VET 2562 - Final Study Guide, Part 1: Units 1-6

Pharmacokinetic, pharmacodynamic, pharmaceutic

The three types of drug interactions:

The Green Book

All FDA-approved veterinary drugs are listed in the publication titled:

Food Animal Residue Avoidance Databank

The acronym "FARAD" stands for:

Provides expert advice concerning the avoidance of drug residues in an effort to achieve its goal of producing "safe foods of animal origin

The purpose of the FARAD:

Route of administration, total amount to be given (mg), frequency of dosing, duration of drug administration

What are the four components of a drug regimen?

VET-VIPPS seal of approval

Certificate that validates that the online pharmacy is appropriately licensed and is conducting business legitimately

The online pharmacy is appropriately licensed and is conducting business legitimately

The VET-VIPPS seal of approval validates that:

Ethical product

A product for which the manufacturer has voluntarily limited their sale to veterinarians as a market decision


Any manipulation (e.g. diluting, combining) performed to produce a dosage-form drug, other than the manipulations described in the directions for use on the labeling of an approved drug product


Abbreviation for capsule:

PO (per os)

Latin abbreviation for "by mouth":


Latin abbreviation for "three times daily

ac (ante cibum)

Latin abbreviation for "before meals":

gtts (guttae)

Latin abbreviation for "drops":


Abbreviation for solution:


A higher therapeutic index indicates a __________ margin of error


True or False: Enteric coated tablets are designed to help the drug dissolve in the stomach before reaching the small intestine

NPO (nil per os)

Latin abbreviation for "Nothing by mouth

Human abuse potential, addictive liability, medical benefit

Controlled drugs are classified into one of five schedules based upon which criteria?

AS (auris sinistra)

Latin abbreviation for "left ear":


Latin abbreviation for "twice daily":


Latin abbreviation for "sufficient quantity":

prn (pro re nata)

Latin abbreviation for "as needed":


Latin abbreviation for "every four hours":


Latin abbreviation for "every eight hours":


Abbreviation for powder:

Ut dict. (ut dictum)

Latin abbreviation for "as directed":

ad lib (ad libitum)

Latin abbreviation for "freely as wanted":


Latin abbreviation for "every other day":

ung (unguentum)

Latin abbreviation for "ointment":


Latin abbreviation for "four times daily":

OD (oculus dexter)

Latin abbreviation for "right eye":

Mask the flavor of the drug, stabilize substances, can be used for slow release

What are three benefits to the drug form known as "microencapsulation?

A hydroalcoholic liquid that contains sweeteners, flavoring, and a medicinal agent

What does an "elixir" usually consist of?

An oily substance dispersed in an equeous medium along with an additive that stabilizes the mixture

Define what is meant by an "emulsion

To reduce risk of aspriation into the lungs causing respiratory problems

Why should all oral medications, especially when in the liquid form be administered slowly and carefully?

Patient, drug, dose, route, time and frequency, documentation

What are the "Six Rights" of drug administration that allows effective medication of a patient?

Date, owner's name, patient's name, drug name, amount administered or dispensed, names of the veterinary personnel who dispensed the drug

Name 6 items that should be recorded in the controlled substance log

Leur Lock Syringe

Slip Tip Syringe

Eccentric Tip Syringe

Catheter Syringe

IV bolus

An injection of a single, precise amount of medication given at one time:

IV infusion

A constant rate infusion that is given at a slower rate over an extended period of time using an infusion pump:

Oral dosing syringe, nasogastric tube for horses, orogastric tube through Frick speculum for cattle

Three different techniques in which liquid medications can be administered orally to a large animal patients

Sciatic nerve



Proper restraint of animal and limb and isolation of the muscle belly; knowledge of anatomy to avoid vessels and sciatic nerve; apply negative pressure/aspirate to ensure injection is not being given into a vessel and no blood is drawn back into the syrin

