The molecular formula for glucose is C?H?2O?. What would be the
molecular formula for a molecule made by linking three glucose
molecules together by dehydration reactions? A) C??H??O??
B) C??H??O?? C) C?H??O? D) C1?H??O?? E) C?H?O?

B) C??H??O??

Which two functional groups are always found in amino acids? A)
ketone and methyl B) carbonyl and amino C) carboxyl and
amino D) amino and sulfhydryl E) hydroxyl and carboxyl

C) carboxyl and amino

Which of the following best summarizes the relationship between
dehydration reactions and hydrolysis? A) Dehydration reactions
assemble polymers, and hydrolysis reactions break down polymers.
B) Dehydration reactions eliminate water from lipid membranes,
and hydrolysis makes lipid membranes water permeable. C)
Dehydration reactions can occur only after hydrolysis. D)
Hydrolysis creates monomers, and dehydration reactions break down
polymers. E) Dehydration reactions ionize water molecules and
add hydroxyl groups to polymers; hydrolysis reactions release hydroxyl
groups from polymers.

A) Dehydration reactions assemble polymers, and hydrolysis reactions
break down polymers.

Which of the following molecules is polar? C3H7OH C2H5COOH

both are polar

Differences among organisms are caused by A) large differences
in elemental composition from organism to organism. B)
differences in the types and relative amounts of organic molecules
synthesized by each organism. C) differences in the elements
that bond with carbon in each organism. D) differences in the
sizes of the organic molecules in each organism. E) differences
in inorganic compounds present in each organism.

B) differences in the types and relative amounts of organic molecules
synthesized by each organism.

If the cytoplasm of a cell is at pH 7, and the mitochondrial matrix
is at pH 8, this means that A) the concentration of H? ions is
tenfold higher in the cytoplasm than in the mitochondrial matrix.
B) the concentration of H? ions is tenfold higher in the
mitochondrial matrix than in the cytoplasm. C) the concentration
of H? ions in the cytoplasm is 7/8 the concentration in the
mitochondrial matrix. D) the mitochondrial matrix is more acidic
than the cytoplasm. E) the concentration of H? ions in the
cytoplasm is 8/7 the concentration in the mitochondrial matrix.

A) the concentration of H? ions is tenfold higher in the cytoplasm
than in the mitochondrial matrix.

Based on your knowledge of the polarity of water molecules, the
solute molecule depicted here is most likely A) positively
charged. B) negatively charged. C) without charge.
D) hydrophobic. E) nonpolar.

A) positively charged.

When an ionic compound such as sodium chloride (NaCl) is placed in
water, the component atoms of the NaCl crystal dissociate into
individual sodium ions (Na?) and chloride ions (Cl?). In contrast, the
atoms of covalently bonded molecules (e.g., glucose, sucrose,
glycerol) do not generally dissociate when placed in aqueous solution.
Which of the following solutions would be expected to contain the
greatest number of solute particles (molecules or ions)? A) 1 L
of 0.5 M NaCl B) 1 L of 0.5 M glucose C) 1 L of 1.0 M NaCl
D) 1 L of 1.0 M glucose E) 1 L of 1.0 M NaCl and 1 L of
1.0 M glucose will contain equal numbers of solute particles.

C) 1 L of 1.0 M NaCl

Which of the following effects is produced by the high surface
tension of water? A) Lakes don't freeze solid in winter, despite
low temperatures. B) A water strider can walk across the surface
of a small pond. C) Organisms resist temperature changes,
although they give off heat due to chemical reactions. D)
Evaporation of sweat from the skin helps to keep people from
overheating. E) Water flows upward from the roots to the leaves
in plants.

B) A water strider can walk across the surface of a small pond.

How do phospholipids interact with water molecules?

The polar heads interact with water, the nonpolar tails do not.

