extra-label
These drugs are used in a manner not specifically described by the FDA
veterinary client patient relationship
Before a perscription drug can be perscribed for an animal a _______ must exist
efficacy
Phase III clinical trials usually examine the _____ of new drugs and is used to compare the new drug to existing treatments
true
The major requirement established by the Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act of 1938 is the requirement for drug safety
LD 50= 2mg/kg, ED 50= 0.1mg/kg
Given the information below, select the drug with the widest therapeutic index:
FDA
In order to proceed with full clinical trials of a new animal drug, the INAD application must first be approved by:
shelf life
How long a drug remains stable and effective for use is known as its
EPA
Frontline (Fipronil) is a broad-spectrum insecticide that is applied topically. Because it is a pesticide, Fipronil must be approved by:
true
The majority of veterinary drugs in use during the early 1900s were found naturally in plants
false
All drugs are utilized on sick animals
federal Food and Drugs Act of 1906
The FDA became a government agency after the passage of the
pharmacokinetics
A person studying how the body absorbs, uses, and gets rid of codeine is engaged in the pharmacological specialty called
be kept in a locked cabinet or safe
have orders, receipts, uses, and thefts recorded
be ordered by veterinarians who register triennially with the DEA
Controlled substances must
the lower the risk for human abuse potential
The higher the schedule number (for example, V versus I) of a controlled-substance drug,
true
Prescription drugs are limited to use under the supervision of a veterinarian or physician
false
Diazepam is an example of a schedule I drug
false
Over-the-counter drugs are approved for human use only by the FDA
30
Which therapeutic index is the safest of those listed below?
the therapeutic index
The margin of safety is often referred to as
the margin of safety
The LD 50/ED 50 is the mathematical expression of what value?
safer than a drug whose margin of safety is 5
A drug that has a margin of safety of 75 is
teratogenicity
The term used to describe the capacity to cause birth defects is
false
The FDA is responsible for approval of all chemicals dispensed by veterinarians
false
Once the FDA approves a drug, it is no longer monitored for safety and effectiveness because it has already undergone extensive testing prior to approval
true
Satisfactory clinical trial results allow scientists to file a NADA with the FDA
true
A drug with narrow margin of safety means less of the drug is needed to produce the lethal dose in comparison to a drug with a wide margin of safety
false
Large-volume, subcutaneous injections in cow should be given with 25-gauge or 27-gauge needles
SQ
SC
subQ
Which of the following means "beneath the skin, into the subdermis?
false
Enteric-coated or sustained release tablets are usually scored by the manufacturer
therapeutic range
The dose or dosage of a drug that produces the desired effect in the animal with minimal or no signs of toxicity is the
true
Every drug is potentially a poison
transdermal
drugs can be delivered systemically through a patch on the skin
therapeutic range
Between the minimum toxic concentration (MTC) of a drug and the minimum effective concentration (MEC) of that drug is the
dosage
is the amount of drug per animal species' body weight
repository preparation
An injectable drug placed into a substance that delays absorption is called a
Epi- means below
Select the incorrect term match
IV
An example of a parenteral drug route of administration is
IM
In general, which route of drug administration has a longer duration of action than IV, yet a shorter duration of action than oral?
po
Which route of drug administration do gastric fluids affect?
turned into fine mist for inhalation
Drugs administered via nebulization are
true
The loading dose of a drug is the initial dose given to get the drug concentration up to the therapeutic range in a very short period of time
false
The dosage of a drug is the total amount of drug delivered in 24 hours and is based on the animal's weight
false
100 mg/kg bid is an example of a dosage regimen
true
bid is the Latin abbreviation for twice daily
a drug with a bioavailability of 0.8
Which drug has a greater percent that actually enters the systemic circulation?
passive diffusion
The movement of molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration is known as
lipophilic
What type of drug is well absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract?
nonionized
In what form do the majority of acidic drugs exist in an acidic environment?
subcutaneous tissue
Based on blood perfusion, which body compartment will get adequate drug levels more quickly?
a normal cat
Which animal has a greater volume of distribution?
It will decrease
A dog has decreased renal perfusion. What will this do to the blood levels of a drug excreted through the kidneys?
strength of binding between a drug and its receptor
Drug affinity is the
drug A with a half-life of 60 minutes
Which food-producing animal drug has the shorter withdrawal time?
