Which of the following is NOT an objective of dental hygiene care and instruction before oral and maxillofacial surgery?
A. reduction of oral bacterial count
B. reduction of inflammation of the gingiva
C. Fixation of the bone fragments from a fractured ja
C. Fixation of the bone fragments from a fractured jaw
Which of the following dietary components is NOT essential for promotion of healing following oral and maxillofacial surgery?
A. Carbohydrate
B. Protein
C. Vitamin A
D. Vitamin C
A. Carbohydrate
Which of the following should a dental hygienists give to a patient regarding postsurgical care?
A. Place gauze pad or cold wet teabag over the surgical area when bleeding persists.
B. Rinse the surgical site continually for the first 24 hours following s
A. Place gauze pad or cold wet teabag over the surgical area when bleeding persists.
Which of the following is NOT a predisposing condition for fractured jaw?
A. Rheumatoid arthritis
B. Tumors
C. Cysts
D. Osteoporosis
A. Rheumatoid arthritis
Which type of fracture involves shattering of the bone into many pieces and open communication with the outside (open wound)?
A. Compound comminuted
B. Simple comminuted
C. Simple incomplete
D. Compound incomplete
A. Compound comminuted
An uncompleted mandibular fracture heals in about how long?
6 weeks
Which of the following means the positioning of the parts on either side of the fracture so they are in apposition for healing and restoration of function?
A. Fixation
B. Immobilization
C. Reduction
D. Occlusal
C. Reduction
Which of the following refers to the use of a surgical flap procedure to expose the fracture ends and bring them together for healing?
A. Closed reduction
B. Open reduction
C. Open fixation
D. Closed fixation
B. Open reduction
Intermaxillary fixation is contraindicated for all of the following except one. Which one is the exception?
A. Obese patient
B. Patient with a mental illness
C. Patient with asthma
D. Patient who vomits regularly
A. Obese patient
A fracture is classified by using a combination of descriptive words that include all the following except:
A. location
B. direction
C. nature
D. severity
E. size
E. size
Which of the following is NOT a principle for treating skeletal fractures?
A. Anatomic reduction
B. Functionally stable fixation
C. Traumatic surgical technique
D. Active function
E. Prevention of infection
C. Traumatic surgical technique
Which of the following is NOT an objection in planning the diet of a patient with a fractured jaw?
A. To help the patient maintain adequate nutritional state
B. To promote healing
C. To prevent new carious lesions
D. To promote weight loss
D. To promote weight loss
A patient with a fractured jaw may exhibit all of the following except:
A. Pain, especially on movement, and tenderness on slight pressure over the fracture area.
B. Teeth may be displaced, fractured, or mobile
C. Occlusion of teeth may be irregular
D. Mu
E. Heavy calculus deposits on the teeth in the area of the fracture.
Mandibular fractures are described by the location and include all of the following except:
A. alveolar process
B. condyle
C. angle
D. pterygoid process
E. symphysis
D. pterygoid process
Intermaxillary fixation is accomplished by applying wires and/or elastic bands between the maxillary and mandibular arches. The advantage of this method is relative simplicity without surgical requirement.
Both statements are correct.
The Le Fort classification is used to identify the level of maxillary fractures. The Le Fort II craniofacial fracture extends across the bridge of the nose and across the orbits and the zygomatic arches and pterygoid plates.
The first statement is true and the second statement is false.
Which of the following is NOT an advantage of IMF?
A. Noninvasive
B. Longer period of convalescence (recovery)
C. Beneficial in less developed countries
D. None of the above
B. Longer period of convalescence (recovery)
Which of the following is NOT a type of system used for immobilization?
A. Transosseous wiring (osteosynthesis)
B. Plates of various sizes
C. Platinum mesh
D. Bone clamps
C. Platinum mesh
Maxillary fractures are easier to manage because of the fixation of the associated anatomy.
False
Which of the following is NOT a suggested mouth rinse after surgery?