When an ionic compound such as sodium chloride (NaCl) is placed in
water, the component atoms of the NaCl crystal dissociate into
individual sodium ions (Na?) and chloride ions (Cl?). In contrast, the
atoms of covalently bonded molecules (e.g., glucose, sucrose,
glycerol) do not generally dissociate when placed in aqueous solution.
Which of the following solutions would be expected to contain the
greatest number of solute particles (molecules or ions)? A) 1 L
of 0.5 M NaCl B) 1 L of 0.5 M glucose C) 1 L of 1.0 M NaCl
D) 1 L of 1.0 M glucose E) 1 L of 1.0 M NaCl and 1 L of
1.0 M glucose will contain equal numbers of solute particles.

C) 1 L of 1.0 M NaCl

Agrobacterium infects plants and causes them to form tumors. You are
asked to determine how long a plant must be exposed to these bacteria
to become infected. Which of the following experiments will provide
the best data to address that question?

Measure the number of tumors formed on plants, which are exposed to
Agrobacterium for different lengths of time

You find yourself standing next to a beautiful rose bush. Which of
the following do you and the rose have in common?

You are both multicellular

Cells are _____.

characteristic of prokaryotic and eukaryotic organisms

When a person gets dehydrated while exercising on a hot day, their
pituitary gland releases ADH, a hormone that signals the kidneys to
retain more water. This is an example of

negative feedback regulation

Which of the following are qualities of any good scientific
hypothesis? I. It is testable. II. It is falsifiable.
III. It produces quantitative data. IV. It produces
results that can be replicated. A) I only B) II only
C) III only D) I and II E) III and IV

D) I and II

Trace elements are those required by an organism in only minute
quantities. Which of the following is a trace element that is required
by humans and other vertebrates, but not by other organisms such as
bacteria or plants? A) nitrogen B) calcium C) iodine
D) sodium E) phosphorus

C) iodine

Which of the following are compounds?
A) H2O, O2, and CH4
B) H2O and O2
C) O2and CH4
D) H2O and CH4, but not O2

D) H2O and CH4, but not O2

About 25 of the 92 natural elements are known to be essential to
life. Which four of these 25 elements make up approximately 96% of
living matter? A) carbon, sodium, hydrogen, nitrogen B)
carbon, oxygen, phosphorus, hydrogen C) oxygen, hydrogen,
calcium, nitrogen D) carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen E)
carbon, oxygen, nitrogen, calcium

D) carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen

In comparison to eukaryotes, prokaryotes...

are smaller

Which type of bond must be broken for water to vaporize? A)
ionic bonds B) both hydrogen bonds and ionic bonds C)
polar covalent bonds D) hydrogen bonds E) both polar
covalent bonds and hydrogen bonds

D) hydrogen bonds

why are vegetable oils liquids at room temp while animal fats are solid?

Vegetable oil has more double bonds than animal fats do

If 14C-labeled uracil is added to the growth medium of cells, what
macromolecules will be labeled?

RNA

Molybdenum has an atomic number of 42. Several common isotopes exist,
with mass numbers from 92-100. Therefore, which of the following can
be true?
A) Molybdenum atoms can have between 50 and 58 neutrons.
B) Molybdenum atoms can have between 50 and 58 protons.
C) Molybdenum atoms can have between 50 and 58 electrons.
D) Isotopes of molybdenum have different numbers of electrons.

A) Molybdenum atoms can have between 50 and 58 neutrons.

A salamander relies on hydrogen bonding to stick to various surfaces.
Therefore, a salamander would have the greatest difficulty clinging to
a _____.
A) slightly damp surface
B) surface of hydrocarbons
C) surface of mostly carbon-oxygen bonds
D) surface of mostly carbon-nitrogen bonds

B) surface of hydrocarbons

In his transformation experiments, what did Griffith observe?
A) Mutant mice were resistant to bacterial infections. B)
Mixing a heat-killed pathogenic strain of bacteria with a living
nonpathogenic strain can convert some of the living cells into the
pathogenic form. C) Mixing a heat-killed nonpathogenic strain of
bacteria with a living pathogenic strain makes the pathogenic strain
nonpathogenic. D) Infecting mice with nonpathogenic strains of
bacteria makes them resistant to pathogenic strains. E) Mice
infected with a pathogenic strain of bacteria can spread the infection
to other mice.