Giving fluids to an animal will increase the excretion of drugs
Which of the following is true?
expiration date
What term describes the date before which a drug meets all specifications and after which the drug can no longer be used?
prescription
What is the order given or written to a pharmacist by a licensed veterinarian to prepare the medicine, to affix the directions, and to sell the preparation to the client?
trade name
On a drug label, which part is usually in capital letters with a superscript R by it?
occurs when a drug is purchased by the veterinarian directly from the company that manufactures it
Direct marketing of veterinary drugs
compounding
What is the preparation, mixing, assembling, packaging, and/or labeling of a drug resulting from a prescription drug order form a practitioner?
adding flavoring to formulated drugs
Which of the following is an example of drug compounding?
turnover rate
What is the number of times inventory is depleted and replenished each year?
reorder log and vendor file
purchase order records
individual inventory records and inventory master list
What types of inventory records should be kept?
all controlled substances
The Drug Enforcement Agency requires separate inventory and use records to be kept for
designed to take into account special refrigeration and security needs
Organization of pharmaceuticals within a clinic should be
3
0.003g" = ____ mg
20
If one dose is 0.005 g, how many doses (in mg) are in 100 mg of medicine?
2000 mg
Two grams are equal to:
215
If each dose of medicine is 400 mg, how many doses are in 86 g of medicine?
75 mL
If the total amount of 18 L of medicine represents 240 doses, how many mL are in each dose?
400 mL
How much of a 1:20 solution of NaCl is needed to make 1 L of 1:50 solution of NaCl?
gram
In the metric system, the fundamental unit of weight is the
true
Fenbendazole is an antiparasitic drug used to kill some types of intestinal worms. It comes in a 10% suspension. For dogs the dosage is 50 mg/kg po q24h for three days. A 50-pound dog needs this medicine to kill its hookworms.
You should shake this medica
3625 mL
125 mL + 3.5 L =
880 mcg
The dosage of a drug is 0.05 mg/kg. How many mcg should be given to a 17.6 kg cat?
200 mL
How much water needs to be added to a 5 g vial of drug powder to make a 2.5% solution?
1/1000000
The prefix micro- means _____ times the base unit:
thousand
The prefix kilo- means one ____ times the base unit:
40
If one dose is 0.005 g, how many doses (in mg) are in 200 mg of medicine?
11.4
Fenbendazole is an antiparasitic drug used to kill some types of intestinal worms. It comes in a 10% suspension. For dogs the dosage is 50 mg/kg po q24h for three days. A 50-pound dog needs this medicine to kill its hookworms. How many mL would you give t
liter
In the metric system, the fundamental unit of liquid volume is the
1000 mg
One gram is equivalent to how many milligrams?
2
If the dose of a drug is 5 mg, how many doses are contained in 10 mg?
3.125
If the dose of a drug is 16 g, how many doses (in g) are contained in 50000 mg?
215
If each dose of medicine is 400 mg, how many doses are in 86 g of medicine?
4.5 mg
The dose of a drug is 1 mg per kilogram of body weight. How many mg should be given to a rabbit weighing 10 pounds?
1.4%
Translate 1:70 into a percent
acetylcholine
Which neurotransmitter is released at the postganglionic synapse of parasympathetic nerves?
epinephrine
Which neurotransmitter is released at the postganglionic synapse of sympathetic nerves?
Liver enzymes are induced causing the animal to develop tolerance
Why do some animals become "resistant" to their dose of phenobarbital?
xylazine
Which of the following sedatives produces analgesia in the horse, but still allows the horse to respond to stimuli by kicking?
be anesthetized for a long time
Obese animals that are anesthetized with thiobarbiturate would
dissociatives
Which group of anesthetics causes muscle rigidity and mild analgesia?
nitrous oxide
For which inhalant analgesic is it recommended to leave the animal on 100 percent oxygen for about 10 minutes following the procedure to prevent diffusion hypoxia?
propofol
Which anesthetic is a white emulsion, the effects of which last about two to five minutes, when given slow IV?
false
All euthanasia solutions are C-II controlled substances
false
Cholinergic drugs are mainly used to improve the cardiovascular system
true
Mr. Ed has degenerative changes (arthritis) around his navicular bone. He should receive phenylbutazone ("bute") and flunixin meglumine (Banamine) to reduce his pain and inflammation
EDTA
Which of the following anticoagulants is also used to treat lead poisoning?
