Marketing exam 2

The basic difference between the Internet and the World Wide Web is that only
a) the Internet is a marketing tool.
b) the Internet is a public system.
c) through the Web can users see graphics and hear audio.
d) through the Web can consumers E-mail each o

c) through the Web can users see graphics and hear audio.

A consumer request for information on the Web that is helpful in determining the features of a particular refrigerator model is an example of
a. spamming.
b. E-commerce.
c. E-marketing.
d. logistics.

c.E-marketing. (?)

Which of these is the broadest concept?
a.Opt-in E-mail
b. Bricks-and-mortar
c. E-commerce
d. E-marketing

d. E-marketing

4. Which Internet marketing format has undergone a major shakeup?
a. Catalogs
b. Clicks-only firms
c. TV shopping
d. DSL

b. Clicks-only firms

Which one of the following is not necessarily a benefit for a firm using the Internet in marketing?
a. Timeliness
b. Low system-maintenance costs
c. 24/7 operations
d Global possibilities

b. Low system-maintenance costs

Which of these Internet attributes relates to the ability of the Internet to have two-way communication?
a. Interactivity
b. Hyperactivity
c. Connectivity
d. Globalization

a. Interactivity

Which role of the Internet in marketing is best illustrated by a firm maintaining a list of key customers and their purchasing behavior?
a.Data-based proliferation
b.Data-base development
c. Customer service
d. Channel relations

b.Data-base development

The lot size in mass customization is typically
a. one unit.
b. 10 units.
c. 100 units.
d. more than 1,000 units.

a. one unit.

Multichannel marketing is practiced by a(n)
a. E-commerce firm.
b. bricks-and-mortar firm.
c. bricks-and-clicks firm.
d. clicks-only firm

c. bricks-and-clicks firm.

Which of these statements is correct?
a. Seventy percent of U.S. adults ages 18 to 29 have a broadband connection.
b. Far more men than women use the Internet in the United States.
c. Internet use increases as people get older.
d. Internet use decreases a

a. Seventy percent of U.S. adults ages 18 to 29 have a broadband connection.

Which aspect of a Web site includes such topics as company background, financial performance, and an online shopping cart?
a. (URL) Web address
b. Site content
c. Links
d. Home page

b. Site content

An Internet retailer respects a consumer's privacy by
a. using spam.
b.using opt-in E-mail.
c. selling names to mailing list brokers.
d. trading names and addresses of customers with noncompeting firms.

b.using opt-in E-mail. (?)

Computing daily Web site traffic, ratings on customer service surveys, and sales revenues are measures to be used in
a. making distribution decisions.
b. enacting trade-off decisions.
c. making promotion decisions.
d. assessing performance.

d. assessing performance.

Which of these factors should not be regularly reviewed in evaluating the quality of a Web site?
a. Download time
b. Security
c. Product variety
d. Currency

c. Product variety

The large number of search engines, as well as the number of companies that are now online, contribute to
a. the need to outsource Web decision making.
b. consumer privacy concerns.
c. clutter.
d. system breakdowns.

c. clutter.

Census of Population data
a. are gathered annually.
b. are a major source of demographics.
c. include retail sales by merchandise category.
d. are limited to cities.

b. are a major source of demographics.

Projections of the size of the U.S. population reveal that
a. the number of people is decreasing.
b. the Midwest is expanding more rapidly than other regions.
c. population growth is increasing at a rapid rate.
d. the rate of population growth is slow.

d. the rate of population growth is slow.

Approximately what percent of people in the United States reside in urban areas and their suburbs?
a. 15
b. 25
c. 64
d. 82

d. 82

Among U.S. residents, about what percentage of all people move annually?
a. 14
b. 25
c. 35
d. 45

a. 14

A family is?
a. one or more people residing together.
b. a husband, wife, and children, regardless of whether living together.
c. all relatives, including cousins, regardless of whether living together.
d. two or more related people residing together.

d. two or more related people residing together. (?)

According to the U.S. Bureau of the Census, which of the following is not a major racial group?
a. Asian
b. Black
c. Hispanic
d. White

c. Hispanic

Which of the following is not an attribute upon which social classes are based?
a. Education
b. Language
c. Occupation
d. Type of dwelling

b. Language

The concept of the household life cycle is taking on greater importance because of the
a. growing number of people who do not marry.
b. growing number of families with only one working spouse.
c. declining number of people who do not have children.
d. dec

a. growing number of people who do not marry.