When administering an intramuscular injection in a hind limb, describe the precautions to be taken to minimize complications because of injection and identify the specific structure that should be avoided

Veterinarian, client, and patient

For a veterinarian to prescribe a medication, a key relationship must exist between the:


A drug suspended in oily, soapy or alcohol based substance that is applied topically with friction:


Medications (including narcotics) administered into the rectum are considered:

Using a drug at a different dose or administering the drug in a different way than as instructed on the drug's label

Give two ways that a drug would be considered used as "extra-label" in veterinary medicine


Latin abbreviation for "Let it be written


A drug with an LD50 of 70 mg/# and an ED50 of 10 mg/#, what is the Therapeutic Index?


Oral administration is an example of an ___________ route of drug administration


Latin abbreviation for "Immediately


Latin abbreviation for "As needed


It is of the utmost importance to maintain sterility when administering drugs by which route?


True or False: "Sold to Veterinarians Only" is an acceptable prescription legend for drugs used in veterinary medicine


The amount of drug given to a patient at one time is the:


On a prescription, the ingredients or name of the drug along with the concentration and the amount to be dispensed is called the:


________________ are chemical agents, organic in nature (or mainly of plant origin) that contain one or more atoms of nitrogen; many are pharmacologically active and include member such as atropine, morphine and epinephrine


Of the following routes of administration, which would have the most rapid onset of action: IM, IV, PO, SQ


Which regulatory federal government agency oversees the development of new veterinary drugs for use in the United States and requires rigid evaluation for safety and efficacy?

Register triennially with the DEA, Keep records of orders, receipts, uses and discards for two years following each transaction, keep controlled drugs in a locked safe bolted in place

Proper practices for veterinarians dispensing and using controlled substances for patients?

pc (post cibum)

Latin abbreviation for "After Meals

OU (oculus uterque)

Latin abbreviation for "Both eyes


The response of living organisms to drugs in the presence of disease is termed:


In general, a suspension should NOT be administered:


True or False: It is acceptable for veterinarians to store large quantities of controlled drugs in a locked, ambulatory vehicle

Dose, administration route, frequency, number of refills, expiration date, statement "for veterinary use only

Name six items on how a drug should be administered that should be included on the drug label:


Latin abbreviation for "A sufficient quantity

A prescription drug

Caution: Federal Law restricts the use of this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian
This statement on a drug label indicates that the drug is:


The process by which drugs are absorbed, distributed within the body, metabolized, and excreted


The processes by which a medication works on the body


Area of pharmacology that examines the role of genetics in drug response

The drug concentration in the body that produces the desired effect with minimal or no signs of toxicity

What is the therapeutic range of a drug?

Drops, ointment, left ear, every day

Translate the abbreviations in quotations: Apply 5 "gtts.," "ung.", "A.S.", "q.d.", x 10 days

Extra-label drug use

What is the term for the use of a drug "in a way not specified by the label"?

Therapeutic drug monitoring

The procedure of measuring drug levels in body fluids to determine whether an appropriate level has been achieved is called:

Partition coefficient

The degree of lipid solubility of a drug

Therapeutic range

The drug concentration in the body that produces the desired effect with minimal or no signs of toxicity


A ________ partition coefficient indicates enhanced drug absorption across cell membranes

Absorption, distribution, biotransformation, excretion

The four steps in pharmacokinetics:

Steady state

The point at which drug accumulation equals drug elimination

First-pass effect

When an orally administerd drug is rapidly metabolized in the liver and its concentration is greatly reduced before it reaches systemic circulation


The degree to which a drug is absorbed and reaches systemic circulation

Partition coeffient

Degree of lipid solubility of a drug

Loading dose

An initial higher dose of a drug given at teh beginning of a treatment to rapidly achieve a therapeutic concentration in the body

NSAIDS, cardiac drugs, anticonvulsants, thyroid medications

Drugs that are commonly monitored using therapeutic drug monitoring:

Rate of drug absorption, amount of drug absorbed, distribution of the drug throughout the body, drug metabolism or biotransformation, rate and route of excretion

Primary factors that influence blood concentration levels of a drug and a patient's response to it:

Blood supply to the area, dosage form, mechanism of drug absorption, interactions with other medications, status of the GI tract, pH and ionization status of the drug, absorptive surface area

Factors that influence drug absorption:

Broad-spectrum anti fungal agent

Clotrimazole is classified as a:


Which antibiotic group may cause problems with ototoxicty and nephrotoxicity and is therefore contraindicated in animals with renal insufficiency?

Cepharin (Cefa-Lak)

Give the generic and one of the trade names for the cephalosporin antibiotic that is FDA-approved in the USA for intra-mammary use in the treatment of mastitis:

Azithromycin (Zithromax)

What is the generic and trade name for the broad-spectrum human-label macrolide (also known as the "Z pack") used to treat Mycoplasma, Bordatella and other respiratory infections in dogs?

Penicillin V is more readily available when given orally than Penicillin G

Since penicillin V and penicillin G have nearly the same spectrum of activity and efficacy, what is the main difference between these two antibiotics?

Penicillin G benzathine

Which long acting (48 hr.) penicillin is not approved for use in dairy cattle?

Penicillin G benzathine, Penicillin G procaine

Which two penicillin antibiotics should NEVER BE GIVEN INTRAVENOUSLY?


What is the antibiotic group that may cause yellow/brown discoloration of the bones and teeth of developing young animals and should NEVER BE GIVEN INTRAVENOUSLY TO A HORSE?


Which antibiotic group has the possible adverse side effects of causing keratoconjunctivitis sicca (KCS), hepatitis, anorexia, vomiting/diarrhea, bone marrow depression/hemolytic anemia, polyarthritis, crystalluria, hematuria and hypersensitivity reactions such as facial swelling, hives and urticaria?


Name the antibiotic that may cause fatal aplastic anemia in humans and therefore the FDA has prohibited its use in food producing animals. Clients should also be advised to wear gloves when handling this drug.

Amphotericin B

Which antifungal agent is used systemically for serious mycotic infections, must be administered IV through dilution in 5% dextrose, and renal function should be monitored throughout treatment due to its nephrotoxicity?(

Convert weight to kg: 23 lb / 2.2 lb/kg = 10.45 kg
Dosage x weight: 10.45 x 20mg/kg = 209 mg
Dose / concentration = volume: 209/100mg/mL = 2.09 mL

Calculate the number of ml of cefazolin needed for a 23-lb dog when dosed at 20 mg/kg. The concentration of cefazolin is 100 mg/ml:


Which species has a reduced ability to bio transform drugs due to deficiency in glucuronic acid needed for phase II conjugation?

Active skeletal muscle

Based on blood perfusion, which target tissue(s) would achieve an adequate drug level the fastest?


Drugs that become more active through the process of biotransformation are termed:


Which of the following is a fluoroquinolone antibiotic and would be contraindicated in young, rapidly growing animals due to having an adverse effect of causing erosions on developing articular cartilage?

A decreased dose of the medication is appropriate because a normal dose will lead to a greater amount of circulating free drug available for the target tissue

A geriatric canine with liver disease and malnutrition is to receive a medication that is usually 70% bound to protein when administered. How should you change the dose for this patient?


Which antibiotic is very effective for the treatment of anaerobic infections, abscesses, and dental disease in dogs and cats, however should not be used in pocket pets, horses, and ruminants due to severe GI distress?

Allergic reactions, even as severe as anaphylaxis

Which type of adverse reaction is most commonly observed with the use of penicillins, especially if given IV?

They prolong absorption from the injection site and extend penicillin G's duration of action

Some penicillin G injectable suspensions contain the procaine or benzathine molecule. What effect do these molecules have on penicillin G?