Aspirin
Which of the following drugs have direct anti-platelet activity?
dopamine
atropine
glycopyrrolate
This drug can be used to treat or prevent bradycardia during anethetic procedures:
vasodilator
Which is the function of ACE inhibitors?
butorphanol
Which of the following is a centrally active narcotic antitussive?
methylxanthines
Which group of bronchodilators works by inhibiting an enzyme in smooth muscle cells that normally causes vasoconstriction?
bronchodilation
Sympathetic nervous stimulation may have the following effect on the respiratory system:
antitussive
What type of respiratory drug inhibits cough production?
x = 1 tablet
Solve the following for x: 7.5 mg/ 3 tablets = 2.5 mg/ x tablets
false
Aspirin is a potent glucocorticoid that has analgesic, antipyretic and anti-inflammatory actions
silver nitrate
Which of the following is a topical hemostatic drug?
decrease afterload
The use of vasodilators in treating heart disease is believed to
Ferrous compounds
Which blood-enhancing drugs are used to treat anemia related iron deficiency?
sympathetic
Catecholamines function as what autonomic system response?
Temaril-P
Which of the following drugs has both antitussive and antipruritic (reduces itchiness) properties?
diphenhydramine
Which of the following is an antihistamine?
false
Glucocorticoids such as prednisone and dexamethasone can be used for extended periods of time to treat respiratory illnesses as they have few long-term side effects
x = 1.2 mL
Solve the following for x: 375 mg/ 10 mL = 46 mg/ x mL
reducing vasoconstriction
The efffects of ACE inhibitors include:
Erythropoietin
This compound, manufactured naturally by the kidneys, stimulates formation of new blood cells:
vitamin K1
Coumarin toxicity, found when animals ingest rat poisoning, is treated with
bronchodilator
The drug theophylline (Slo-Bid) can be used as a _______ to treat feline asthma
dry mouth and CNS depression
Side effects of antihistamines include:
H1
Antihistamines block the effects of histamine release by binding to ____ receptors on bronchiole smooth muscle
x = 6.5 tablets
Solve the following for x: 3 mg/ 1 tablet = 19.5 mg/ x tablets
Glucorticoid drugs, because they block phospholipase, which occurs first in the inflammatory pathway
NSAIDs, because they block cyclooxygenase, which occurs first in the inflammatory pathway
Antihistamine, because they block histamine, which is the only i
Which type of anti-inflammatory drug has the greatest amount of anti-inflammatory effects?
glucocorticoid drugs
Iatrogenic disease is caused by
can be identified by the -fen ending of their generic names
Propionic acid deriatives are NSAIDs that
deracoxib
Which NSAID work by inhibiting cyclooxygenase-2 and not cyclooxygenase-1?
once-daily oral dosing
Indol acetic acid deriatives like etodolac (Etogesic) have the benefit of
-amine
What ending on the generic name of some antihistamines may indicate that they are antihistamines?
antihistamines
What type of anti-inflammatory drug is sometimes used for motion sickness in animals?
phenylbutazone
What NSAID is commonly used for pain relief of lameness and colic in horses?
DMSO
What anti-inflammatory drug readily penetrates skin and must be handled cautiously to avoid absorption of the drug by the person giving the treatment?
flunixin megumine
What NSAID is commonly used and labeled for use in large animals, should be used with caution (if at all) in small animals?
increase RBC production
Erythropoietin is used to
ACE inhibitors
Which group of drugs prevents the conversion of angiotension I to angiotension II?
propranolol
Which antiarrhythmic drug is used to treat ventricular fibrillation?
epinephrine
What drug is manufactured in both 1:1000 and 1:10000 concentrations?
digoxin
Which cardiovascular drug should be monitored for toxicity levels through blood testing?
decrease preload
The use of diuretics in treating heart disease is believed to
The QRS complex represents ventricular depolarization
Which of the following are false regarding the ECG?
acetylcysteine
What drug is a mucolytic and also is used to treat acetaminophen toxicity?
butorphanol
Which of the following are controlled substances?
antihistamine
Which respiratory drug can be used to prevent respiratory problems?
anticholinergics
beta-2-adrenergic agonists
methylxanthines
Which group of bronchiodilators works by inhibiting an enzyme in smooth muscle cells that normally causes vasoconstriction?
doxapram
Which of the following drugs are used to stimulate respiration in neonates after a cesarean section?
mucolytic
Which respiratory drug category decreases the viscosity of respiratory secretions?
brain stem
The cough center is located in what part of the brain?
Temaril-P
Which antitussive combination drug also has a corticosteroid in it?
12 kg
26 pounds is equal to
39 kg
An animal is given 26 mg of a drug. The dosage is 1 mL/ 15 kg.
The concentration of the drug is 10 mg/mL.