B) Mixing a heat-killed pathogenic strain of bacteria with a living
nonpathogenic strain can convert some of the living cells into the
pathogenic form.

How do we describe transformation in bacteria? A) the creation
of a strand of DNA from an RNA molecule B) the creation of a
strand of RNA from a DNA molecule C) the infection of cells by a
phage DNA molecule D) the type of semiconservative replication
shown by DNA E) assimilation of external DNA into a cell

E) assimilation of external DNA into a cell

In trying to determine whether DNA or protein is the genetic
material, Hershey and Chase made use of which of the following facts?
A) DNA contains sulfur, whereas protein does not. B) DNA
contains phosphorus, whereas protein does not. C) DNA contains
nitrogen, whereas protein does not. D) DNA contains purines,
whereas protein includes pyrimidines. E) RNA includes ribose,
whereas DNA includes deoxyribose sugars.

B) DNA contains phosphorus, whereas protein does not.

It became apparent to Watson and Crick after completion of their
model that the DNA molecule could carry a vast amount of hereditary
information in which of the following? A) sequence of bases
B) phosphate-sugar backbones C) complementary pairing of
bases D) side groups of nitrogenous bases E) different
five-carbon sugars

A) sequence of bases

In an analysis of the nucleotide composition of DNA, which of the
following will be found? A) A = C B) A = G and C = T
C) A + C = G + T D) G + C = T + A

C) A + C = G + T

What is meant by the description "antiparallel" regarding
the strands that make up DNA? A) The twisting nature of DNA
creates nonparallel strands. B) The 5' to 3' direction of one
strand runs counter to the 5' to 3' direction of the other strand.
C) Base pairings create unequal spacing between the two DNA
strands. D) One strand is positively charged and the other is
negatively charged. E) One strand contains only purines and the
other contains only pyrimidines.

B) The 5' to 3' direction of one strand runs counter to the 5' to 3'
direction of the other strand.

The elongation of the leading strand during DNA synthesis A)
progresses away from the replication fork. B) occurs in the 3' ?
5' direction. C) produces Okazaki fragments. D) depends on
the action of DNA polymerase. E) does not require a template strand.

D) depends on the action of DNA polymerase.

Which of the following would be inhibited by a drug that specifically
blocks the addition of phosphate groups to proteins? A) G
protein-coupled receptor signaling B) ligand-gated ion channel
signaling C) adenylyl cyclase activity D) phosphatase
activity E) receptor tyrosine kinase activity

E) receptor tyrosine kinase activity

What explains the increased concentration of Ca?? in the ER? A)
Calcium ions are actively imported from the cytoplasm into the ER.
B) Calcium concentration is kept low in the cytoplasm because of
its high usage level. C) Calcium cannot enter the plasma
membrane through ion channels. D) Calcium levels in the blood or
other body fluids are extremely low. E) The Ca ions are recycled
from other molecules in the ER.

A) Calcium ions are actively imported from the cytoplasm into the ER.

At puberty, an adolescent female body changes in both structure and
function of several organ systems, primarily under the influence of
changing concentrations of estrogens and other steroid hormones. How
can one hormone, such as estrogen, mediate so many effects? A)
Estrogen is produced in very large concentration and therefore
diffuses widely. B) Estrogen has specific receptors inside
several cell types, but each cell responds in the same way to its
binding. C) Estrogen is kept away from the surface of any cells
not able to bind it at the surface. D) Estrogen binds to
specific receptors inside many kinds of cells, each of which have
different responses to its binding. E) The subcomponents of
estrogen, when metabolized, can influence cell response.

D) Estrogen binds to specific receptors inside many kinds of cells,
each of which have different responses to its binding.

The centromere...

is where the chromatids remain attached

Suppose a biologist can separate one of a dozen pieces of chromatin
from a eukaryotic (animal) nucleus. It might consist of which of the
following? A) one-twelfth of the genes of the organism
B) two chromosomes, each with six chromatids C) a single
circular piece of DNA D) two long strands of DNA plus proteins
E) two chromatids attached together at a centromere

D) two long strands of DNA plus proteins

At which phase are centrioles beginning to move apart in animal
cells? A) telophase B) anaphase C)
prometaphase D) metaphase E) prophase

E) prophase

If cells in the process of dividing are subjected to colchicine, a
drug that interferes with the formation of the spindle apparatus, at
which stage will mitosis be arrested? A) anaphase
B) prophase C) telophase D) metaphase E) interphase

D) metaphase

10) Taxol is an anticancer drug extracted from the Pacific yew tree.
In animal cells, Taxol disrupts microtubule formation by binding to
microtubules and accelerating their assembly from the protein
precursor, tubulin. Surprisingly, this stops mitosis. Specifically,
Taxol must affect A) the formation of the mitotic
spindle. B) anaphase. C) formation of the centrioles.
D) chromatid assembly. E) the S phase of the cell cycle.

A) the formation of the mitotic spindle.

What is a cleavage furrow?

The division of two daughter cells

Which of the following is a true statement about sexual vs. asexual
reproduction? A) Asexual reproduction, but not sexual
reproduction, is characteristic of plants and fungi. B) In
sexual reproduction, individuals transmit 50% of their genes to each
of their offspring. C) In asexual reproduction, offspring are
produced by fertilization without meiosis. D) Sexual
reproduction requires that parents be diploid. E) Asexual
reproduction produces only haploid offspring.

B) In sexual reproduction, individuals transmit 50%
of their genes to each of their offspring.

Which of the following defines a genome? A) representation of a
complete set of a cell's polypeptides B) the complete set of an
organism's polypeptides C) the complete set of a species'
polypeptides D) a karyotype E) the complete set of an
organism's genes

E) the complete set of an organism's genes

The human X and Y chromosomes A) are both present in every
somatic cell of males and females alike. B) are of approximately
equal size and number of genes. C) are almost entirely
homologous, despite their different names. D) include genes that
determine an individual's sex. E) include only genes that govern
sex determination.

D) include genes that determine an individual's sex.

Eukaryotic sexual life cycles show tremendous variation. Of the
following elements, which do all sexual life cycles have in common?
I. Alternation of generations II. Meiosis
III. Fertilization IV. Gametes V. Spores
A) I, IV, and V B) I, II, and IV C) II, III, and IV
D) II, IV, and V E) I, II, III, IV, and V

C) II, III, and IV

In the cross AaBbCc � AaBbCc, what is the probability of producing
the genotype AABBCC? A) 1/4 B) 1/8 C) 1/16 D)
1/32 E) 1/64

E) 1/64

A karyotype results from which of the following? A) a natural
cellular arrangement of chromosomes in the nucleus B) an
inherited ability of chromosomes to arrange themselves C) the
ordering of human chromosome images D) the cutting and pasting
of parts of chromosomes to form the standard array E) the
separation of homologous chromosomes at metaphase I of meiosis

C) the ordering of human chromosome images

A couple has a child with Down syndrome. The mother is 39 years old
at the time of delivery. Which of the following is the most probable
cause of the child's condition? A) The woman inherited this
tendency from her parents. B) One member of the couple carried a
translocation. C) One member of the couple underwent
nondisjunction in somatic cell production. D) One member of the
couple underwent nondisjunction in gamete production. E) The
mother had a chromosomal duplication.

D) One member of the couple underwent nondisjunction in gamete production.

What is most likely to happen to an animal's target cells that lack
receptors for local regulators? A) They might compensate by
receiving nutrients via a factor. B) They could develop normally
in response to neurotransmitters instead. C) They could divide
but never reach full size. D) They might not be able to multiply
in response to growth factors from nearby cells. E) Hormones
would not be able to interact with target cells.

D) They might not be able to multiply in response to growth factors
from nearby cells.

