1. A suture is a strand of material used to ligate blood vessels and approximate (surrounding) tissue. Sutures are necessary in many oral surgical procedures when a surgical wound must be closed, a flap positioned, or tissue grafted
Both Statements are true
2. All of the following are characteristics of suture material except
is made of metallic material
3. An example of natural absorbable sutures is
A)Polydioxanone.
B) Chromatic gut.
C) Poliglecaprone.
D) Polyglactin.
B- Reason: Natural absorbable sutures are plain and chromic gut. Synthetic absorbable sutures are polyglactin, poliglecaprone, and polydioxanone. Both types are considered to be absorba
4. An example of a natural nonabsorbable suture is
A)Polypropylene.
B) Nylon.
C) Polyester.
D) Silk.
D- Reason: A natural nonabsorbable suture is silk. Synthetic nonabsorbable sutures are nylon, polyester, polypropylene, and polytetrafluroethylene. Both types are considered to be nonabsorbable sutures
5. Dressing placed in keeping with biologic principles contribute to healing and are tolerated more comfortably by the patient. A satisfactory dressing has a little bulk as possible, yet is bulky enough to give strength
Both Statements are true
6. Which one of the following is an advantage of zinc oxide with eugenol dressing
Slow Setting
7. The advantage of a chemical-cured dressing includes
PLIABLE
8. During healing, epithelium begins to cover a wound in ____ days
5-6 days
9. Post treatment care includes all the following except
Smoking is allowed immediately after the procedure.
10. When removing dressing apply strong lateral pressure
FALSE
11. Which of the following is a condition of farsightedness resulting from a loss of elasticity of the lens of the eye due to aging?
PRESBYOPIA
12. Osteoporosis is common in people over 60, and the incidence increases with age. All of the following are risk factors of osteoporosis except one. Which one is the exception?
African American ethnicity
14. All of the following preventive care regimens are recommended for a patient in the early stages of Alzheimer disease except one. Which one is the exception?
Prepare the patient for eventual tooth loss and the need for dentures.
15. Which of the following is not a condition of significance seen in elderly patients?
Schizophrenia
16. The most common STD in this demographic is HIV/AIDS with an increase of new HIV/AIDS cases in the over 50- years of group. Increased number of older adults living in assisted living centers or senior housing communities has influenced these demographi
BOTH ARE TRUE
17. All of the following factors can distract the older adult from perceiving relevant information except
Intense Smells
18. The dental hygiene management considerations for a patient with respiratory disease includes all of the following except
Place in a supine position
19. The factors that cause most oral lesions under dentures include all of the following except one. Which one is the exception?
Dietary Habits
20. All of the following factors are associated with inflammatory papillary hyperplasia except one. Which one is the exception?
Tartar control toothpaste.
21. Long-standing chronic inflammatory tissue appears in single or multiple elongated folds related to the border of an ill-fitted denture. What is this condition called?
A)Epulis fissuratum
B) Epidermolysis
C) Epidermal cyst
D) Angular cheilitis
Reason: The epulis fissuratum (denture irritation hyperplasia) appears in single or multiple folds adjacent to the border of ill-fitting dentures.
22. All of the following are topics to include when you are educating this patient about wearing dentures except one. Which one is the exception?
Examinations are no longer necessary.
23. What special dietary instructions should a patient receive regarding new dentures?
Eat small amounts of a soft diet to relearn to chew
24. Your patient, who has just received a new denture, asks how soon she would need a reline, rebase, or remake of this new denture. What time frame should you tell her?
6 months to a year.
25. Mrs. Jones does not want to have her denture marked. She thinks it will interfere with the esthetics and asks that your dentists not do this. What should you tell the patient?
Marking is required by law in most states.
26. Which one of the following occurs to the bone after surgery?
Remodeling
27. Which one of the following is true concerning masticatory mucosa?
Covers the edentulous ridges
29. The following may contribute to the health and well-being of the patient's health prior to oral and maxillofacial surgery except
Motivate patients without any teeth remaining.
30. The nutritional state can influence the resistance to infection and wound healing. Nutritional deficiencies can occur because of the inability to ingest adequate nutrients orally
Both Statements are True
31. All of the following are causes of fractured jaws except
SLEEPING
32. How is the Le Fort Classification used in dentistry?
To identify the three general levels of maxillary fractures.
33. Many patients with fractured jaws tend to lose weight, which is generally related to inadequate nutrient and calorie intake. The objectives in planning a diet to include all of the following except
decrease resistance to infection.