How much does this animal weigh?
false
26-gauge needle have larger lumens than 20-gauge needles
a prescription drug
A non-narcotic anti-inflammatory drug must be administered under the supervision of a veterinarian or physician but which has no potential for abuse would be best categorized as:
I
A substance which has a high potential for abuse and no currently accepted medical use would be classified as schedule:
an extra-label use of the drug
A veterinarian prescribes medication that is approved by the FDA for human use but not approved for animals. This is:
true
All euthanasia solutions are controlled substances
TI = 7
Below are the therapeutic indices (TI) for four drugs. Choose the one with the greatest margin of safety
false
Cholinergic drugs are used to increase heart rate and contractility
true
Controlled substances must be stored in a safe or locked cabinet
false
If the drug dose for a 10-pound dog is 2 tablets of drug A, then the dose for a 50-pound dog is 20 tablets of drug A
intravenous
In an emergency situation, the most rapid route of drug administration is
be examined by a veterinarian
In order for a Veterinary-Client-Patient Relationship to exist, the animal must:
I
Marijuana, for which of the FDA recognizes no accepted medical use, would be classified as schedule:
24 mL
Meloxicam at 1.5 mg/mL is prescribed for an arthritic 99-pound Irish Wolfhound.
On the first day of treatment, the patient should be given 0.2 mg/kg sid po.
The maintenance dosage is 0.1 mg/kg every other day.
How much meloxicam should be prescribed for a
acepromazine
Protrusion of the third eyelid in a dog or cat is common when that pet is treated with
reduction of drugs reaching the systemic circulation by the liver
The "first-pass effect" is
IV
The fastest increase of plasma drug concentration is achieved with which route of adminstration?
half of the study animals die
The LD 50 is the dose at which:
pharmacodynamics
The study of a drug's mechanism of action and it biological and physiological effects is termed ________.
the comparison between the ability of a drug to reach the desired effect and its tendency to produce toxic effects
The therapeutic index (margin of safety) is
0.26 to 0.52 mg/ 0.52 to 1.04 mL
What is the dose range in mg and mL for a 13-kg dog for atropine sulfate (0.5 mg/mL) at dosages of 0.02 to 0.04 mg/kg?
true
A veterinarian can use a balling gun to administer a magnet to a cow
Liver
What is the primary organ involved in the biotransformation (metabolism) of drugs?
false
When comparing drugs, the brand name product is more pure and slightly more potent than its generic alternative
give the medication 4 times a day
When you see the abbreviation "qid," you should
9 mg
The dose of a drug is 2 mg per kilogram of body weight. How many mg should be given to a rabbit weighing 10 pounds?
tramadol
Which of the following is NOT an analgesic?
phenothiazine deriative
Which of the following is the correct action for acepromazine?
anticonvulsant and tranquilizer that causes muscle relaxation
Which of the following is the correct action for diazepam?
anticholinergic drug
Which of the following is the correct action for glycopyrrolate?
dissociative anesthetic
Which of the following is the correct action for ketamine?
analgesic
Which of the following is the correct action for morphine?
anticonvulsant
Which of the following is the correct action for phenobarbital?
alpha-2 agonist
Which of the following is the correct action for xylazine?
Food animals
With what group of animals is withdrawal time especially important?
anabolic steroids
Which group of growth promotants causes tissue building and promotes red blood cell formation?
prostaglandins
Which estrus synchronization drug, if given to a herd of cattle, will lyse any CLs and cause the cattle to cycle all at the same time?
measuring cortisol levels before and after administration of ACTH
Adrenal cortex dysfunction, including adrenocortical insufficiency and hyperadrenocorticism, can be diagnosed by
hypothyroidism
Decreased coat luster, hair loss, decreased appetite, listlessness, intolerance to cold, and reproductive failure are all signs of
units / mL
Insulin concentration is measured in
false
Oxytocin is beneficial in treating both open and closed pyometra
brain stem
What part of the brain controls vomting?
cholinergic
What category of drug stimulates the parasympathetic nervous system or homeostatic function?
anticholinergic
Which group of antidiarrheals controls diarrhes by blocking acetycholine release from parasympathetic nerve endings?
osmotics
What type of laxative loosens by pulling water into the colon and increasing water in the feces?
acepromazine
Which of the following control vomiting by inhibiting dopamine in the CRTZ?
apomorphine
Which emetic can be given in the subconjunctival sac?
H2 receptor antagonists
Which group of antiulcer medications block receptors on parietal cells in the stomach, thereby reducing gastric acid secretion?
neostigmine
What drug is used for rumen atony?
true
Vomiting should be induced whenever an animal ingests a poison
blocking the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II
ACE inhibitors work by
diuretic
What type of drug promotes water release from tissues?
acidic
What type of urine helps prevent formation of and encourages dissolution of struvite crystals?
cholinergics
What category of urinary drug promotes voiding of urine from the urinary bladder?
alpha-adrenergic antagonists
Which category of urinary drug decreases internal urethral sphincter tone and is used to treat animals with an overdistended urinary bladder?
xanthine oxidase inhibitors
Which group of drugs is used in animals with ammonium urate uroliths?
competitive nondepolarizer
What type of drug overrides the stimulative effect of acetylcholine?