A. Physiologic saline
B. Room-temperature filtered water
C. Chlorhexidine gluconate
D. Fluoride
B. Room-temperature filtered water
Orthognathic surgery alters the relationships of the dental arches and/or supporting bone; usually coordinated with orthodontic therapy.
True
A method of internal fixation of mandibular fractures utilizing miniaturized metal plates and screws formerly made from titanium or stainless steel and currently made primarily of biodegradable or restorable synthetic material.
A. Dental implants
B. Minip
B. Miniplate osteosynthesis
Dentoalveolar surgery includes which type of procedures?
A. Exodontics, impacted tooth removal, and alveoplasty
B. Removal of benign tumors, squamous cell carcinoma, and cysts
C. Vestibuloplasty, frenectomy, and removal of tori
D. Prognathic and retrognat
A. Exodontics, impacted tooth removal, and alveoplasty
Oral and maxillofacial surgery is the specialty of dentistry that includes diagnostic, surgical, and adjunctive treatment of diseases, injuries, and defects involving both functional and aesthetic aspects of hard and soft tissues in the oral and maxillofa
True
What should the dental hygienists include with preparing the patient for their surgery appointment?
A. The dental hygienist does not have to prepare the patient; the dentist will do it.
B. Hand the patient a brochure and tell them to go to the website if
C. Educate the patient on what to expect, provide dietary instructions, restrictions (alcohol and medications), and oral hygiene instructions
All of the following are essential foods that should be recommended by the dental hygienists except:
A. Protein
B. Vitamin A, C and D
C. Riboflavin
D. Sugary snacks
D. Sugary snacks
Postsurgical instructions include all of the following except:
A. Control bleeding with gauze
B. Warm salt water rinse
C. Heat to reduce swelling
D. Liquid or soft diet
C. Heat to reduce swelling
What should the patient do if complications arise?
A. Wait until their follow up appointment and tell the doctor then
B. Call the after-hours telephone number provided on the post surgical instruction sheet
C. Search for online solutions and self-diagnose
B. Call the after-hours telephone number provided on the post surgical instruction sheet
Removal of impacted third molars is the most common oral surgery procedure.
True
_____________________ occurs if a periapical infection spreads to the marrow spaces in the bone.
A. Ecchymosis
B. Exostosis
C. Trismus
D. Osteomyelitis
D. Osteomyelitis
Which of the following would most likely be true of a patient who is homebound?
A. Be very mobile and active
B. Live in a group home
C. Have only an ASA I classification
D. Perform all daily hygiene tasks independently.
B. Live in a group home
Systemic conditions can affect oral health status. Poor oral health can affect systemic conditions.
The first statement is true and the second statement is true
Which of the following is NOT a barrier to accessing dental services for patients who are homebound?
A. Lack and transportation
B. High cost
C. Ageism or negative attitudes of practitioners
D. Large number of practitioners who provide home-based services
D. Large number of practitioners who provide home-based services
Which of the following is a midlevel oral health professional who would be able to eliminate barriers for patients who are homebound?
A. Advanced dental hygienists
B. Nurse practitioner
C. Advanced dental hygiene practitioner
D. Dental practitioner
C. Advanced dental hygiene practitioner
In preparing to provide care for a patient on a home visit, when should the patients medical history be reviewed?