34. One personal factor that influences surgery patients is their knowledge of preventative measures may be limited. They have an appreciation for preserving natural teeth, but choose not to preserve them.
First statement is true, and the second is FALSE
Emphasis needs to be placed on helping the patient include nutritious foods for the general health of the body & more specifically the alveolar processes, which support the dentures
True
36. All of the following are true concerning the influence of the patients nutritional status except
Effects the patients mental well-being
37. Basic information postsurgical instruction sheets includes all the following except
You may resume smoking after 1 hour
38. All of the following are predisposing pathologic conditions except
FALLS
39. Which of the following is a fungal infection that commonly occurs as an oral complication to radiation and chemotherapy?
Candida Albicans
40. Which type of transplantation involves an unrelated matched donor?
A)Allogeneic.
B) Syngeneic.
C) Autologous.
D) Random.
A- Reason: An allogenic transplantation of hematopoietic cells involves an unrelated matched donor. An autologous transplantation involves cells from one's own body, and a syngeneic transplantation inv
42. The best treatment for dry mouth would be?
Saliva substitute spray or gel.
43. A patient who is undergoing chemotherapy may exhibit all of the following oral conditions except
Gingival Enlargement
44. Which one of the following is not a risk factor for cancer?
FOOD
45. Which one of the following is NOT a common cancer?
BRAIN
46. Hematopoiesis
A)An irreversible alteration in adult cells toward more primitive (embryonic) cell types.
B) Formation and development of blood cells.
C) Use of biologic agents to treat cancer.
D) An abnormality of development in pathology, alternation in size, shape, an
47. The treatment for establish mucositis is mouth rinse containing diphenyhramine HCL in combination with other agents. Floss use may be precluded during cytotoxic treatment.
Both statements are TRUE.
48. What prohibits discrimination on the basis of a disability and requires places of public accommodation to meet requirements of accessibility?
Americans with Disabilities Act
49. The term disability refers to any restriction or lack of ability to perform an activity in the manner or within the range considered normal. Disabilities may be caused by hereditary, systemic disease or trauma.
Both Statements are TRUE
50. Barriers to dental care can involve all of the following people except
Physicians
51. It is best to obtain information about the patient with a disability
In advance of the appointment
52. When scheduling a dental appointment for a person with diabetes, you should consider
Medication and meal schedule
53. Sally, a patient with quadriplegia, needs to be transferred from her wheelchair to the dental chair. What type of wheelchair transfer would need to be done for Sally?
Immobile patient transfer
Reason: Sally, since she cannot support her own weight, would require an immobile patient transfer. This transfer would require two people. A mobile patient transfer would be used for a patient who can support his or her own weig
54. In the past the hygienist has recommended that Sally's caregiver not use denitrifies when brushing because of the fact that Sally cannot control swallowing and expectorating. The hygienist also recommends
Fluoride supplement
55. A patient with which disability would be particularly susceptible to dental accidents?
Epilepsy
56. A patient who has use of only one hand could remove proximal surface biofilm using
Floss Holder
57. A disadvantage of using a power toothbrush for a patient lacking finger strength is
on-off mechanism may be difficult to use.
58. All of the following are examples of oral and craniofacial anomalies, particularly in individuals with developmental disabilities except
A)Enamel defects.
B) Cleft lip of palate.
C) Low lip line.
D) Variations in number, size, or shape of teeth.
E) Dry gingiva due to air exposure.
Answer- C
59. Examples of damaging oral habits include all of the following except
Fingernail biting
Space is needed for the wheelchair. The doorway needs to be at least 30 inches wide.
FALSE
Door needs to be at least 32 inches wide
61. An incomplete spinal cord lesion leaves
some evidence of sensation or motor function below the level of lesion.
62. The symptoms of spina bifida occulta are
NONE
63. All of the following are etiologic factors of a cerebrovascular accident except
Bradykinesia
65. Which condition can require the challenge of helping the patient develop dexterity in the nondominant hand in order to manipulate biofilm removal implements?
Hemiplegia
66. Bradykinesia is
Abnormal slowness of movements
67. A decubitus ulcer is an ulcer that usually occurs
Over a bony prominence
68. Sialorrhea is associated with
excessive secretion of saliva.
69. Multiple sclerosis is
Genetically linked
70. Bell Palsy
paralysis of the facial muscle.
71. Conductive hearing loss involves
A)Outer or middle ear.
B) Middle or inner ear.