It is inactivated by acetylcholineterase
How is acetylcholine normally deactivated at the neuromuscular junction?
building
Anabolic means
calcium
What mineral is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum in muscles?
anabolic steroid
What type of neuromuscular drug would be used to counteract postsurgical debility?
vitamin K
Dogs who have ingested rat poison (warfarin) should be treated with:
vasodilator
What is the function of ACE inhibitors?
80000
176 pounds = _________ grams
6.81 kg
A cat received 1.5 mL of 2.27% enrofloxacin injection. The drug dosage is 5 mg/kg.
What does this cat weigh?
More information is needed to answer this question
A dog weighs 12 pounds. His dosage of apomorphine is 0.03 mg/kg. How much injectable apomorphine should you draw up into the syringe to give to this dog?
100 mL
If the total amount of 22L of medicine represents 220 doses, how many mL are in each dose?
56
Metoclopramide is available in 5 mg tablets at your hospital. A dog needs 17.5 mg BID for 8 days. How many pills should you put in a pill vial to send home for this prescription?
xylazine
A good way to make a cat vomit is to administer
true
ACTH from the anterior pituitary gland controls glucocorticoid secretions from the adrenal cortex
measuring cortisol levels before and after administration of ACTH
Adrenal cortex dysfunction, including adrenocortical insufficiency and hyperadrenocorticism, can be diagnosed by
DOCP
fludrocortisone
prednisolone
Adrenocortical insufficiency, also known as Addison's disease, can be treated with
estrus synchronization in horses
An action of dinoprost is
false
Bovine somatotropin (BST) can increase milk production and synchroniza estrus in diry cattle
false
Cats that have acetaminophen toxicity should receive acetylcysteine because acetaminophen causes thick mucoid secretions in the airways and without this treatment the cats die of asphyxiation
false
Fluoride-containing products designed for animals have a higher concentration of fluoride than comparable human products
hypokalemia
Furosemide may cause ______ in patients
true
Gastrointestinal ulceration is a potential side effect of all glucocorticoid anti-inflammatory drugs and all NSAIDs
levothyroxine
Hypothyroidism can be treated with
poloxalene
If your goat has frothy bloat you should give
true
It is OK to give a cough suppressant to a dog with "kennel cough" because the cough is usually non-productive
false
Pancuronium temporarily paralyzes skeletal muscle, produces mild sedation and provides analgesia when given IV
misoprostol
DMSO
mitotane
oxytocin
Pregnant women should avoid handling which of these medications?
false
Sucralfate promotes ulcer healing by binding to HCl and neutralizing prostaglandins
uroliths
Urinary acidifiers are used to produce acid urine, which assists in dissolving and preventing the formation of
nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug
Which best describes carprofen?
meloxicam
deracoxib
Which NSAIDs work be inhibiting cyclooxygenase-2 and not cyclooxygenase-1?
atropine
Which of the following can reverse the effects of neostigmine?
metoclopramide
Which of the following control vomiting by inhibiting dopamine in the CRTZ?
lidocaine
Which of the following is a membrane-stabilizinf antiarrythmic used to control PVCs and ventricular tachycardia?
methocarbamol
Which of the following is a skeletal muscle spasmolytic?
dextromethorphan
Which of the following is not a bronchodilator?
enalapril
Which of the following is not a diuretic?
phenylpropanolamine
Which of the following is used to treat urinary incontinence?
erythropoietin
Which of these drugs that can be given to increase the number of red blood cells in circulation?
Butorphanol
_______ is used for the relief of chronic nonproductive cough in dogs and for mild analgesia and preanesthesia in dogs and cats
amitraz
What chemical is used to treat demodectic mange in dogs?
These products work for a specified period of time
What is a disadvantage of using oral forms of flea prevention?
coccidiostats
Cleaning of contaminated waste from the environment is important when treating an animal with
the third-stage larve
Ivermectin can be used in treating all stages of heartworm disease except
epsiprantel
Antitrematodol drugs include all of the following except
foggers
Ectoparasitidic chemicals used to quickly treat the indoor environment are known as
metronidazole
Treatment of Giardia lamblia infections shouls include
monthly
six months
Heartworm preventative can be given at the following intervals:
false
All heartworm preventatives also control intestinal parasites
false
All flea products also control ticks
penicillins and cephalosporins
Which antibiotics contain the beta-lactam ring?