A. At the time of the appointment
B. After radiographs are taken
C. At any time during or after treatment
D. In advance to the appointment
D. In advance to the appointment
Case study:
Barb is 90 yrs patient who has been referred to the practice by her hospice nurse to receive dental hygiene care. When the hygienist receives and reviews her medical history, it states that Barb is terminally ill with lung cancer and is curren
B. provided
Case study:
Barb is 90 yrs patient who has been referred to the practice by her hospice nurse to receive dental hygiene care. When the hygienist receives and reviews her medical history, it states that Barb is terminally ill with lung cancer and is curren
A. Short-term palliative care
Case study:
Barb is 90 yrs patient who has been referred to the practice by her hospice nurse to receive dental hygiene care. When the hygienist receives and reviews her medical history, it states that Barb is terminally ill with lung cancer and is curren
D. provide care to make her comfortable
Case study:
Barb is 90 yrs patient who has been referred to the practice by her hospice nurse to receive dental hygiene care. When the hygienist receives and reviews her medical history, it states that Barb is terminally ill with lung cancer and is curren
B. xerostomia
Case study:
Barb is 90 yrs patient who has been referred to the practice by her hospice nurse to receive dental hygiene care. When the hygienist receives and reviews her medical history, it states that Barb is terminally ill with lung cancer and is curren
A. Daily
A homebound patient who requires extensive scaling should be scheduled for how many visits?
A. None: extensive scaling is too difficult without the use of power instruments
B. One: All treatment should be completed at one time
C. Two or more, even if it i
C. Two or more, even if it is difficult to make arrangements
All of the following are reasons to schedule more than one visit for a patient who is home needs extensive scaling except:
A. need to avoid tiring the patient
B. treatment is completed as soon as possible
C. need to observe tissue response
D. provide enco
B. treatment is completed as soon as possible
In order to provide dental hygiene treatment for a patient who is homebound and uses a wheelchair, which of the following techniques can be used?
A. The patient should be moved to a straight chair
B. Adjust the bed to a desirable height
C. Dental hygiene
D. Attach a portable headrest to the back fo wheelchair.
What provides the foundation for planning treatment and prevention strategies that meet individualized patient needs?
A. intraoral assessments
B. medical history
C. dental hygiene diagnosis
D. caregiver in-services
C. Dental hygiene diagnosis
Poor oral health for patients who are homebound can be prevented by all of the following except:
A. Training caregivers
B. Lack of interests in oral hygiene by nursing home facilities
C. Dental hygiene interventions
D. Consulting with interdisciplinary he
B. Lack of interests in oral hygiene by nursing home facilities
The main role of the dental hygienist in the care of a patient who is unconscious is to:
A. Train and motivate caregivers
B. Provide daily dental hygiene therapy
C. Remove all biofilm twice daily
D. Make recommendations on products that should be used.
A. Train and motivate caregivers
How many times should caregivers be instructed to clean the mouth of their unconscious patients?
A. Daily
B. Twice a day
C. Three times a day
D. Weekly
C. Three times a day
What is contraindicated for patients with xerostomia?
A. Daily fluoride
B. Lemon and glycerin swabs
C. Saliva substitues
D. Toothbrushes with suction
B. Lemon and glycerin swabs
Daily examination of the oral tissues should be done on patients who are terminally ill because:
A. There is minimal discomfort
B. Lesions quickly change
C. It could develop into a secondary infection
D. It may be sign of oral cancer
C. It could develop into a secondary infection
Why may the dentures of a patient who is terminally ill no longer fit?
A. Severe weight loss
B. Change in bone composition
C. Not wearing them for an extended period of time
D. Lesions have developed under denture
A. Severe weight loss
Many diseases of the neuron muscular system leave the patient with a physical impairment. Most patients with a physical impairment also have a mental impairment.
First statement is true and the second statement is false
Taking which vitamin during pregnancy can reduce the risk of having offspring with spina bifida?
A. Vitamin C
B. Niacin
C. Riboflavin
D. Folic acid
E. Vitamin D
D. Folic acid
A protrusion of the meninges through a defect in the skull or spinal column is called:
A. Meningocele
B. Spina Bifida
C. Myelomeningocele
D. Occulta
A. Meningocele
Which condition requires antibiotic premedication before dental and dental hygiene treatment?
A. Autonomic dysreflexia
B. Ventriculoperitoneal shunt
C. Ventriculoatrial shunt
D. Spina bifida occulta
C. Ventriculoatrial shunt
Another term for cerebrovascular accident is:
A. kyphosis
B. akinesia
C. stroke
D. pallidotomy
E. sclerosis
C. stroke
The onset of rheumatoid arthritis typically occurs between which ages?