Self-confidence, dominance, autonomy, sociability, defensiveness, adaptability, and emotional stability are selected
a. attitudes.
b. personality traits.
c. social classes.
d. lifestyle attributes.

b. personality traits.

The risk that a product will not perform adequately is an example of which type of perceived risk?
a. Safety
b. Time
c. Financial
d. Functional

d. Functional

If a husband stays home and takes care of the children and a wife works full-time outside the home, which type of lifestyle is being exhibited?
a. Voluntary simplicity
b. Blurring of gender roles
c. Getting by
d. Component

b. Blurring of gender roles

Unlike demographics, many of the social and psychological aspects of consumer lifestyles are
a. objective.
b. easy to measure.
c. based primarily on observation.
d. hidden from view.

d. hidden from view.

Listing alternatives that will solve the problem at hand and determining the characteristics of each occurs during which stage of the final consumer's decision process?
a. Stimulus
b. Information search
c. Evaluation of alternatives
d. Purchase

b. Information search

Follow-up telephone and service calls, ads aimed at purchasers, and extended warranties can all be used to help reduce
a. perceived risk.
b.the number of criteria used in the evaluation of alternatives.
c. the period from when an order is placed by a cons

d. cognitive dissonance.

In low-involvement purchasing situations, consumers
a. act quickly
b. use extended decision making.
c. have a relatively high degree of functional perceived risk.
d. are active about acquiring information.

a. act quickly

Which of the following is an example of industrial marketing?
a. A consumer buying a bathing suit at the end of a season due to an attractive price
b. A government agency purchasing a police car
c. A college student leasing a personal computer
d. A retail

b. A government agency purchasing a police car

Derived demand tends to be
a. related to the accelerator principle.
b. sensitive to price changes.
c. not very volatile.
d. independent of final consumers.

a. related to the accelerator principle.

Acombination of goods and services is provided to a buyer by a single source in
a. negotiation
b. reciprocity.
c. systems buying.
d. systems selling.

d. systems selling.

Which statement concerning the North American Industry Classification System (NAICS) is correct?
a. The NAICS is the official classification system for the members of NAFTA.
b. The NAICS assigns organizations to 7 main industrial classifications.
c. NAICS

a. The NAICS is the official classification system for the members of NAFTA.

North American Industry Classification System data would most likely be employed in?
a. systems selling.
b. countertrade.
c. end-use analysis.
d. value analysis.

c. end-use analysis.

Unlike wholesalers, retailers are more concerned with their
a. physical facilities.
b. resale items.
c. trucks.
d. refrigeration and other equipment.

a. physical facilities.

Which statement about nonprofit institutions is not correct?
a. They buy goods and services in order to run their organizations.
b. They often sell items to generate additional revenues.
c. There are no separate NAICS codes for nonprofit- versus profit-or

d. There are few international nonprofit institutions.

8. Which of the following is not a major component of the organizational consumer's decision process?
a. Expectations
b. Conflict resolution
c. Problem awareness
d. Buying process

c. Problem awareness

For organizational consumers
a. the buying process always involves joint decisions.
b. vendor reliability is not very important.
c. satisfaction with past purchases is not important in current purchase decisions.
d. expectations refer to the perceived pot

d. expectations refer to the perceived potential of alternative suppliers and brands to satisfy a number of explicit
and implicit objectives.

Product-specific buying factors leading to joint decision making usually include
a. low perceived risk.
b. low time pressure for purchases.
c. routine products.
d. technology orientation.

b. low time pressure for purchases.

Which of the following is not a method of conflict resolution?
a. Politicking
b. Persuasion
c. Lobbying
d. Bargaining

c. Lobbying

12. In which form of conflict resolution does each member of a purchasing team present his or her reasons why a particular supplier or brand should be selected?
a. Politicking
b. Persuasion
c. Problem solving
d. Bargaining

b. Persuasion

Reordering, not decision making, is usually applied when
a. a firm has not previously purchased the product.
b. medium-priced products previously bought infrequently by the firm now need to be purchased.
c. competitive bidding is used.
d. perceived risk i

d. perceived risk is very low.

Which of the following is not a similarity between organizational consumers and final consumers?
a. They both use a decision process.
b. They both employ joint decision-making.
c. They both purchase products for resale to others.
d. They both can be defin

c. They both purchase products for resale to others.

When dealing with organizational purchasing agents, sellers have to realize that these buyers
a. rarely get involved with the final purchase decision.
b. have personal, as well as company, goals.
c. are only interested in price.
d. usually have very littl

b. have personal, as well as company, goals.

What is the first general phase in developing a target market strategy?
a. Facilitating the market
b. Analyzing consumer demand
c. Targeting the market
d. Developing the marketing strategy

b. Analyzing consumer demand

Personal demographics include
a. benefit segments.
b. usage experience.
c. company size.
d. class consciousness.

c. company size.

Which statement about benefit segmentation is correct?
a. Consumer motives may be used to establish benefit segments.
b. Consumer demographics may be used to establish benefit segments.
c. Consumer education and income may be used to establish benefit seg

a. Consumer motives may be used to establish benefit segments.

According to the VALS 2 typology, within the ideals type are
a. achievers.
b. strivers.
c. makers.
d. thinkers.

d. thinkers.

Which of the following is not a lifestyle designation of the Social Styles model?
a. Drivers
b. Believers
c. Expressives
d. Amiables

b. Believers

In general, female shoppers in supermarkets, as compared to males,
a. buy fewer items.
b. spend more time shopping.
c. use a shopping list less often.
d. are less likely to bring children.

b. spend more time shopping.

For a firm with limited resources and abilities, the least promising method of developing a target market is
a. differentiated marketing.
b. concentrated marketing.
c. undifferentiated marketing.
d. benefit segmentation.

c. undifferentiated marketing.

Differentiated marketing is appropriate if
a. benefit segmentation cannot be used.
b. a firm wishes to maximize per-unit profits by appealing to only one segment.
c. diffused demand can be satisfied by offering unique marketing mixes to each cluster.
d. h

c. diffused demand can be satisfied by offering unique marketing mixes to each cluster.

A consumer goods marketer produces multiple brands of shampoo that are positioned for consumers with dyed hair, dandruff, oily hair, or dry hair. This strategy illustrates
a. the majority fallacy.
b. concentrated marketing.
c. undifferentiated marketing.

d. differentiated marketing.

Wholesalers and retailers usually find differentiated marketing on the part of their suppliers to be attractive because it
a. can offer them some brand exclusivity. (?)
b. can allow them to avoid having to carry their own private brands.
c. lets them avoi

a. can offer them some brand exclusivity.

Which of the following is a criterion for successful market segmentation?
a. There must not be differences among consumers.
b. Each segment must be located within a small geographic area.
c. There must not be consumer similarities within each segment iden

d. A segment must be large enough to cover costs.

A Firm is abusing segmentation when it
a. becomes too efficient.
b. is consumer oriented.
c. becomes short-run oriented rather than long-run oriented.
d. is generating too much profit.

c. becomes short-run oriented rather than long-run oriented.

The upper sales limit for a company is defined as its
a. sales ladder.
b. sales penetration.
c. sales potential.
d. sales forecast.

c. sales potential.

Experience and interaction guide sales forecasting by
a. sales force surveys.
b. consumer surveys.
c. juries of executives.
d. test marketing.

c. juries of executives.

The opposite approach to the market buildup method of sales forecasting is
a. an experiment.
b. projection.
c. simulation.
d. the chain-ratio method.

d. the chain-ratio method.

The broadest definition of a product is
a. intangible.
b. tangible.
c. extended.
d. generic.

d. generic.

The marketing emphasis for convenience products is on maintaining
a. an ample sales force.
b. selective distribution.
c. brand loyalty.
d. nearby locations and long hours.

d. nearby locations and long hours.

Raw materials are
a.expenses rather than capital items.
b. semimanufactured goods that undergo further changes in form during manufacturing.
c. re-engineered parts use in production.
d. parts placed in products without further changes in form.

a.expenses rather than capital items.

A wide/deep mix is characterized by
a. a small number of product lines and a large number of product items within each line.
b. a large number of product lines and a small number of product items within each line.
c. a large number of product lines and a

c. a large number of product lines and a large number of product items within each line.

The product management organizational form that functions best when the firm has one main product line is the
a. marketing manager system.
b. product-planning committee.
c. new-product manager system.
d. brand manager system.

a. marketing manager system.

Which is a characteristic of a venture team organization format?
a. The venture team is inexpensive to utilize.
b. The team disbands when a new product is introduced.
c. Product managers supervise existing products.
d. One executive oversees a wide range

b. The team disbands when a new product is introduced.

A trademark is defined as a
a. symbol or design that is distinctive.
b. word or letters that can be spoken.
c. corporate brand or symbol that is legally protected.
d. brand mark that is personified.

c. corporate brand or symbol that is legally protected.

Which of the following is not a reason why branding is important?
a. Product identification is eased.
b. Price comparisons are reduced.
c. The firm responsible for the product is known.
d. Consumers' perceived risk increases.

d. Consumers' perceived risk increases.

When manufacturer, private, and generic brands each attempt to gain a greater share of the consumer's dollar, they engage in
a. a mixed-brand strategy.
b. a battle of the brands.
c. family branding.
d. co-branding.

b. a battle of the brands.

Which of the following is an advantage of family branding?
a. Maximization of multiple segmentation
b. Distinctive image for each company product
c. Lower promotion costs
d. No need to introduce new products

c. Lower promotion costs

Which of the following is not an advantage of individual branding?
a. New products benefit from an established identity.
b. A firm can create multiple product positions.
c. A firm can attract multiple market segments.
d. Manufacturers can secure more shel

a. New products benefit from an established identity.

A new product that is a brand extension is least likely to start at which stage of the consumer's brand decision process?
a. Nonrecognition
b. Recognition
c. Insistence
d. Preference

a. Nonrecognition

For a trademark to be legally protected, it must
a. have a distinctive meaning that describes an entire product category.
b. be used only in intrastate commerce.
c. only imply characteristics that a product actually possesses.
d. be confusingly similar to

c. only imply characteristics that a product actually possesses.

Multiple packaging often
a. shortens shelf life.
b. gets a consumer to buy an assortment of items.
c. hurts a brand's image.
d. reduces consumption.

b. gets a consumer to buy an assortment of items.

The Universal Product Code
a. is readable by humans and by machines.
b. is not endorsed by any industry trade associations.
c. is only used in the food industry.
d. requires prices to be marked on merchandise. (?)

d. requires prices to be marked on merchandise.

hich of the following is not among the leading service industries in terms of revenues generated?
a. Recreation activities
b. Housing
c. Medical care
d. Transportation services

a. Recreation activities

Which of the following is part of the hidden service sector for a PC maker such as Lenovo?
a. PCs
b. PC accessories
c. PC DVD drives
d. PC repair

d. PC repair

Peripheral services
a. are the basic services that companies provide for their customers.
b. decrease a service firm's investment.
c. can be used to create and sustain a competitive advantage.
d. combine hard and soft technologies.

c. can be used to create and sustain a competitive advantage.

Which type of good is characterized by a low level of price competition?
a. Low-value-added
b. Nondurable
c. Durable
d.High-value-added

d.High-value-added

When services are classified by their degree of customer contact, they are based on
a. technical or interpersonal skill training.
b. professionals or nonprofessionals.
c. machinery or people.
d. final consumers or industrial consumers.

a. technical or interpersonal skill training.

To overcome high costs and low reliability, many firms involved in services rely on
a. computer marketing.
b. peripheral services.
c. industrialization of services.
d. hidden service sectors.

c. industrialization of services.

An example of a soft technology is the
a. electronic credit authorization system.
b. pre-packaged vacation tour.
c. muffler repair shop.
d. parking service at a hotel.

b. pre-packaged vacation tour.

Which of the following is a reason why service firms have typically lagged behind manufacturing firms in developing marketing plans?
a. Service firms do not stress technical expertise.
b. Many firms are so big that marketing is not necessary.
c. The custo

d. Strict licensing provisions sometimes limit competition and the need for marketing.