fluoroquinolones and tetracyclines
Which antibiotics are not recommended for young animals?
chloramphenicol
Which antibiotic may cause bone marrow suppression if taken systemically or handled improperly?
halogens
Chlorine and iodine agents represents which group of disinfectants/antiseptics?
chlorhexidine
Which antiseptic is used commonly as a surgical scrub, for cleaning wounds, and as a teat dip?
ethylene oxide
What chemical is used to sterilize rubber goods?
false
All disinfectants are sporicidal
oatmeal
Which of the following is an example of a nonsteroidal topical antipruritic?
sulfur
Which of the following shampoo ingredients is used as a keratolytic to treat seborrhea?
caustics
What group of chemicals works by destroying tissue at the site of application?
iodine
What chemical is found in products like Betadine and Lugol's Solution?
dressings
What group of drugs works by drawing fluid out of tissues?
astringents
Which group of skin products works by precipitating protein, thus stopping discharge?
Panalog
Which of the following products has an antibacterial, antifungal, and glucocorticoid drug in it?
true
The epidermis does not contain blood vessels
true
Keratolytics promote loosening of the outer layers of the epidermis
false
Counterirritants work by calming the inflammatory response or counteracting inflammation
gentamicin
Otomax is the trade name of a topical otic solution containing a glucocorticoid, antifungal, and
determine whether the tympanic membrane is intact
When treating patients with topical otic drugs, it is important to
topical anesthetics
Proparacaine and tetracaine are examples of
miotic drugs
Which groups of ophthalmic drugs promotes the outflow of aqueous humor by lifting the iris away from the filtration angle area?
mydriatic drugs
Which groups of ophthalmic drugs causes pupillary dilation, allowing examination of the retina?
viruses
Trifluridine works on what category of microorganisms?
glucocorticoids
Which drugs should not be used in patients with corneal ulcers or scratches?
Ointments last longer and therefore the client has to treat the animal less frequently
What is one advantage of using ophthalmic ointment rather than ophthalmic drops?
true
All mydriatics are also cycloplegics
false
Most otic treatments for ear mites are effective with a single application
They may swell
What may happen to red blood cells placed in a hypotonic solution?
They may shrink
What may happen to red blood cells placed in a hypertonic solution?
They remain the same
What happens to red blood cells when placed in an isotonic solution?
positive-pressure ventilation from an endotracheal tube with an inflated cuff
The best way to get oxygen to a patient is via
epinephrine
Which emergency drug is given if there is no heartbeat?
atropine
What emergency drug is given when the patient has a slow heartbeat?
false
When dextrose is added to fluids, it is meant to serve as a calorie source
true
When calculating rehydration fluid values, the percent dehydration should be in decimal form
false
Adult administration sets always deliver fluid at 15 gtt/mL, and pediatric administration sets always deliver fluid at 60 gtt/mL
false
CPR methods for small animals (<15 kg) and larger animals (>15 kg) are the same
true
A head tilt and ataxia can be signs of ototoxicity
20 mL/min
For the following IV set calibration (gtt/mL) and the given drip rate, determine the mL/min flow rate:
true
Some heartworm preventatives also control intestinal parasites
false
Ticks can be controlled, but not killed, with any flea product
iodine
What chemical is found in products like Betadine?
polymyxin B and bacitracin
Which antibiotics are used only topically?
acetazolamide
Which of the following is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor used to treat glaucoma?
cephalexin
Which of the following is a cephalosporin antibiotic?
IGR
Which of the following is a chemical that mimics juvenile hormones of insects?
organophosphate
Which of the following is a cholinterase inhibito that is used against endo- and ectoparasites and has a narrow safety margin?
sulfadimethoxine
Which of the following is a coccidiostat?
fenbendazole
Which of the following is a commonly used antinematodal that includes the brand name Panacur?
ketoconazole
Which of the following is a drug used orally and topically to treat fungal infections by causing leakage of the fungal cell membrane?
fluorescein
Which of the following is a dye used to detect corneal defects such as scratches and ulcers?
enrofloxacin
Which of the following is a fluoroquinolone antimicrobial?
pilocarpine
Which of the following is a miotic that can be used to treat glaucoma?
atropine
Which of the following is a mydriatic used to treat acute inflammation of the anterior uvea?
topical otic drying agents
Which of the following is a product containing salicylic acid?
pyrantel pamoate
Which of the following is a safe antinematodal drug that should be shaken prior to use?
doxycycline
Which of the following is a tetracycline antibiotic?
melarsomine
Which of the following is an adulticide used to treat heartworm disease?
gentamicin
Which of the following is an aminoglycoside antibiotic that may cause nephro- and ototoxicity?
clorsulon
Which of the following is an antitrematodal?
cyclosporine
Which of the following is an immunomodulating agent that stimulates tear production and is used to treat KCS?
mannitol
Which of following is an osmotic diuretic used as an emergency treatment for glaucoma?
isotonic crystalloid
Which of the following is the correct classification for LRS?
natural colloid
Which of the following is the correct classification for whole blood?
interferon
Which of the following is used to treat viral infections?