In the formation of biofilms, such as those forming on unbrushed
teeth, cell signaling serves which function? A) formation of
mating complexes B) secretion of apoptotic signals C)
aggregation of bacteria that can cause cavities D) secretion of
substances that inhibit foreign bacteria E) digestion of
unwanted parasite populations

C) aggregation of bacteria that can cause cavities

When a neuron responds to a particular neurotransmitter by opening
gated ion channels, the neurotransmitter is serving as which part of
the signal pathway? A) receptor B) relay molecule C)
transducer D) signal molecule E) endocrine molecule

D) signal molecule

Testosterone functions inside a cell by A) acting as a signal
receptor that activates tyrosine kinases. B) binding with a
receptor protein that enters the nucleus and activates specific genes.
C) acting as a steroid signal receptor that activates ion
channel proteins. D) becoming a second messenger that inhibits
adenylyl cyclase. E) coordinating a phosphorylation cascade that
increases spermatogenesis.

B) binding with a receptor protein that enters the nucleus and
activates specific genes.

Sutherland discovered that epinephrine signals A) a decrease in
levels of cAMP as a result of bypassing the plasma membrane. B)
lower blood glucose by binding to liver cells. C) interactions
with insulin inside muscle cells. D) interactions directly with
glycogen phosphorylase. E) elevation of cytosolic concentrations
of cyclic AMP

E) elevation of cytosolic concentrations of cyclic AMP

Which of the following types of signaling is represented in the
figure? A) autocrine B) paracrine C) hormonal
D) synaptic E) long distance

D) synaptic

In the figure, the dots in the space between the two structures
represent which of the following? A) receptor molecules B)
signal transducers C) neurotransmitters D) hormones
E) pheromones

C) neurotransmitters

What do we mean when we use the terms monohybrid cross and dihybrid
cross? A) A monohybrid cross involves a single parent,
whereas a dihybrid cross involves two parents. B) A monohybrid
cross produces a single progeny, whereas a dihybrid cross produces
two progeny. C) A dihybrid cross involves organisms that are
heterozygous for two characters and a monohybrid cross involves only
one. D) A monohybrid cross is performed for one generation,
whereas a dihybrid cross is performed for two generations. E) A
monohybrid cross results in a 9:3:3:1 ratio whereas a dihybrid cross
gives a 3:1 ratio.

C) A dihybrid cross involves organisms that are heterozygous for two
characters and a monohybrid cross involves only one.

A sexually reproducing animal has two unlinked genes, one for head
shape (H) and one for tail length (T). Its genotype is HhTt. Which of
the following genotypes is possible in a gamete from this organism?
A) tt B) Hh C) HhTt D) T E) HT

E) HT

In cattle, roan coat color (mixed red and white hairs) occurs in the
heterozygous (Rr) offspring of red (RR) and white (rr) homozygotes.
Which of the following crosses would produce offspring in the ratio of
1 red:2 roan:1 white? A) red � white B) roan � roan
C) white � roan D) red � roan E) The answer cannot
be determined from the information provided.

B) roan � roan

Cystic fibrosis affects the lungs, the pancreas, the digestive
system, and other organs, resulting in symptoms ranging from breathing
difficulties to recurrent infections. Which of the following terms
best describes this? A) incomplete dominance B) multiple
alleles C) pleiotropy D) epistasis E) codominance

C) pleiotropy

What is the reason that linked genes are inherited together? A)
They are located close together on the same chromosome. B) The
number of genes in a cell is greater than the number of chromosomes.
C) Chromosomes are unbreakable. D) Alleles are paired
together during meiosis. E) Genes align that way during
metaphase I of meiosis.

A) They are located close together on the same chromosome.

In humans, male-pattern baldness is controlled by an autosomal gene
that occurs in two allelic forms. Allele Hn determines nonbaldness,
and allele Hb determines pattern baldness. In males, because of the
presence of testosterone, allele Hb is dominant over Hn. If a man and
woman both with genotype HnHb have a son, what is the chance that he
will eventually be bald? A) 0% B) 25% C) 33%
D) 50% E) 75%

E) 75%

Recombination between linked genes comes about for what reason?
A) Nonrecombinant chromosomes break and then rejoin with one another.
B) Independent assortment sometimes fails.
C) Linked genes travel together at anaphase.
D) Crossovers between these genes result in chromosomal exchange.

D) Crossovers between these genes result in chromosomal exchange.

The role of a metabolite that controls a repressible operon is to
A) bind to the promoter region and decrease the affinity of RNA
polymerase for the promoter. B) bind to the operator region and
block the attachment of RNA polymerase to the promoter. C)
increase the production of inactive repressor proteins. D) bind
to the repressor protein and inactivate it. E) bind to the
repressor protein and activate it.

E) bind to the repressor protein and activate it.

Transcription of the structural genes in an inducible operon A)
occurs continuously in the cell. B) starts when the pathway's
substrate is present. C) starts when the pathway's product is
present. D) stops when the pathway's product is present.
E) does not result in the production of enzymes.

B) starts when the pathway's substrate is present.

Multigene families include two or more nearly identical genes or
genes sharing nearly identical sequences. A classical example is the
set of genes for globin molecules, including genes on human
chromosomes 11 and 16. 37) How might identical and
obviously duplicated gene sequences have gotten from one chromosome
to another? A) by normal meiotic recombination B) by
normal mitotic recombination between sister chromatids C) by
transcription followed by recombination D) by chromosomal
translocation E) by deletion followed by insertion

D) by chromosomal translocation

Multigene families include two or more nearly identical genes or
genes sharing nearly identical sequences. A classical example is the
set of genes for globin molecules, including genes on human
chromosomes 11 and 16. 38) Several of the different
globin genes are expressed in humans, but at different times in
development. What mechanism could allow for this? A) exon
shuffling B) intron activation C) pseudogene activation
D) differential translation of mRNAs E) differential gene
regulation over time

E) differential gene regulation over time

The advantage of light microscopy over electron microscopy is that
A) light microscopy provides for higher magnification than
electron microscopy. B) light microscopy provides for higher
resolving power than electron microscopy. C) light microscopy
allows one to view dynamic processes in living cells. D) light
microscopy provides higher contrast than electron microscopy. E)
specimen preparation for light microcopy does not produce artifacts.

C) light microscopy allows one to view dynamic processes in living cells

What technique would be most appropriate to use to observe the
movements of condensed chromosomes during cell division? A)
light microscopy B) scanning electron microscopy C)
transmission electron microscopy D) confocal fluorescence
microscopy E) super-resolution fluorescence microscopy

A) light microscopy

What is the function of the nuclear pore complex found in eukaryotes?

It regulates the movement of proteins and RNAs into and out of the nucleus

A cell with an extensive area of smooth endoplasmic reticulum is
specialized to _____

synthesize large quantities of lipids

Tay-Sachs disease is a human genetic abnormality that results in
cells accumulating and becoming clogged with very large and complex
lipids. Which cellular organelle must be involved in this condition?
A) the endoplasmic reticulum B) the Golgi apparatus
C) the lysosome D) mitochondria E) membrane-bound ribosomes

C) the lysosome

Suppose a young boy is always tired and fatigued, suffering from a
metabolic disease. Which of the following organelles is most likely
involved in this disease?a) Golgi apparatusb)
mitochondriac) ribosomesd) lysosomes

b) mitochondria

A mutation that disrupts the ability of an animal cell to add
polysaccharide modifications to proteins would most likely cause
defects in its A) nuclear lamina and nuclear matrix. B)
nuclear matrix and extracellular matrix. C) mitochondria and
Golgi apparatus. D) Golgi apparatus and extracellular matrix.
E) nuclear pores and secretory vesicles.

D) Golgi apparatus and extracellular matrix.

Which of the following is (are) true for anabolic pathways? A)
They do not depend on enzymes. B) They are usually highly
spontaneous chemical reactions.C) They consume energy to build
up polymers from monomers. D) They release energy as they
degrade polymers to monomers. E) They consume energy to decrease
the entropy of the organism and its environment.

C) They consume energy to build up polymers from monomers.