Beta-lactam ring

Broad-spectrum penicillins contain a __________ in their structure that interferes with cell wall synthesis

Clavulanic acid

The addition of ___________ protects amoxicillin against destruction by penicillinase producing bacteria

Broad-spectrum penicillins

GI superinfections from death of gut lactobacilli may result in death if ____________ are given to guinea pigs, rabbits, and hamsters


True or False: Amoxicillin should not be given with food since the bioavailability will be greatly reduced

Neomycin, bacitracin, polymyxin B

A typical antibiotic ointment for topical use would contain which three antimicrobials?


By which route of administration would a drug be the most bioavailable?

Pen G is destroyed by gastric acid

Why would a semi-synthetic penicillin such as amoxicillin be used instead of penicillin G for oral dosing?


Due to structural and chemical similarity, which of the antibiotic groups listed below should not be given to an animal with documented hypersensitivity to penicillin?


This macrolide antibiotic is a derivative of erythromycin, is a good penicillin substitute and is used for a variety of infections (especially respiratory) in both animals and humans. In dogs and cats the tissue half-life is very long and there is less GI distress than seen with erythromycin:

Kidney disease

The ability of a patient to excrete most drugs would be impaired by which condition?

Active transport, phagocytosis, pinocytosis

Which mechanisms of absorption requires energy?


A drug with an affinity for a particular receptor site but no efficacy is called a(n):

Penicillins and cephalosporins

Which antibiotics are classified as "cell wall agents" and can be destroyed by beta-lactamase producing bacteria?

Yellow/brown discoloration of teeth and slowed bone development

Hydrophilic forms of tetracycline should not be administered with divalent cations such as calcium or given during pregnancy or the early neonatal period due to the risk of causing:

Tick-borne pathogens

Tetracyclines are bacteriostatic, broad spectrum, and often used to treat ____________, such as Rickettsia spp.


___________ drugs are those that inhibit the growth or replication of bacteria


___________ drugs are those that kill bacteria

Non-ionized (lipophilic)

In an alkaline environment, an alkaline drug remains ___________ and can move more effectively across cell membranes


True or False: Doxycycline is one of the "hydrophilic" forms of tetracycline that is the drug of choice for treating tick-borne disease and should be given to cats without food or water to avoid esophageal irritation


This group of antibiotics has the adverse effects of ototoxicity, nephrotoxicity, and neurotoxicity. The topical forms should only be used for ear treatment if the tympanic membrane is intact, and the ear is clean


Which of the "antimetabolite" group of antibiotics may be "potentiated" with either ormetoprim or trimethoprim in order to broaden the spectrum of activity and reduce adverse effects that may be severe?

Withdrawal time

The period of time after a drug is administered during which an animal intended for food cannot be sent to slaughter as food is called:


Adverse effects of skin reactions, KCS, blood imbalances, crystal formation in the renal tubules and hypersensitivity/severe allergic reactions (especially in Dobermans) may be seen when using this group of antibiotics:


In pharmacokinetics, which route of administration would skip the phase of absorption?


The main organ for biotransformation:


Which of the following broad-spectrum antibiotic has been banned in the USA for use in food producing animals, due to the potential of causing fatal aplastic anemia in humans, but can safely be used in exotics and pocket pets?


True or False: Sulfa drugs that are classified as "enteric" are well absorbed from the intestine

Redness, loss of function, swelling, heat, pain

Clinical manifestations (cardinal signs) of inflammation:

Cyclooxygenase (COX)

In general, NSAIDS are thought to work by inhibiting this enzyme that occurs in two forms:

GI ulceration, GI bleeding

What are the two most common side effects of NSAID use?

Hepatotoxicity, nephrotoxicity, inhibition of cartilage metabolism, bone marrow suppression, bleeding tendencies from reduced platelet aggregation

Potential side effects from NSAID use:


NSAIDS that preferentially inhibit the __________ enzyme are thought to produce fewer GI side effects

Post-adultcide treatment for canine heartworm disease

When is acetylsalicylic acid used in dogs as part of antiparasitic therapy?