A. Birth and 10 years old
B. 20 and 40 years old
C. 40 and 60 years old
D. 60 and 80 years old
B. 20 and 40 years old
What type of muscular dystrophy involves facial muscles?
A. Becker
B. Duchenne
C. Facioscapulohumeral
D. Myasthenia gravis
D. Myasthenia gravis
Facial paralysis poses what dental problem?
A. Patients have difficulty using a toothbrush
B. Interferes with self-cleansing mechanisms
C. Patients are only able to sit for short appointments in the dental chair
D. Risk of oral infections
B. Interferes with self-cleansing mechanisms
What receptors are reduced in number in a patient with myasthenia gravis?
A. T cell
B. Acetylcholine
C. Insulin
D. Tyrosine kinase
B. Acetylcholine
Which factor should a hygienists consider when planning dental hygiene care for a patient with multiple sclerosis?
A. Xerostomia
B. Poor nutrition
C. Decubitus ulcers
D. Impaired motor ability
D. Impaired motor ability
A patient with constant, involuntary unorganized muscular movement who grimaces, drools, and has trouble speaking has what type of cerebral palsy?
A. Spastic
B. Athetoid
C. Ataxic
D. Combined
B. Athetoid
Parkinson disease causes degeneration of certain neurons in what part of the brain?
A. basal ganglia
B. cerebral cortex
C. cerebellum
D. hypothalamus
E. corpus callosum
A. basal ganglia
Bell palsy is paralysis of what cranial nerve?
A. Fourth
B. Fifth
C. Sixth
D. Seventh
E. Eighth
D. Seventh (facial)
How osteoarthritis may affect the temporomandibular joint?
A. Pain
B. Limited ability to open
C. Crepitation and clicking
D. Ankylosis
C. Crepitation and clicking
What radiographic findings would you possibly find in a patient with scleroderma?
A. Missing teeth
B. Widening of periodontal ligament spaces
C. High rate of decay
D. Periodontal abscess
B. Widening of periodontal ligament spaces
What is the average life expectancy of someone diagnosed with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis?
A. 6 months to 1 year
B. 3 to 5 years
C. 8 to 10 years
D. 15 to 20 years
B. 3 to 5 years
The Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) type is:
A. prevalent between ages 5 and 24
B. limited to females
C. transmitted by males
D. all of the above
A. prevalent between ages 5 and 24
All of the following are true about Steinert disease except:
A. can appear in early adulthood
B. affects both men and women
C. usually worse in cold temperatures
D. also effects CNS
A. can appear in early adulthood
The postpolio syndrome:
A. occurs years after initial attack
B. is caused by poliopox virus
C. occurs in a limited population
D. the treatment focuses mainly on curing
A. occurs years after initial attack
All of the following are oral characteristics of scleroderma except:
A. thin lips
B. usually firm gingiva
C. thick mucosa
D. microstomia
C. thick mucosa
The Americans with Disabilities Act defines a person with a disability as a person who:
has a physical or mental impairment that substantially limits major life activity
Legal blindness is defined as:
A. having no sight
B. having a central vision of not more than 20/140 with correction
C. having peripheral fields of no more than 40 degree diameter or 25 degree radius
D. having central vision of not more than 20/200 with c
D. having central vision of not more than 20/200 with correction
Which of the following is a visual impairment?
A. Diplopia
B. Otitis media
C. Vertigo
D. Tinnitus
E. Sensorineural loss
A. Diplopia
When treating a patient with a visual impairment, what should you do before leaving the treatment area?