Living organisms increase in complexity as they grow, resulting in a
decrease in the entropy of an organism. How does this relate to the
second law of thermodynamics? A) Living organisms do not obey
the second law of thermodynamics, which states that entropy must
increase with time. B) Life obeys the second law of
thermodynamics because the decrease in entropy as the organism grows
is exactly balanced by an increase in the entropy of the universe.
C) Living organisms do not follow the laws of thermodynamics.
D) As a consequence of growing, organisms cause a greater
increase in entropy in their environment than the decrease in entropy
associated with their growth. E) Living organisms are able to
transform energy into entropy.

D) As a consequence of growing, organisms cause a greater increase in
entropy in their environment than the decrease in entropy associated
with their growth.

A system at chemical equilibrium A) consumes energy at a steady
rate. B) releases energy at a steady rate. C) consumes or
releases energy, depending on whether it is exergonic or endergonic.
D) has zero kinetic energy. E) can do no work.

E) can do no work.

When ATP releases some energy, it also releases inorganic phosphate.
What purpose does this serve (if any) in the cell? A) The
phosphate is released as an excretory waste. B) The phosphate
can only be used to regenerate more ATP. C) The phosphate can be
added to water and excreted as a liquid. D) The phosphate may be
incorporated into any molecule that contains phosphate. E) It
enters the nucleus to affect gene expression.

D) The phosphate may be incorporated into any molecule that contains phosphate.

Zinc, an essential trace element for most organisms, is present in
the active site of the enzyme carboxypeptidase. The zinc most likely
functions as a(n) A) competitive inhibitor of the enzyme.
B) noncompetitive inhibitor of the enzyme. C) allosteric
activator of the enzyme. D) cofactor necessary for enzyme
activity. E) coenzyme derived from a vitamin.

D) cofactor necessary for enzyme activity.

A colony of bacteria growing on a culture medium is successfully
synthesizing an organic compound. Which procedure would be least
likely to have an effect on this synthesis?
A) adding more subunits of the organic compound to the medium
B) lowering the pH of the medium
C) raising the temperature of the colony from 20�C to 30�C
D) increasing the number of hormone molecules in the colony

A) adding more subunits of the organic compound to the medium

Which of the following statements describes the results of this
reaction? C?H??O? + 6 O? ? 6 CO? + 6 H?O + Energy A)
C?H??O? is oxidized and O? is reduced. B) O? is oxidized and H?O
is reduced. C) CO? is reduced and O? is oxidized. D)
C?H??O? is reduced and CO? is oxidized. E) O? is reduced and CO?
is oxidized.

A) C?H??O? is oxidized and O? is reduced.

How does a noncompetitive inhibitor decrease the rate of an enzyme
reaction? A) by binding at the active site of the enzyme
B) by changing the shape of the enzyme's active site C) by
changing the free energy change of the reaction D) by acting as
a coenzyme for the reaction E) by decreasing the activation
energy of the reaction

B) by changing the shape of the enzyme's active site

A cell has enough available ATP to meet its needs for about 30
seconds. What is likely to happen when an athlete exhausts his or her
ATP supply?
A) He or she has to sit down and rest.
B) Catabolic processes are activated that generate more ATP.
C) ATP is transported into the cell from the circulatory system.
D) Other cells take over, and the muscle cells that have used up
their ATP cease to function.
Section: 9.1

B) Catabolic processes are activated that generate more ATP.

Which kind of metabolic poison would most directly interfere with glycolysis?
A) an agent that reacts with oxygen and depletes its concentration
in the cell
B) an agent that binds to pyruvate and inactivates it
C) an agent that closely mimics the structure of glucose but is not metabolized
D) an agent that reacts with NADH and oxidizes it to NAD+
Section: 9.2

C) an agent that closely mimics the structure of glucose but is not metabolized

The chemiosmotic hypothesis is an important concept in our
understanding of cellular metabolism in general because it explains _____.
A) how ATP is synthesized by a proton motive force
B) how electron transport can fuel substrate-level phosphorylation
C) the sequence of the electron transport chain molecules
D) the reduction of oxygen to water in the final steps of oxidative metabolism
Section: 9.4