Which of the following is not a result of the Supreme Court decision that allows attorneys to advertise their services?
a. The spread of legal clinics
b. The growth of prepaid legal services
c. The decline of legal services marketing =
d. The availability

c. The decline of legal services marketing

Which of the following is often not an aspect of nonprofit marketing?
a. Relating pricing to costs
b. Being in the public interest
c. Spreading social ideas
d. Fostering a cause

a. Relating pricing to costs

A municipality developed an advertising campaign designed to increase recycling of newspapers by homeowners. This illustrates
a. sympathetic marketing.
b. superficial marketing.
c. social marketing.
d. blue marketing.

c. social marketing.

Donors
a. are those from whom nonprofit organizations receive resources.
b. are those for whom nonprofit organizations provide services.
c. do not engage in exchanges with nonprofit organizations.
d. are most likely to benefit from nonprofit organizations

a. are those from whom nonprofit organizations receive resources.

Which group is most likely to be either a client or a donor to the American Red Cross?
a. NAFTA
b. WTO
c. Hurricane victims
d. Public schools

c. Hurricane victims

College and university marketing
a. actively seeks adults.
b. ignores traditional students.
c. is confined to average-quality institutions.
d. is on the decline

a. actively seeks adults.

Which of the following has published a marketing-oriented book to enable other charitable groups to learn from it?
a. The Salvation Army
b. The Girl Scouts
c. The United Way
d. The Red Cross

c. The United Way

An example of a major product innovation is
a. the original Windows operating system for personal computers.
b. Black & Decker's current production of an electric-powered lawn mower.
c. minivan produced by Ford (based on Chrysler's success).
d. the Honda

a. the original Windows operating system for personal computers.

During which stage of the product life cycle does the average-income mass market make purchases?
a. Introduction
b. Growth
c. Maturity
d. Late majority

c. Maturity

Which of the following is a key point that should be kept in mind when using the product life cycle?
a. The shape and length of the product life cycle do not vary much by product.
b. External factors may have little impact on the performance of a product

d. It is not useful in forecasting.

A major reason for the importance of new products is to
a. increase foreign competition.
b. copy a competitor's innovation.
c. reduce dependence on one product or product line.
d. match a competitor's prices.

c. reduce dependence on one product or product line.

Although a firm made a profit with a new product, the new product's return on investment did not meet the firm's targeted level. The new product was subsequently discontinued. The product can be best classified as a(n)
a. marginal product failure. b. abso

c. relative product failure

Which of the following products evolved from laboratory-oriented sources?
a. Roll-on deodorants
b. Easy-opening soda cans c. Swiss-almond chocolate ice cream
d. Synthetic fibers

d. Synthetic fibers

Which of these is the least expensive stage in new-product development?
a. Idea generation
b. Product development
c. Test marketing
d. Commercialization

a. Idea generation

In the business analysis stage of the new-product planning process,
a. a sales forecast is important.
b. consumer acceptance is determined.
c. a prototype product is developed.
d. a brand name and product package are determined.

a. a sales forecast is important.

Which of the following is not a type of decision usually made during the product development stage?
a. Branding
b. Packaging
c. Concept testing
d. Product positioning

c. Concept testing

10. In test marketing, which of the following is determined?
a. Consumer attitudes
b. Consumer and reseller product acceptance
c. Product development costs
d. Long-term product modifications

b. Consumer and reseller product acceptance

The commercialization stage corresponds to which stage of the product life cycle?
a. Introduction
b. Growth
c. Maturity
d. Decline

a. Introduction

The rate of adoption is faster if a product
a. is incompatible with a consumer's current lifestyle.
b. is a modification.
c. has high perceived risk.
d. cannot be tried in small quantities.

b. is a modification.

In the diffusion process, laggards can be characterized as
a. opinion leaders,and high in income and status.
b. cosmopolitan, and attentive to information cues.
c. tradition bound,and conservative.
d. past middle age, and skeptics.

c. tradition bound,and conservative.

An appropriate marketing goal for a mature product is
a. maintenance of product lines.
b. expanding the market.
c. product deletion.
d. orderly withdrawal from the market.

a. maintenance of product lines.

A product should be deleted when it
a. has a poor outlook for short-run sales and profit.
b. complements other company offerings.
c. attracts a small, loyal market.
d. diverts attention from the firm's long-term goals.

d. diverts attention from the firm's long-term goals.