Phenylbutazone (Bute)

What is the generic name of the NSAID pyrazolone derivative commonly used in horses for relief of musculoskeletal pain and inflammation but should only be given parenterally by the IV route of administration?

Can cause severe inflammation and/or tissue necrosis

Why should phenylbutazone never be given IM or SC?

Flunixin meglumine

What is the generic name of the NSAID labeled for use in horses and cattle, but is especially used for pain associated with colic in horses?

Inhibits visceral pain

What ability does the drug Banamine have that makes it good for colic pain?


By what two parenteral routes of administration is the NSAID Banamine labeled for use?

Methemoglobinemia, cyanosis, anemia, liver damage - particularly lethal in felines

What are four adverse side effects of the analgesic acetaminophen and in which species are these side effects particularly lethal due to limited ability to biotransform this drug?

Carprofen (Rimadyl, Novox)

What is the generic and one of the trade names of the common propionic acid derivative approved in the USA for oral and injectable use in dogs, including the relief of pain and inflammation associated with DJD and post-operative pain from soft tissue or orthopedic repair?

Dimethyl sulfoxide (DMSO)

Which anti-inflammatory was originally developed as a commercial solvent and its actions may be related to its ability to trap products associated with the inflammatory response?

Topical application to reduce acute swelling

What is Dimethyl sulfoxide's only labeled clinical use in dogs and horses?


What action does the product DMSO cause on blood vessels when applied topically?

May cause skin burning/irritation or leave garlic taste/smell behind

Give two reasons that clients should be warned to wear gloves when apply the product DMSO:

Etodolac (EtoGesic)

What is the generic and trade name of the indole acetic acid derivative, labeled for use in dogs for management of pain and inflammation associated with osteoarthritis, that has been called the "aspirin" for dogs but is more COX-1 sparing?

Meloxicam (Metacam)

What is the generic and trade name of the drug in the "coxib" class that is used clinically to control pain associated with arthritis and surgical procedures in dogs and cats, however is limited in cat to a one-time subcutaneous injection for surgical pain?


Which category of drugs may be used to inhibit the effects or spreading of the inflammatory process and work by preventing histamine from combining with tissue receptors or by displacing histamine from receptor sites?


What important mediator of inflammation do antihistamines drugs NOT inhibit from forming?

Drowsiness, weakness, dry mucous membranes, urinary retention, CNS stimulation

What are five of the most common adverse effects associated with the category of drug antihistamines?

Polysulfated glycosaminoglycan (Adequan)

What is the generic and trade name of the drug used for adjunctive therapy of degenerative joint disease that is derived from bovine cartilage and labeled for use IM and intra-articular in dogs and horses?

Hyaluronate sodium (Equron)

What is the generic and trade name of the drug that mimics the composition of joint fluid and is labeled for administration both IV and intraarticular in horses?

Allergic reactions, inflammatory conditions, shock/toxemia, laminitis, inflammatory ocular conditins, addison's disease, autoimmune disease, lymphocytic neoplasms

Corticosteroids protect cells from inflammatory trauma and are used for the treatment of many conditions, in a variety of species. List at least eight of the clinical uses for corticosteroids in animals:

Short, intermediate, long-acting

List the three general ways that corticosteroid drugs are generally classified according to the drug's duration of action:

PU/PD, thinning of skin and muscle wasting, delayed healing, polyphagia with weight gain, Iatrogenic Cushing's disease, Iatrogenic Addison's with cessation of treatment, gastric ulcers, osteoporosis, abnormal behavior

List eight short- or long- term adverse effects that may be seen with corticosteroid use:

Analgesia, sedation, restraint, anesthesia, treatment of cough, treatment of diarrhea

What are six clinical uses for opioid drugs in cats, dogs, and horses?