A) how ATP is synthesized by a proton motive force

Glycolysis is active when cellular energy levels are _____; the
regulatory enzyme, phosphofructokinase, is _____ by ATP.
A) low; activated
B) low; inhibited
C) high; activated
D) high; inhibited

B) low; inhibited

Why are there several structurally different pigments in the reaction
centers of photosystems?
A) Excited electrons must pass through several pigments before they
can be transferred to electron acceptors of the electron transport chain.
B) This arrangement enables the plant to absorb light energy of a
variety of wavelengths.
C) They enable the plant to absorb more photons from light energy,
all of which are at the same wavelength.
D) They enable the reaction center to excite electrons to a higher
energy level.

B) This arrangement enables the plant to absorb light energy of a
variety of wavelengths.

The electrons of photosystem II are excited and transferred to
electron carriers. From which molecule or structure do the photosystem
II replacement electrons come?
A) the electron carrier, plastocyanin
B) photosystem I
C) water
D) oxygen

C) water

Which of the following statements best describes the relationship
between photosynthesis and respiration?
A) Respiration runs the biochemical pathways of photosynthesis in reverse.
B) Photosynthesis stores energy in complex organic molecules;
respiration releases energy from complex organic molecules
C) Photosynthesis occurs only in plants; respiration occurs only in animals.
D) Photosynthesis is catabolic; respiration is anabolic.

D) Photosynthesis is catabolic; respiration is anabolic.

P680? is said to be the strongest biological oxidizing agent. Why?
A) It is the receptor for the most excited electron in either
photosystem. B) It is the molecule that transfers electrons to
plastoquinone (Pq) of the electron transfer system. C) It
transfers its electrons to reduce NADP? to NADPH. D) This
molecule has a stronger attraction for electrons than oxygen, to
obtain electrons from water. E) It has a positive charge.

D) This molecule has a stronger attraction for electrons than oxygen,
to obtain electrons from water.

Carotenoids are often found in foods that are considered to have
antioxidant properties in human nutrition. What related function do
they have in plants? A) They serve as accessory pigments to
increase light absorption. B) They protect against oxidative
damage from excessive light energy. C) They shield the sensitive
chromosomes of the plant from harmful ultraviolet radiation. D)
They reflect orange light and enhance red light absorption by
chlorophyll. E) They take up and remove toxins from the groundwater.

B) They protect against oxidative damage from excessive light energy.

Which of the following is one of the ways that the membranes of
winter wheat are able to remain fluid when it is extremely cold?
A) by increasing the percentage of unsaturated phospholipids in
the membrane B) by increasing the percentage of cholesterol
molecules in the membrane C) by decreasing the number of
hydrophobic proteins in the membrane D) by cotransport of
glucose and hydrogen E) by using active transport

A) by increasing the percentage of unsaturated phospholipids in the membrane

What is the voltage across a membrane called? A) water
potential B) chemical gradient C) membrane potential
D) osmotic potential E) electrochemical gradient

C) membrane potential

The difference between pinocytosis and receptor-mediated endocytosis
is that A) pinocytosis brings only water molecules into the
cell, but receptor-mediated endocytosis brings in other molecules as
well. B) pinocytosis increases the surface area of the plasma
membrane whereas receptor-mediated endocytosis decreases the plasma
membrane surface area. C) pinocytosis is nonselective in the
molecules it brings into the cell, whereas receptor-mediated
endocytosis offers more selectivity. D) pinocytosis requires
cellular energy, but receptor-mediated endocytosis does not. E)
pinocytosis can concentrate substances from the extracellular fluid,
but receptor-mediated endocytosis cannot.

C) pinocytosis is nonselective in the molecules it brings into the
cell, whereas receptor-mediated endocytosis offers more selectivity.

A bacterium engulfed by a white blood cell through phagocytosis will
be digested by enzymes contained in A) peroxisomes. B)
lysosomes. C) Golgi vesicles. D) vacuoles. E)
secretory vesicles.

B) lysosomes.