C) Outer or inner ear.
D)All of the above.
A- Reason: Conductive hearing loss involves the outer and middle ear involvement of the conduction pathways to the inner ear.
Central hearing loss involves:
A)Damage to sensory hair cells.
B) Damage to the nerves of the CNS in the brain.
C) None of the above.
D) Both A and B.
B- Reason: Central hearing loss involves damage of the nerves or nuclei of the central nervous system in the brain or the pathways to t
73. All of the following are signs of alcohol withdrawal except
Craving antacids
Parotid gland swelling frequently accompanies chronic alcohol abuse. The spread of recurrent occlusal caries in the molars is a result of chronic alcoholism.
The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
Reason: Chronic alcohol use is often accompanied by parotid gland swelling called sialadenosis Xerostomia is a symptom of alcohol abuse but not related to the spread of recurrent occlusal car
75. A person who is a chronic alcoholic can suffer from the deficiency of what nutrient?
Thiamine
76. All of the following are signs and symptoms of alcohol withdrawal syndrome except
Mental Alertness
77. Ecchymosis appears in body as
Bruising
78. A blood disorder that involves destruction of the bone marrow is known as
Agranulocytosis
79. Leukocytes perform all of the following functions in response to inflammation except
Transport Hemoglobin
80. What instrument is used to remove perio dressing ?
College Pliers
82. PHENOLIC AGENT IS USED FOR?
...
83. T/F - SIGNS OF BULEMIA PT ARE ENAMEL EROSION
TRUE
86. YOU WILL SEE MOST ROOT CARIES ON
AN OLDER PATIENT
87. A PARTIAL DENTURE WITH EXCESSIVE WEAR IS A RISK FACTOR FOR ROOT CARRIES
TRUE
88. KNOW THE LE FORT FRACTURES
...
89. INTERMAXILLARY FUSION IS SURGERY OF MAXILLA
LE FORT II
90. WHICH IS NOT A CLINICAL SIGN OF FRACTURE? HEAVY CALCULUS DEPOSITS IN AREA OF FRACTURE
...
91. WHICH IS NOT A PERIODONTAL DRESSING?
...
92. SIMPLE FRACTURE
DOES NOT COMMUNICATE WITH OUTSIDE
93. FRACTURE OF THE MANDIBLE
WILL NOT INCLUDE PTERYGOID PLATE
94. INTERMAXILLARY FUSION -
BANDS AND WIRES BETWEEN MAXILARY AND MANDIBLE
95. MUCOSITIS IS CAUSED BY-
...
Disorders characterized by severe deficits in multiple developmental areas such as reciprocal social interaction and communication, including autistic disorder, are called what?
A)Pervasive developmental disorders
B) Attention-deficit disorder.
C) Intellectual disorder.
D) Motor skills disorder
A- Reason: Pervasive developmental disorders are characterized by severe deficits in multiple developmental areas.
97. AUTISM WILL HAVE PROBLEMS WITH?
ALL THE ABOVE- IMPAIRMENT IN NON VERBAL, FACIAL EXPRESSIONS
98. WARNING BEFORE A SEIZURE -
AURA
99. SEIZURE LASTING 1-3 MINUTES -
TONIC CLONIC/GRAND MAL
100. WHAT SHOULD YOU DO 1ST IF YOU HAVE PT HAVING SEIZURE-
PREVENT INJURY
101. SEIZURE LASTING 5-30 SECONDS -
PETIT MAL/ABSENCE
102. KETOGENIC DIET IS RECOMMENDED FOR WHAT DISORDER?
EPILEPSY
103. SEIZURE THAT LASTS 5-30 SECONDS AND ENDS ABRUPTLY AND RETURNS TO HOW THEY WERE BEFORE?
PETIT MAL/ABSENCE
104. ANOREXIC PT CAN EXPERIENCE A METALLIC TASTE. A SIDE EFFECT OF DILANTIN IS LOSS OF TASTE-
BOTH TRUE
105. BULIMIC PATIENT WILL NOT HAVE -
LANUGO
106. ANOREXIA CAN DEVELOP FROM
ALL THE ABOVE (HYPERACTIVITY, SOCIAL PRESSURE, NEURO)
107. PATIENT COMES IN AND STATES THEY ARE SEEKING TREATMENT FOR EATING DISORDER, WHAT IS SAID OR DONE FIRST?
COMMEND FOR SEEKING TREATMENT
109. PT WITH BULIMIA CAN HAVE
ALL OF THE ABOVE (SCABBED KNUCKLES, SWOLLEN PAROTID GLAND SWELLING, TRAUMA TO PALATE)
110. WHAT RINSE IS RECOMMENDED FOR GINGIVITIS AND PERIODONTAL DISEASE? CLOREHEXADINE
...
111. DENTAL HYGIENIST WANTS TO CLEAN PTS DENTURE BUT WANTS TO KEEP ULTRASONIC CLEAN WHAT SHOULD SHE DO?
PLACE IN SEALED BAG WITH SOLUTION
112. WHICH TYPE MEDICATION CAUSES XEROSTOMIA
- ALL THE ABOVE (ANTIHYPERTENSION, ANTIDEPRESSANT, DIURETICS, PAIN MEDS)
113. T/F CHEMOTHERAPY IS A TREATMENT FOR CANCER, CHEMOTHERAPY IS MEDICATIONS DELIVERED SYSTEMICALLY -
BOTH ARE TRUE
114. WHICH MEDICATIONS ARE CONTRAINDICATED FOR ORAL SURGERY?
BISPHOSPHONATES
116. PATIENT THAT EXPERIENCES 5 MINUTE SEIZURE AND THEN REOCCUR
STATUS EPILEPTICUS
117. MUCCOSITIS CAN DEVELOP FROM
CHEMO AND RADIATION
118. GRAFT FROM YOURSELF-
AUTOLOGUS
119. ORAL COMPLICATIONS FROM RADIATION
- ALL THE ABOVE (OSTEORADIONECROSIS, TRISMUS..)
120. CAUSES OF FRACTURED JAW?
ALL THE ABOVE (INTERPERSONAL VIOLENCE, SPORTS, FALLS, INDUSTRIAL ACCIDENT)
121. SURGERY WITH PERIO FLAP TO CORRECT FRACTURE OF JAW?
OPEN REDUCTION
122. WHAT SHOULD YOU NOT DO IF PERIO DRESSING IS DISLODGED?
ONLY REPLACE PART THAT BROKE OFF
Which of the following is a common physical characteristic in patients with Down syndrome?
A)Transverse palmar crease
B) Tall stature.
C) Macrocephalus.
D) Long nose.
A- Reason: Patients with Down syndrome may have a transverse palmar crease, a common physical characteristic. Other characteristics include microcephalus, short nose, and short st
Autism, Rett, and Asperger disorders are included in this category.
Pervasive developmental disorders
Which psychiatric disorder is a major mood disorder in which episodes of varying degrees of mania (elation) and depression occur?
A)Schizophrenia
B) Depression
C) Bipolar disorder
D) Anxiety disorder
C- Reason: Bipolar disorder is characterized by varying degrees of mania and depression.
A patient with an anxiety disorder may experience what type of oral problem?
A)Excessive saliva
B) Hypersensitivity of teeth
C) Macroglossia
D) Lichen planus
B- Reason: Patients with an anxiety disorder may have hypersensitivity of teeth related to their general tenseness and irritability.
Mrs. Jones is a 78-year-old patient who is scheduled to have a root canal. When she arrives, however, she does not remember why she is there and has no recollection of needing a root canal. You consult her medical record and see that she is on multiple me
A referral to the patient's physician should be made when a patient's behavior is suspected
Which of the following oral lesions is commonly found during clinical examination of terminally ill patients?
A)Traumatic ulcer.
B) Candidiasis.
C) Stomatitis.
D) Benign migratory glossitis.
B-Reason: Candidiasis is a common oral lesion found on clinical examination of terminally ill patients. The infection can become life-threatening in immunocompromised individ
Your patient Mrs. Frank is in for her 3-month recare appointment. She has a lower partial denture. During the assessment you notice that #22 and #27 have porcelain crowns with pocket depths of 6 mm and slight mobility. Mrs. Frank tells you that she is thi
Changing the recare from 3 months to 6 months may jeopardize the teeth and periodontium.
Legal blindness is defined as having central vision of not more than 20/200. If someone is legally blind, he or she has no vision.
A)The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
B) The first statement is true, and the second statement is true.
C) The first statement is false, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is true, and the second statemen
The terminally ill patient requires which modification in home care?
A)Fluoride home trays.
B) Fluoride varnish for caries control.
C) Frequent examination of tissues for sores and ulcerations.
D) Antimicrobials to reduce systemic risks.
C- Reason Terminally ill patients' dental care should focus on palliative treatment an