Respiratory depression, excitement, nasuea, vomiting, diarrhea, defecation, panting, convulsions

Adverse side effects that may be seen with the use of narcotic drugs:

Intervertebral disk disease/syndrome, strains and sprains, mysoitis and bursitis, muslce spasms, tying up in horses

Give five clinical uses for the muscle relaxant methocarbamol (Robaxin-V�) (ch 14) that is used as an aid in the treatment of acute inflammatory conditions in dogs, cats and horses:

Diazepam (Valium)

What is the generic and trade name for the benzodiazepine that has potent antiseizure properties, can be administered rectally or IV and is the drug of choice for Status Epilepticus?


A pregnant female arrives in dystocia and you are assisting with the c-section delivery of a litter of puppies. One of the puppies handed to you is not breathing adequately. What is the generic name of the drug that the veterinarian may give to stimulate respiration?

1-2 drops under the tongue or into the umbilical vein

A pregnant female arrives in dystocia and you are assisting with the c-section delivery of a litter of puppies. One of the puppies handed to you is not breathing adequately. By what specific route and how much Doxapram should be administered?

Naloxone (Narcan)

What is the generic and trade name for the pure opioid antagonist that is used for the reversal of narcotic overdose?

Atipamezole (Antisedan)

What is the generic and trade name for the alpha-adrenergic blocking agent that is a reversal agent for the sedative/analgesic alpha-2 agonist dexmedetomidine?

A phenobarbital blood level and a general profile to check the liver enzymes every 6 months are important because they allow the veterinarian to monitor the levels of phenobarbital in the blood as well as monitor for the development of liver problems

A client comes in and asks for a prescription refill for her dog that was diagnosed with idiopathic epilepsy several years ago and has been well maintained on phenobarbital but had a "breakthrough" seizure recently. It has been six months since her last refill. What would advise should be done prior to the phenobarbital refill and why would you tell her this is necessary EVERY SIX MONTHS?

Suppression of non-productive cough in dogs, as an analgesic/neuroleptanalgesic, or to reduce adverse effects of an opioid agonist

The drug butorphanol tartrate (Torbugesic�) is a synthetic opioid partial agonist/antagonist indicated for:

Elevated liver enzymes, possible liver disease

Long-term use of the anti-convulsant phenobarbital can have an adverse effect of ____________ after long-term use

Stimulate the formation of glucose, can break down protein and inhibit growth of fibrocartilage, may cause iatrogenic Cushing's Disease

Side effects of corticosteroids:

Dimethyl sulfoxide (DMSO)

Which anti-inflammatory drug is a free radical scavenger that readily penetrates skin and must be handled cautiously (wear gloves) to avoid absorption of the drug by the person giving the treatment due to leaving a strong garlic smell/taste?


Which category of drugs effects the loss of, or dissociation from pain?


The species that best tolerates the side effects of NSAIDS:


Which category of anti-inflammatory drug has the ability to stabilize mast cell membranes and prevent the release of histamine?


What is the most common side effect of antihistamine use?

Phenylbutazone (Bute)

Which NSAID is most commonly used in horses to relieve musculoskeletal inflammation?


Which of the following is the drug of choice for IV or rectally administered emergency treatment of status epilepticus?

They will primarily decrease inflammatory prostaglandins

The newer class of NSAIDS like deracoxib (Deramaxx�) and meloxicam (Metacam�) are more selective for COX-2 inhibition. What does this mean?


CNS stimulant used to reverse general respiratory depression that may be seen with inhalant anesthesia or in puppies delivered by C-section. Should be used cautiously in animals with a history of seizures


Opioid agonist that� s 5 times more potent that morphine and is used for sedation, restraint, analgesia, and pre-anesthesia in multiple species


Alpha-2 antagonist used as a reversal agent for thiazine tranquilizers such as xylazine


Opioid competitive antagonist used as a reversal agent for opiate overdose. May need to be repeated due to having a shorter duration of action than the opiate agonist


Opioid agonist that 200 times more potent than morphine and is primarily used as a transdermal patch for slow release pain relief

GI distress/decreased clotting ability

What are the most common side effects associated with the use of NSAIDS?