100 mL
How much 50% dextrose solution must you add to a liter of LRS in order to produce a bag of LRS with 5% dextrose in it?
0.2 gtt/min
It was previously determined that a calf 50 lbs needs 1136mL of fluid per day. Use an adult macrodrip administration set that delivers 15 gtt/mL to calculate the fluid drip rate.
What is the fluid drip rate, in gtt/minute?
6 mL
A 22-pound dog is in a hospital. He has a liter bag of 0.9% sodium chloride (normal saline; NS) going IV at 22 mL/hr on an IV infusion pump. He has already received 400 mL. Now the veterinarian wants you to add potassium chloride (KCl) to the dog's curren
I would add 3.3 mL of morpine to the fluid bag
How much morphine (15 mg/mL) would you add to a new (full) 250 mL fluid bag to deliver a constant rate infusion (CRI) of 0.2 mg/kg/hr to a 22-lb bag with an IV pump set at 10 mL/hr? (You will deliver all of the fluids, at 10 mL/hr)
If you use a 60 gtt/mL (microdrip) drip set, the drip rate will be 0.56 drops per second during the 24-hour period
An 11-lb cat that is 8% dehydrated needs to have its dehydration corrected. You will give IV LRS that has KCl added to make a liter bags of LRS that has a total of 20 mEq/L KCl. (LRS comes off the shelf with 4 mEq/L KCl; that is part of the LRS fluid solu
is the type of immunity with which one is born and does not develop after birth
Innate immunity.......
614
The shock dose of IV fluids for a dog is 90 mL/kg. A 30-pound dog that was vaccinated an hour ago returned to your clinic in shock. He vomited and then collapsed at home. Now you need to treat the dog's anaphylactic shock. The veterinarian wants you to gi
true
Some vaccines are made to protect against protozoal diseases
true
Vaccines with adjuvants may cause more adverse reactions than those without adjuvants
modified-live
Which of the following is the correct classification for a vaccine prepared from attenuated microorganisms?
13
A farmer wants to vaccinate 320 pigs. The vaccine that you will use is available in cartons that contain 25 doses in each carton. What is the minimum number of cartons that you must have available at the farm in order to vaccinate the 320 pigs during one
polyvalent
Which of the following is the correct classification for a vaccine with a mixture of antigens?
autogenous
Which of the following is the correct classification for a vaccine produced for a specific disease in a specific area?
inactivated
Which of the following is the correect classification for a vaccine in which heat or chemicals are used to kill the microorganisms?
monvalent
Which of the following is the correct classification for a vaccine with only one antigen?
true
One advantage of live vaccines is that they do not need adjuvants
antiserum
Which of the following is the correct classification for a vaccine that is antibody-rich serum from a hypersensitized animal?
0.5
You are asked to give a 9-pound cat 2.5 mg/kg of 22.7 mg/mL enrofloxacin SC. You will give this cat ______ mL of enrofloxacin
true
A vaccine can be ruined and become ineffective if not properly refrigerated
live
Which of the following is the correct classification for a vaccine made from live organisms that may be virulent or avirulent?
elicit a secondary immune response and a higher antibody titer
Booster vaccines are given to ......
adjuvant
A substance added to a vaccine that enhances the immune response is a/an:
modified-live
In ______ vaccines, microorganisms undergo a process (attenuation) to lose their virulence so that when introduced into the patient's body via inoculation, they cause an immune response instead of disease
toxoid
Which of the following is the correct classification for a vaccine which is active against toxins?
antitoxin
Which of the following is the correct classification for a vaccine that contains antibodies to neutralize toxins?
true
Rabies vaccine is an example of a monovalent vaccine
true
If you are asked to add KCl to a liter bag IV fluids for a patient that has already received 400 mL from that bag, you will calculate the amount of KCl to add to 600 mL of fluid
recombinant
Which of the following is the correct classification for a vaccine in which genes or parts of a microorganism are moved from one organism to another?
true
Feline viral rhinotracheitis, calicivirus, panleukopenia (FVRCP) is an example of a polyvalent vaccine
vomiting
dypsnea
incoordination
Which of the following is a clinical sign of anaphylaxis?
autogenous
A farmer has an outbreak of salmonella on his farm, and a specific vaccine is made from those bacteria for that specific farm. This type of vaccine is a/an
adjuvant
A substance added to a vaccine that enhances the immune response is a/an
attenuation
The process of a microorganism losing its virulence is termed
bacterin
A vaccine made from bacteria is called a/an
artifically acquired passive immunity
People who get sick from hepatitis A food poisoning are given immunoglobulins to provide immediate protection. This is an example of
false
Vaccines are made to protect against viruses and viral diseases
true
A horse with a puncture wound and no history of tetanus prophylaxis would receive tetanus toxoid
fluoxetine (Prozac)
Which drug inhibits the reuptake of serotonin?
antihistamines
Which group of drugs is both anxiolytic and antipruritic?
benzodiazepines
Which class of behavior-modifying drugs works by potentiating the inhibitory action of GABA?
phenothiazine
Which is the correct classification for acepromazine?
antihistamine
Which is the correct classification for hydroxyzine?
false
In comparison to synthetic drugs, supplements and neutroceuticals are safer and have a larger therapeutic index
true
The safety and efficacy of most herbal supplements have not been evaluated using rigorous clinical trials
nepatalactone
What is the active ingredient in catnip?
false
Herbs are natural; therefore they can be used safely in pregnant and nursing animals
Western herbal medicine
Which type of alternative medicine is based on the belief that individuals have an inner force that works to maintain physical, emotional, and mental health?
10
Using a microdrip 60 gtt/mL drip chamber to deliver 236 mL of fluid per day to a sick dog, you will set the fluid drip rate to ______ gtt/mL
3.3
If you give a 9-pound cat 0.6 mL of 22.7 mg/mL of enrofloxacin SC, the dosage is _____ mg/kg
300
If your cat weighs 5 kg and is 6% dehydrated, it has a fluid deficit of _____ mL
5
Milk thistle comes in a package of 12 capsules per box. My patient must receive 2 capsules a day for the next 28 days. How many boxes of milk thistle will you dispense to provide enough herb for this patient?
true
Most behavior-modifying drugs cause sedation
true
The owner of a pet that is receiving behavior-modifying medication should receive pet behavior counseling
Loose stools
Which of the following are possible side effects of silymarin?
Chinese traditional herbal medicine
Which type of alternative medicine is based on a holistic philosophy of life that emphasizes the relationship between the mental, emotional, and physical components of each individual, as well as the importance of harmony between individuals, their social
true
A 5 kg cat that received 75 mg of amoxicillin and a 15 kg dog that receives 225 mg of amoxicillin will be given the same dosage
false
Therapeutic index" and "margin of safety" differ in the way that they are calculated
0.3
To give 200 mg of a drug that is 600 mg/mL, you will need to draw-up _____ mL
Viral hair shaft disorders
Excessive groominh by a cat can be caused by all of the following except:
Urinary straining
Which of the following is not usually treated with behavior-modifying medication?
false
Most behavior-modifying drugs are approved by the FDA for animal use
SSRI
Which is the correct classification for fluoxetine?
Antioxidant
Anti-inflammatory
Hepatoprotective
Heptaregenerative
Which of the following is not an effect of milk thistle?
Thistles
Which part of the milk thistle plant is not commonly used to prepare herbal extracts?
Hawaiian herbal medicine
What is la'au lapa'au?
Injections
Which of the following is not a common route of herb administration in pets?
false
All parts of herbs have equal potency and effectiveness
15 mL
Which of the following is an example of a DOSE?
2 of the 100 and 1 of the 25
My patient needs approximately 225 mg of milk thistle each day. The capsules that you have available in your holistic practice are these sizes: 1 mg, 2 mg, 25 mg, 50 mg and 100 mg. What is the best combination to dispense to this patient for each day's do
MAOI
Which group of drugs works by inhibiting the enzyme that destorys neurotransmitters?
megestrol acetate
Which drug can cause diabetes mellitus during its use?
phenothiazines
Which group of drugs works by dopamine antagonism?
false
The use of behavior-modifying drugs is the most effective way to treat behavior problems in animals
false
Most behavior-modifying drugs start affecting an animal's behavior immediately
poultice
What herb form involved boiling fresh or dried herbs, squeezing out excess liquid, cooling the herb, and applying it to the skin?
cranberry
Which herb has been used to treat urinary tract infections in cats because it inhibits binding of some bacteria to the urinary bladder wall?
St.John's Wort
Which herbal supplement may cause photosensitivity?
valerian
Which herbal supplement has been used as a mild tranquilzer in dogs?
false
Because herbal supplements are used in humans and animals, they are regulated by the FDA