A. Make the guide dog aware of your absence by petting it.
B. Have another room present in the treatment room during your absence.
C. Explain your abse
C. Explain your absence
Personal factors to consider for a person who is blind may include all of the following except:
A. assistance to complete medical history
B. describing each step of treatment in detail
C. modifying imitation aspect of home care delivery
D. translator or s
D. translator or sign language assistance
Case study:
Nancy, a 73-year-old patient, presents for her routine visit. On her new medical history she indicates she has diabetes, high blood pressure, high cholesterol, and arthritis. She takes medication for diabetes, high blood pressure, and high cho
B. farsightedness
Case study:
Nancy, a 73-year-old patient, presents for her routine visit. On her new medical history she indicates she has diabetes, high blood pressure, high cholesterol, and arthritis. She takes medication for diabetes, high blood pressure, and high cho
C. glaucoma
Case study:
Nancy, a 73-year-old patient, presents for her routine visit. On her new medical history she indicates she has diabetes, high blood pressure, high cholesterol, and arthritis. She takes medication for diabetes, high blood pressure, and high cho
A. Diabetes
Case study:
Nancy, a 73-year-old patient, presents for her routine visit. On her new medical history she indicates she has diabetes, high blood pressure, high cholesterol, and arthritis. She takes medication for diabetes, high blood pressure, and high cho
D. demonstrate in her mouth
Case study:
Nancy, a 73-year-old patient, presents for her routine visit. On her new medical history she indicates she has diabetes, high blood pressure, high cholesterol, and arthritis. She takes medication for diabetes, high blood pressure, and high cho
B. disease of the eye characterized by intraocular pressure
All of the following are causes of hearing loss except:
A. heredity
B. chronic inner ear infections
C. trauma
D. diabetic retinopathy
E. toxic effects of drugs
D. Diabetic retinopathy
Conductive hearing loss is defined as damage to the:
A. outer or middle ear conduction pathways to the inner ear
B. sensory hair cells of the inner ear or the nerves of the inner ear
C. nerves of the nuclei of the central nervous system in the brain or th
A. outer or middle ear conduction pathways to the inner ear
The standards for manufacturing and distributing of hearing aids in the United States are regulated by the:
A. American Council on Hearing Loss
B. Centers for Disease Control
C. Food and Drug Administration
D. American Medical Association
C. Food and Drug Administration
The modes of communication for a person who is deaf include all of the following except:
A. finger spelling
B. International universal sign language
C. American Sign language
D. Speech reading
B. International universal sign language
When calling a deaf patient to remind him or her of an appointment, you may use which of the following?
A. a tuning fork
B. Telecommunication relay service
C. An ASL translator
D. An audiometer
B. Telecommunication relay service
A patient with a hearing aid may need which modification in delivery of dental hygiene therapy?
A. Remove eyeglasses
B. Cover ear canal with gauze
C. Speak very loudly and slowly so the patient can hear you over other noise
D. Remove or turn off hearing a
D. Remove or turn off hearing aid when using power-driven scaler
In individuals over the age of 60 the leading cause of blindness is:
A. glaucoma
B. Macular degeneration
C. cataracts
D. infections
E. retinopathy
B. Macular degeneration
A totally blind person learns to interpret and rely on:
A. another person for total assistance
B. the tone of voice
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
B. The tone of voice
For a blind child patient who is not familiar with dental procedures the best approach is:
A. Explain to the parent/caregiver the procedure
B. Show, tell, do
C. Allow the patient to touch the mouth mirror
D. Ask child if they have any question
C. Allow the patient to touch the mouth mirror
When giving instructions to a blind child using novel music-aided toothbrushing instructions in a song format can be used to reinforce oral self-care instructions. Allow the blind patient to feel the texture of the bristles on the toothbrush.
Both statements are true
When was the Americans with Disabilities Act enacted?
A. July 26, 1990
B. February 19, 2000
C. April 16, 1996
D. June 26, 1990
A. July 26, 1990
What arthritis has a relationship with periodontitis?
A. Rheumatoid arthritis
B. Juvenile Rheumatoid Arthritis
C. Degenerative joint disease
D. None of the above
A. Rheumatoid arthritis
A patient seeking medical treatment with Bell's Palsy should get surgery, since surgery is the best recommended treatment.
False
How many new cases of spinal cord injuries occur each year?
A. 1,200
B. 120
C. 200,000
D. 12,000
D. 12,000
When there is no need for verbal communication a person is considered to be deaf.
True
When are the two types of strokes?
Hemorrhagic and Ischemic strokes
What is hemiplegia?
paralysis of one side of the body
Whenever there is multiple joints involved, what kind of term is used to describe the arthritis?
A. multi-arthritis
B. Complete arthritis
C. Polyarthritis
D. Partial-arthritis
C. Polyarthritis
Visual impairments can be related to age and children.
True
Labored breathing is also known as:
A. apnea
B. corzya
C. dyspnea
D. hypoxia
E. pleura
C. dyspnea
All of the following are considered upper respiratory tract infections except:
A. common cold
B. sinusitis
C. influenza
D. asthma
E. pharyngitis
D. Asthma
An infection that is acquired during a long hospital stay is known as:
A. atopy
B. urticaria
C. orthopenia
D. communicable
E. nosocomial
E. nosocomial
Viral and bacterial types of pneumonia have all the following in common except:
A. diagnosed via chest radiographs
B. symptoms include both cough and sputum
C. usually accompanied by fever
D. treated with antibiotics
D. treated with antibiotics
The type of asthma triggered by an increase in pollen and seasonal allergens is known as:
A. atopic
B. nonatopic
C. intrinsic
D. infectious
E. idiosyncratic
A. atopic
The type of cell that releases asthma mediators in response to an allergic reaction is called:
A. plasma
B. cytokine
C. leukocyte
D. macrophage
E. mast
E. mast
Tuberculosis is an infectious, communicable disease caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis. A positive Mantoux skin test provides a definitive diagnosis of clinically active tuberculosis.
The first statement is true and the second statement is false
Case study
Mr. Patton presents in your office for a tooth extraction. His dental chart indicates that he has asthma. He uses an albuterol (ventolin) inhaler four times per day to treat the asthma. Mr. Patton reports that his cardiologists office has recen
D. GERD
Case study
Mr. Patton presents in your office for a tooth extraction. His dental chart indicates that he has asthma. He uses an albuterol (ventolin) inhaler four times per day to treat the asthma. Mr. Patton reports that his cardiologists office has recen
A. Albuterol
Case study
Mr. Patton presents in your office for a tooth extraction. His dental chart indicates that he has asthma. He uses an albuterol (ventolin) inhaler four times per day to treat the asthma. Mr. Patton reports that his cardiologists office has recen
C. dry mouth
Case study
Mr. Patton presents in your office for a tooth extraction. His dental chart indicates that he has asthma. He uses an albuterol (ventolin) inhaler four times per day to treat the asthma. Mr. Patton reports that his cardiologists office has recen
D. bronchodilator
Case study
Mr. Patton presents in your office for a tooth extraction. His dental chart indicates that he has asthma. He uses an albuterol (ventolin) inhaler four times per day to treat the asthma. Mr. Patton reports that his cardiologists office has recen
A. gingival inflammation
Case study
Mr. Patton presents in your office for a tooth extraction. His dental chart indicates that he has asthma. He uses an albuterol (ventolin) inhaler four times per day to treat the asthma. Mr. Patton reports that his cardiologists office has recen
B. morning
Case study
Mr. Patton presents in your office for a tooth extraction. His dental chart indicates that he has asthma. He uses an albuterol (ventolin) inhaler four times per day to treat the asthma. Mr. Patton reports that his cardiologists office has recen
B. Acetaminophen
Case study
Mr. Patton presents in your office for a tooth extraction. His dental chart indicates that he has asthma. He uses an albuterol (ventolin) inhaler four times per day to treat the asthma. Mr. Patton reports that his cardiologists office has recen
Both statements are false
All of the following are true except:
A. mucus secreted by goblet cells traps dust and other airborne particles.
B. Cilia work by a constant beating and wavelike motion
C. Increase of function occurs with inflammation causes an abundance of mucus
D. cilia
C. Increase of function occurs with inflammation causes an abundance of mucus
Atopy means a:
hereditary tendency to experience immediate allergic reactions
TB services best in:
A. the bloodstream
B. an environment of high oxygen tension
C. a moist environment
D. inside an organ
B. an environment of high oxygen tension
All of the following are oral manifestations of TB except:
A. glandular swelling
B. can occur on the lips
C. irregular ulcer on the ventral of the tongue
D. confirmed by biopsy
C. irregular ulcer on the ventral of the tongue
All of the following are true about sleep apnea except:
A. most common cause of tonsillitis
B. is repetitive narrowing and closure of upper airway
C. may cause tissue inflammation
D. associated with motorcycle accidents
A. most common cause of tonsillitis
The respiratory systems anatomical structures are composed on the:
A. Sinuses
B. Nasal cavity
C. larynx
D. A and C
E. All of the above
E. all of the above
Acute bronchitis causes a cough expectoration for at least 3 months of the year for 2 or more years.
False
Pneumonia is common lung disease caused by:
An infection of the air sacs in the lungs
You should always consider a fluoride treatment for all patients with asthma, especially those using beta-agonist.
True
With improved multifaceted heathcare, many people with cystic fibrosis now live beyond:
A. 10-20 years
B. 20-30 years
C. 30-40 years
D. 50+ years
C. 30-40 years
COPD is a pulmonary disorder that is:
progressive and non-reversible
Chronic bronchitis is visible on a chest radiograph
True
Patients with emphysema only experience difficulty breathing upon:
A. inhaltion
B. exhalation
C. both
D. neither
B. exhalation
During treatment for a patient with COPD, you should:
A. use an antimicrobial pre-procedureal rinse
B. Avoid the use of power-driven scalers and air polishers
C. Administer local anesthesia without epinephrine
D. All of the above
D. all of the above
Patient education, especially issues about dry mouth, tobacco cessation, and medication compliance do not need to be documented in the patients record.
False
Sac formed by dilation of the wall of a blood vessel or heart is known as:
A. Infarct
B. Stenosis
C. Lumen
D. Thrombus
E. Aneurysm
E. Aneurysm
Secondary hypertension can be caused in women who are taking oral contraceptives. In persons with secondary hypertension, the systolic pressure is elevated while the diastolic pressure remains normal.
A. The first statement is true in the second statement
A. The first statement is true in the second statement is false
Mental confusion is associated with:
A. low blood pressure
B. secondary hypotension
C. postural hypotension
D. malignant hypertension
E. prehypertension
D. malignant hypertension
Coumarin derivatives, such as warfarin (Coumadin) are used in anticoagulant therapy to prevent blood clots. Dental patients on Coumadin should have their prothrombin time checked no more than 1 hour before their dental appointment to determine blood clott
First statement is true and the second statement is false
All of the following are true about rheumatic heart disease except:
A. It is an outcome of rheumatic fever
B. Cardiac valve damage is present
C. antibiotic premedication is recommended before dental treatment.
D. It is caused by sensitization of streptoco
E. it permanently affects all body joints with arthritis
Case study:
Mr. Matton presents as a new patient wanting to have his teeth cleaned. He takes Captopril (capoten) every morning and has allergies to bananas, kiwi, and tomatoes. You record his blood pressure at 155/92 MM HG, pulse at 74 bpm, and respiratio
C. Stage 1 hypertension
Case study:
Mr. Matton presents as a new patient wanting to have his teeth cleaned. He takes Captopril (capoten) every morning and has allergies to bananas, kiwi, and tomatoes. You record his blood pressure at 155/92 MM HG, pulse at 74 bpm, and respiratio
B. More frequent dental visits
Case study:
Mr. Matton presents as a new patient wanting to have his teeth cleaned. He takes Captopril (capoten) every morning and has allergies to bananas, kiwi, and tomatoes. You record his blood pressure at 155/92 MM HG, pulse at 74 bpm, and respiratio
B. Consultation and treatment for the areas of pain
Case study:
Mr. Matton presents as a new patient wanting to have his teeth cleaned. He takes Captopril (capoten) every morning and has allergies to bananas, kiwi, and tomatoes. You record his blood pressure at 155/92 MM HG, pulse at 74 bpm, and respiratio
B. Chronic periodontitis
A 60-year-old male client complains of crushing chest pain, shortness of breath, and profuse sweating. His symptoms are only slightly improved by resting. The client has a history of angina pectoris and has his nitroglycerin tablets with him. Which of the
C. One tablet sublingually, until the pain is relieved, giving second before starting emergency response procedures
An elderly male client with a history of high blood pressure and coronary heart disease complains of sudden loss of vision in one eye and a severe headache. You observe that the client has slurred speech and appears confused. What other signs and symptoms
D. Radiating pain to the left arm
The dental patient who is experiencing heart failure is usually unconscious. The patient should be placed in a supine position to prepare for initiation of emergency response procedures.
A. For statement is true and second statement is false
B. The first
D. Both statements are false
Which of the following is an example of a genetic cause of a congenital heart defect?
A. Thalidomide
B. Rubella infection from the mother
C. Down syndrome
D. Cytomegalovirus infection from the mother
C. Down syndrome
All of the following are true of an angina except:
A. difficult breathing
B. heavy squeezing pressure mid chest
C. tingling of fingertips
D. Faintness
E. Radiating pain in arm, neck and mandible
C. tingling of fingertips
The type of heart disease that arises from restricted blood supply to the myocardium is known as:
A. Angina
B. Hypertensive
C. Infarction
D. Ischemic
D. Ischemic
All of the following are recommendations for lifestyle changes for the cardiovascular patient except:
A. Reduction in high-density lipoprotein
B. Increase physical activity
C. Tobacco cessation
D. Reduction of blood pressure
A. Reduction in high-density lipoprotein
All of the following are signs and symptoms of right heart failure except:
A. Cold sweat
B. Cyanosis of mucous membranes and nail beds
C. Prominent jugular veins
D. Cold hands and feet
A. cold sweat
All of the following is true concerning a pacemaker except:
A. is an electronic stimulator
B. the electrodes are inserted into the pericardium
C. the push generator is implanted under the skin
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
The term used to describe temporary cessation of breathing is called apnea.
True
A murmur is an irregularity of a heart beat produced by blood flow through a valve that is not closing properly.
True
There is only ONE type of major cardiovascular disease
False
A sudden blocking of an artery:
A. Infective endocarditis
B. Embolism
C. Cardiovascular disease
D. Aneurysm
B. Embolism
Infective endocarditis is a microbial infection of the heart valves with a low mortality rate.
False
Prophylactic antibiotic premedication is indicated for which of the following:
A. Manipulation of gingival tissues
B. The periapical region of the teeth
C. Perforation of the oral mucosa
D. All of the above
D. all of the above
When there is an allergy to penicillin, which premedication antibiotic is typically recommended?
A. Doxycycline
B. Tetracycline
C. Clindamycin
D. Ampicillin
C. Clindamycin
Abnormal elevation of the arterial blood pressure can be primary or secondary.
True
According to Wilkins, risk factors that contribute to hypertension include all of the following except:
A. Tobacco use
B. Overweight
C. Excessive exercise
D. Heredity
C. excessive exercise
Children 3+ years of age should have their blood pressure determined annually.
True
Mrs. Bailey should receive a follow up CAT scan:
A. 4 weeks post surgery
B. 6 months post surgery
C. 1 year post surgery
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
Examples of a heart healthy diet include all of the following except:
A. Enriched grains
B. Low-fat dairy
C. Lean poultry
D. Fruits
A. Enriched grains