It undergoes induced biotransformation by the liver causing the animal to develop tolerance

For which of the following reasons do animals become "resistant" to their dose of phenobarbital?


True or False: A long-acting steroid drug combined with acetate, diacetate, pivalate, or valerate would identify it as an aqueous solution that could be used by the IV route of administration


Fungistatic found in various topical ointments and also used orally for Candida albicans overgrowth in the GI


A protein substance with multiple roles in the body� s defense mechanisms including protecting host cells from viruses and stimulating non-infected cells to produce antiviral proteins. Mainly used in cats for treatment of FeLV and ocular herpes

Amphotericin B

Polyene antifungal that is reserved for severe, progressive, deep seated fungal infections due to nephrotoxicity. This drug must be administered IV through a filter system and protected from light/moisture


Imidazole antifungal that can be administered orally and topically to treat fungal and yeast infections in many species


This superficial antifungal is used orally to treat dermatophytes (ringworm), and often requires long dosage regimens. Absorption is better if in the � ultramicrosize� form, and given with a fatty meal


Which of the following is a spasmolytic drug used as an adjunctive therapy for inflammatory and traumatic conditions of skeletal muscle, especially intervertebral disc disease?

Can be identified by the ~fen ending in their names; work by blocking both cyclooxygenase and lipooxygenase; are analgesic, antipyretic, and anti-inflammatory

Propionic acid derivatives are NSAIDs that:

Restlessness, tremors, GI irritation

The adverse effects of methylxanthine drugs such as theophylline (Theodur�) include:

In horses for treatment of colic

Banamine� (flunixin meglumine) is an NSAID most commonly used:

Use the smallest dose possible and avoid continuous use due to adrenal gland atrophy

Recommendations for the safe use of glucocorticoids:

Inhibit proteolytic enzymes which degrade proteoglycans, promote production of joint fluid from the synovial membrane, have some anti-inflammatory action

How do the polysulfated glycosaminoglycans (PSGAG's) help treat degenerative joint disease in dogs and horses?

Nonproprietary name

The generic name for a drug is also known as:

Iatrogenic Addisonian crisis

If a dog has been treated with long-term glucocorticoid therapy, a sudden discontinuation may result in which of the following medical problems?

Biotransformed slower

Neonatal animals are unable to tolerate some drugs than adult animals because in neonates the drugs are:


An opioid analgesic often used as a transdermal patch for severe postsurgical pain is:

Skeletal muscle trauma

Methocarbamol is indicated for use as an adjunctive therapy for:


Which of the following drugs is an opiate agonist/antagonist that is often used as a premedication and for post-operative pain?


Outside of intestines or alimentary canal; popularly used to refer to injection routes

Cushing's disease

Chronic administration of glucocorticoids in high doses can cause iatrogenic:


What antibiotic is most likely to cause possible irreversible damage to the ear and renal toxicity?


What dosage form must be shaken before administration to an animal?


Itraconazole is most effective against:

Facilitated diffusion

Diffusion of a drug across membranes that involves a carrier protein but does not require energy is know as:


Which long acting barbiturate is considered the drug of choice in dogs and cats for anticonvulsant therapy?


True or False: The EPA regulates products for animal health

Viral organisms

Which microorganisms would acyclovir be effective against?


Which of the following anti-inflammatory drugs is a COX-2 inhibitor that preserves GI and renal protective prostaglandins?

Tramadol (Ultram)

Which drug is an "opiate like" mild analgesic that is often used as an alternative to pure opiates and NSAIDS for pain?


Glucosamine/chondroitin is a nutraceutical often used as an adjunct therapy for the treatment of: