. intravenously
C. rectally
D. through a nasogastric tube

B. intravenously

If a patient's blood pressure is 160/85, what does the 160 represent?
1. The pressure when the cardiac muscle tissue is relaxed
2. The pressure when the cardiac muscle tissue is contracting
3. An abnormally high systolic pressure
A. 1 & 3 only
B. 2 & 3 on

B. 2 & 3 only
The pressure when the cardiac muscle tissue is contracting
An abnormally high systolic pressure

Which of the following blood pressure measurements would be an indication of shock?
A. diastolic pressure higher than 150 mm Hg
B. diastolic pressure lower than 90 mm Hg
C. systolic pressure higher than 150 mm Hg
D. systolic pressure lower than 60 mm Hg

D. systolic pressure lower than 60 mm Hg

Which of the following types of shock is characterized by external hemorrhage, lacerations, or plasma loss due to burns?
A. hypovolemic
B. septic
C. neurogenic
D. cardiogenic

A. hypovolemic

Which of the following is NOT a pathological condition characterized by a loss of normal bone calcification?
A. osteoarthritis
B. osteomalacia
C. rickets
D. osteoporosis

A. osteoarhritis

When performing cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) on an infant, it is necessary that the number of compressions per minute, compared to that for an adult,
A. be doubled
B. decrease
C. increase
D. remain the same

C. increase

Place the following radiographic contrast procedures in proper sequence?
1. upper gastrointestinal exam
2. double contrast barium enema
3. oral cholecystogram
A. 2, 3, 1
B. 3, 2, 1
C. 2, 1, 3
D. 1, 3, 2

B. 3,2,1
3. oral cholecystogram
2. double contrast barium enema
1. upper gastrointestinal exam

A small bottle containing a single dose of medication is termed a(n)
A. vial
B. infusion
C. bolus
D. ampulae

D. ampullae

Which of the following lines or catheters needs to be clamped when performing an IVU procedure?
A. CVP line
B. Foley catheter
C. Swan-Ganz catheter
D. chest tube

B. Foley catheter

The term "respondeat superior" literally means
A. "the thing speaks for itself"
B. "let the decision stand"
C. "the duty has been breached"
D. "let the master answer

D. "let the master answer

Since radiographs are considered medical legal documents, all of the following information must appear on a radiograph EXCEPT
A. physician's name
B. name of the hospital or institution
C. patient's name
D. left or right markers

A. physician's name

Which of the following would NOT be an example of an invasion of privacy?
A. discussing a patient's medical condition in public
B. restraining a patient without proper validation
C. improperly touching a patient
D. improperly exposing the patient

B. restraining a patient without proper validation

Staphlococcic and streptococcic infections are examples of which of the following methods of infection transmission?
A. direct contact
B. indirect contact by means of fomites
C. indirect contact by means of vectors
D. indirect contact by means of airborne

A. direct contact

Transmitting infections by contact with objects such as the radiographic table, calipers, or the radiographic cassette are examples of which of the following?
A. direct contact
B. indirect contact by means of fomites
C. indirect contact by means of vector

B. indirect contact by means of fomites

Mosquitoes, insects, or other arthropods are examples of which of the following methods of transmitting infections?
A. direct contact
B. indirect contact by means of fomites
C. indirect contact by means of vectors
D. indirect contact by means of airborne

C. indirect contact by means of vectors

Which of the following is defined as avoiding the transmission of organisms by using proper cleaning, dusting, linen handling, and hand washing techniques?
A. medical asepsis
B. cleanliness
C. disinfection
D. sterilization

B. cleanliness

Which of the following is defined as the destruction of pathogens by using chemical materials?
A. medical asepsis
B. cleanliness
C. disinfection
D. sterilization

C. disinfection

Which of the following BEST describes surgical asepsis?
A. elimination of almost all organisms through the use of soap and water
B. elimination of almost all organisms through the use of chemical disinfectants
C. elimination of all organisms through the u

D. elimination of all organisms through the use of gas sterilization, germicides, or dry heat

Which of the following isolation techniques requires all radiographic equipment and personnel to be covered?
A. reverse isolation
B. enteric isolation
C. strict isolation
D. body substance precautions

A. reverse isolation

Which of the following isolation techniques is employed if there is a chance of coming into contact with the products of an infected person's GI system?
A. reverse isolation
B. enteric isolation
C. strict isolation
D. body substance precautions

B. enteric isolation

Which of the following is considered a negative contrast agent?
A. barium
B. Iohexol
C. hypaque
D. carbon dioxide

D. carbon dioxide

All of the following statements concerning positive contrast agents are true EXCEPT
A. they are comprised of high atomic number elements
B. they increase the attenuating ability of the structure filled with the contrast
C. they increase radiographic densi

C. they increase radiographic density

Which of the following would be considered a severe contrast reaction?
A. excessive vomiting
B. tachycardia
C. excessive urticaria (hives)
D. cyanosis

D. cyanosis

Which of the following is also known as a major motor seizure?
A. petite mal seizure
B. grand mal seizure
C. orthostatic hypotension
D. syncope

B. grand mal seizure

Which of the following medical emergencies may not be apparent to the radiographer?
A. petite mal seizure
B. hypoglycemia
C. syncope
D. grand mal seizure

A. petite mal seizure

Which of the following statements is true concerning arterial and venous blood?
A. arterial blood contains much greater pressure
B. venous blood contains slightly greater pressure
C. to stop arterial bleeding compression should be applied to the site or d

A. arterial blood contains much greater pressure

Which of the following BEST defines pyrexia?
A. temperature lower than normal
B. temperature higher than normal
C. temperature higher than normal that puts the patient in a life threatening situation
D. temperature lower than normal and associated with hy

B. temperature higher than normal

Which of the following is an example of direct infection transmission?
A. droplets or dust
B. mosquitoes and insects
C. objects such as the radiographic table or calipers
D. staphlococcic or streptococcic infections

D. staphylococcic or streptococcic infections

Which of the following is defined as reducing the probability of infectious organisms transmitted to a susceptible individual?
A. medical asepsis
B. cleanliness
C. disinfection
D. sterilization

A. medical asepsis

Which of the following is defined as the treatment of contaminated items with heat, gas, or chemicals to make them germ free?
A. medical asepsis
B. cleanliness
C. disinfection
D. sterilization

D. sterilization

Which of the following routes of infection transmission occurs when a person becomes infected with organisms as a result of contact with infectious animals?
A. direct contact
B. indirect contact by means of fomites
C. indirect contact by means of vectors

C. indirect contact by means of vectors

Which of the following isolation techniques is employed on patients who are not infectious?
A. reverse isolation
B. enteric isolation
C. strict isolation
D. respiratory isolation

A. reverse isolation

The principle opacifying element in water-soluble contrast agents is
A. iodine
B. cation
C. meglumine
D. sodium

A. iodine

Renographin, Conray, and Hypaque are examples of
A. water-soluble contrast agents
B. positive contrast agents
C. ionic contrast agents
D. all of the above

D. all of the above

Barium sulfate and Pantopaque are examples of
A. oil-based contrast agents
B. water-based contrast agents
C. iodinated contrast agents
D. positive contrast agents

D. positive contrast agents

For procedures that utilize barium sulfate, the kVp range should typically be
A. above 120
B. above 90
C. between 70 and 90
D. below 70

B. above 90

Which of the following would be considered a mild contrast reaction?
A. excessive vomiting
B. tachycardia
C. itching
D. convulsions

C. itching

Urticaria is the medical term for
A. redness of the skin
B. hives
C. inflammation of the nasal mucosa
D. loss of hair

B. hives

What is the most common method of vascular catheterization?
A. direct injection
B. Seldinger
C. Doppler
D. Grashey

B. Seldinger

Which of the following accurately defines a cathartic?
A. induce vomiting
B. stop coughing
C. promote urination
D. stimulate defecation

D. stimulated defecation

Which of the following would NOT be authorized to order a radiologic examination?
A. attending physician
B. radiographer
C. radiologist
D. physician assistant

B. radiographer

* The doctrine of res ipsa loquitur would involve which of the following cases?
A. slander
B. obvious negligence
C. invasion of privacy
D. libel

B. obvious negligence

Which of the following statements concerning torts is true?
1. They are violations of civil law.
2. They are considered part of personal injury law.
3. They provide for compensation for injury.
A. 1 & 2 only
B. 1 & 3 only
C. 1, 2, & 3
D. 3 only

C. 1,2,&3

Which of the following best defines assault?
A. threatening the patient or causing the patient to be apprehensive
B. hitting a patient
C. touching the patient without consent
D. performing a radiographic procedure without the patient's consent

A. threatening the patient or causing the patient to be apprehensive

Which of the following is an example of a battery?
A. performing a radiographic procedure on the wrong patient
B. verbally threatening the patient
C. restraining a patient without a valid physician's order
D. all of the above

A. performing a radiographic procedure on the wrong patient

Negligence is also known as
A. libel
B. slander
C. an accident
D. unintentional misconduct

D. unintentional misconduct

Which of the following conditions must be met to prove malpractice?
A. the standard of care was violated
B. the injury was caused by the actions of the care giver
C. the injury actually occurred and was the result of negligence
D. all of the above

D. all of the above

Which of the following is a normal respiration rate for an adult?
A. 8 to 10 breaths per minute
B. 15 to 20 breaths per minute
C. 20 to 30 breaths per minute
D. 30 to 60 breaths per minute

B. 15 to 20 breaths per minute

Which of the following is a normal respiration rate for a child?
A. 8 to 10 breaths per minute
B. 15 to 20 breaths per minute
C. 20 to 30 breaths per minute
D. 30 to 60 breaths per minute

D. 30 to 60 breaths per minute

Which of the following would be a normal pulse rate range for an infant?
A. 40 to 50 beats per minute
B. 75 to 85 beats per minute
C. 90 to 100 beats per minute
D. up to 120 beats per minute

D. up to 120 beats per minute

Which of the following is a sphygmomanometer used for?
A. determine pulse or heart rate
B. measure blood pressure
C. determine body temperature
D. measure respiration rate

B. measure blood pressure

* Which of the following conditions describes a patient who experiences difficulty breathing while lying in the recumbent position?
A. apnea
B. dyspnea
C. oligopnea
D. orthopnea

D. orthopnea

Which of the following BEST defines hypothermia?
A. temperature lower than normal
B. temperature higher than normal
C. temperature higher than normal that puts the patient in a life threatening situation
D. temperature lower than normal and associated wit

A. temperature lower than norm

For which of the following would a diuretic be used?
A. induce vomiting
B. stop coughing
C. promote urination
D. stimulate defecation

C. promote urination

Which of the following types of shock is caused by inadequate cardiac output?
A. hypovolemic
B. septic
C. neurogenic
D. cardiogenic

D. cardiogenic

Which of the following types of shock is the result of an allergic reaction to being injected with an iodinated contrast agent?
A. neurogenic shock
B. cardiogenic shock
C. anaphylactic shock
D. hypovolemic shock

C. anaphylactic shock

The medical term for hives is
A. urticaria
B. epilation
C. rhinitis
D. erythema

A. urticaria

If measured orally, what is the normal body temperature?
A. 96.6 degrees F
B. 97.6 degrees F
C. 98.6 degrees F
D. 99.6 degrees F

C. 98.6 degrees F

Which of the following BEST defines hyperpyrexia?
A. temperature lower than normal
B. temperature higher than normal
C. temperature higher than normal that puts the patient in a life threatening situation
D. temperature lower than normal and associated wi

C. temperature higher than normal that puts the patient in a life threatening situation

P, QRS, and T waves are associated with which of the following?
A. blood pressure measurement
B. electrocardiography
C. electromagnetic radiation
D. magnetic resonance imaging technology

B. electrocardiograpy

Fainting is also known as
A. hyperglycemia
B. hypoglycemia
C. syncope
D. orthostatic hypotension

C. syncope

The proper technique to assist a person who is choking is
A. cardiopulmonary resuscitation
B. Heimlich maneuver
C. mouth-to-mouth resuscitation
D. Levin assistance

B. Heimlich maneuver

An ambulatory patient is one who
A. is unable to walk
B. requires transport in a stretcher
C. is able to walk
D. arrives at the hospital by ambulance

C. is able to walk

The act of inspiration will cause elevation of the
1. diaphragm
2. ribs
3. sternum
A. 1 only
B. 1 & 3 only
C. 1, 2, & 3
D. 2 & 3 only

D. 2 & 3 only

Which of the following is a contraindication to iodinated, water-soluble contrast administration?
A. multiple myeloma
B. abdominal pain
C. existence of a kidney stone
D. hypertension

A. multiple myeloma

Which of the following imaging modalities do NOT require the use of ionizing radiation to produce an image?
1. medical sonography
2. computed tomography
3. magnetic resonance imaging
A. 1 & 2 only
B. 1 & 3 only
C. 1, 2, & 3
D. 1 only

B. 1 & 3 only

A vasodilator would most likely be used for
A. cardiac arrest
B. anaphylaxis
C. angina
D. bradycardia

C. angina

A portable chest radiograph is requested to check for a CVP line placement. Which of the following best describes a CVP line?
A. intravenous catheter
B. chest tube
C. biliary vessel tube
D. pacemaker

A. intravenous catheter

The process of eliminating as many organisms as possible by using chemical disinfectants and water is known as
A. medical asepsis
B. boiling
C. sterilization
D. surgical asepsis

A. medical asepsis

Droplets or dust are examples of which of the following methods of infection transmission?
A. direct contact
B. indirect contact by means of fomites
C. indirect contact by means of vectors
D. indirect contact by means of airborne contamination

D. indirect contact by means of airborne contamination

* An informed consent is required before performing which of the following procedures?
A. barium enema
B. intravenous pyelography
C. sialography
D. upper GI

B. intravenous pyelography

A patient exercising the right not to undergo a radiographic procedure that has been ordered is known as
A. veracity
B. autonomy
C. beneficence
D. fidelity

B. autonomy

The diameter of a needle is termed its
A. bevel
B. hub
C. gauge
D. length

C. gauge

Which of the following is an example of indirect infection transmission by means of fomites?
A. droplets or dust
B. mosquitoes and insects
C. objects such as the radiographic table or calipers
D. staphlococcic or streptococcic infections

C. objects such as the radiographic table or calipers

Low blood sugar associated with sweating clammy, cold skin, blurred vision, and irritability describe which of the following?
A. hyperglycemia
B. hypoglycemia
C. syncope
D. grand mal seizure

B. hypoglycemia

The ethical principle that is related to the theory that patients have the right to decide what will or will not be done to them is
A. beneficence
B. fidelity
C. veracity
D. autonomy

D. autonomy

Sterile technique is required when contrast agents are administered
A. rectally
B. orally
C. intrathecally
D. through a nasograstric tube

C. intrathecally

When a patient arrives in the radiology department with a urinary Foley catheter bag, it is important to
A. place the drainage bag above the level of the bladder
B. place the drainage bag at the same level as the bladder
C. place the drainage bag below th

C. place the drainage bag below the level of the bladder

Which of the following may be used to effectively reduce the viscosity of contrast media?
A. warming
B. refrigeration
C. storage at normal room temperature
D. storage in a cool, dry place

A. warming

All of the following statements concerning osteoarthritis are true EXCEPT
A. osteoarthritis is a progressive disorder
B. osteoarthritis is an inflammatory disorder
C. osteoarthritis involves deterioration of the articular cartilage
D. osteoarthritis invol

B. osteoarthritis is an inflammatory disorder

Which of the following diastolic pressure readings might indicate hypertension?
A. 50 mm Hg
B. 70 mm Hg
C. 90 mm Hg
D. 110 mm Hg

D. 110 mm Hg

* To reduce the back strain associated with transferring patients from a stretcher to the x-ray table, the radiographer should
A. pull the patient
B. push the patient
C. hold the patient away from his or her body and lift
D. bend at the waist and pull

A. pull the patient

You receive a patient who is complaining of pain in the area of the left fourth and fifth metacarpals; however, the requisition asks for a left forearm. What should the radiographer do in this situation?
A. perform a left hand exam
B. perform a left forea

D. check with the referring physician

An informed consent is required before performing which of the following procedures?
A. UGI
B. barium enema
C. sialogram
D. renal arteriogram

D. renal arteriogram

A quantity of medication that is administered rapidly is termed
A. an intravenous push
B. an infusion
C. a bolus
D. parenteral

A. an intravenous push

An MRI procedure is contraindicated for a patient having
A. a herniated disc
B. aneurysm clips
C. dental fillings
D. subdural bleeding

B. aneurysm clips

The medical abbreviation "tid" means
A. every hour
B. after meals
C. four times a day
D. three times a day

D. three times a day

What kind of precaution would merit a negative pressure room?

Airborne

Loss of Blood

Hypovolemic

Extravasation

Call for help

Patient is not breathing, what would you do first?

Call for help
Start compressions

What Lumen is widest?

Smallest number

What is orthostatic hypotension?

...

A patient having difficultly breathing while lying recumbent would indicate possible

Orthopnea

A patient suffering from anaphylaxis is given epinephrine. What will be the effects of this medication?

...

Anaphylaxis is also known as

...

Extravasation?
Greenstick?

...

Ambu bag

Ventilation bag use for CPR Oxygen reservoir

Difficult of swallowing

Dysphagia

For medical legal reasons, radiographic images are required?
Information that must be included on film

Patient identification
identity of the facility
R & L marker
date of examination

Living will

...

Higher the gauge number of intravenous needle, the smaller diameter.

...

Medical asepsis

reduce spread microbes

Conditions for valid patient consent 6-

Patient must be of legal age
Patient must be sound mind
Patient must give consent freely
Patient must be adequately informed of the procedure about to take place

Linens

Separate disposal of contaminated versus soiled items
If the bag for contaminated materials become contaminated, it should be placed in a second bag labeled "contaminated

What is the most common immobilization for an infant?

establishing rapport
sheet restraints,
upright and board restraint devices
radiolucent paddles, stockinette's, and tape used correctly.

A person that has been recumbent for some time and gets up quickly may suffer from light headiness suffer from

Orthostatic hypertension

If an emergency trauma patient experiences hemorrhaging from a leg injury.

The radiographer should apply pressure to the bleeding site.

What would you do for a patient feeling dizzy while lying down?

Place them in Trendelenburg position

Isolation pillow case is used for the cassette what do you do with the pillow case when done.

...

Which steps are involved in legally obtaining informed consent to perform a radiographic procedure?

A. The patient is legally competent
B. The patient has been informed about the risks involved in the procedure.
C. The patient has been informed about procedures in place to mitigate risks.
D. The patient has been informed about alternatives to this parti

Which route of parenteral administration may be used if a rapid response is desired?
A. Oral
B. Rectal
C. Sublingual
D. Intravascular

D. Intavascular