A PATIENT WHO HAS SHALLOW, SLOW IRREGULAR GASPOING BREATHS IS SAID TO HAVE _______________ RESPIRATIONS?
AGONAL
A PATIENT WITH MULTIPLE LONG-BONE FRACTURES OF THE EXTREMITIES SHOULD BE A HIGH PRIORITY FOR TRANSPORT AND SHOULD BE TREATED?
EN ROUTE TO THE HOSPITAL
A TEENAGE MALE HAS FALLEN ONTO A RAILING WHILE SKATEBOARDING. HE COMPLAINS OF RIGHT-SIDED CHEST PAIN AND MODERATE DYSPNEA. EXPOSURE OF THE CHEST REVEALS A SECTION OF HIS RIBS THA TIS MOVING OPPOSITE OF THE REST OF THE RIBS. YOU SHOULD?
APPLY A BULKY DRESSING OVER THE SECTION
A YOUNG FEMALE WAS INJURED IN AN AUTOMOBILE WRECK, STRIKING HER HEAD ON THE WINDSHIELD. SHE IS UNCONSCIOUS AND HER BREATHING IS IRREGULAR. SHE IS BLEEDING FROM A SCALP WOUND, BUT YOUR ASSESSMENT SHOWS THAT HER CRANIUM IS INTACT. HER VITAL SIGNS ARE PULSE
CLOSED HEAD INJURY
AFTER ACTIVATING THE AUTO-INJECTOR, HOW LONG SHOULD IT BE HELD IN PLACE BEFORE REMOVING IT FROM THE PATIENTS THIGH?
10 SECONDS
AN EMT INVOLVED IN AN ESPECIALLY DIFFICULT CALL, SUCH AS ONE IN WHICH A COWORKER WAS KILLED SHOULD BE URGED TO ....
SEEK HELP FROM A TRAINED MENTAL HEALTH PROFESSIONAL
AS YOU ARE TRANSPORTING A CONSCIOUS PATIENT YOU NOTICE THAT HIS BREATHING HAS BECOME LABORED. WHICH ACTION SHOULD YOU TAKE BASED ON THIS INFORMATION?
- NOTIFY THE RECEIVING FACILITY
- ENSURE A PATENT AIRWAY AND ADEQUATE O2
- CONTINUE REASSESSMENT
BARBITURATES MAY BE REFERRED TO AS WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING?
DOWNERS
BEFORE APPLYING A NRM, THE EMT SHOULD TAKE WHAT ACTION?
INFLATE THE RESERVOIR BAG 1/3 OF THE WAY
BURNS POSE A GREATER RISK TO INFANTS AND CHILDREN FOR WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING REASONS?
PEDIATRIC PATIENTS HAVE A GREATER RISK OF SHOCK FROM THE BURN
CARBON MONOXIDE POISONING OCCURS BY WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING ROUTES?
INHALATION
CHEMICAL COLD PACKS ARE CARRIED ON THE AMBULANCE FOR TREATMENT OF WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING?
MUSCULOSKELETAL INJURIES
DURING THE NEW EMPLOYEE ORIENTATION, THE TRAINING OFFICER MEETS WITH THE NEW EMTS AND EXPLAINS TO THEM THE MONTHLY TRAINING SCHEDULE AND THE CLASSES THEY MUST ATTEND FOR EMT RECERTIFICATION. ONE OF THE NEW EMTS ASKS THE TRAINING OFFICER WHY THEY HAVE TO K
EMS IS CONSTANTLY EVOLVING IN RESPONSE TO EVIDENCE BASED RESEARCH
EPINEPHRINE DELIVERED BY AUTO INJECTOR MAY BE INDICATED FOR PATIENTS WITH WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING CONDITIONS?
SEVERE ALLERGIES TO PEANUT, SHELLFISH, PENICILLIN, OR BEE STINGS
EXPERT CLINICIANS MAY USE DIFFERENT APPROACHES OF THINKING THROUGH PROBLEMS, BUT WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING WILL THEY HAVE IN COMMON?
STRONG FOUNDATION OF KNOWLEDGE
HOW MANY CERVICAL VERTEBRAE ARE THERE?
7
IF THE BABY'S UMBILICAL CORD IS NOTED TO BE WRAPPED AROUND HIS NECK AFTER THE HEAD IS DELIVERED, WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING SHOULD BE DONE?
TRY TO SLIP THE CORD OVER THE BABY'S HEAD AND SHOULDERS
IN ASSESSING A PATIENT'S BREATHING, WHAT IS YOUR FIRST QUESTION?
ARE THEY BREATHING?
IN REASSESSMENT, WHAT ARE THE 3 INTERVENTIONS THAT YOU AS THE EMT SHOULD CHECK?
- OXYGENATION
- BLEEDING MANAGEMENT
- ADEQUACY OF OTHER INTERVENTIONS
IN THE PRIMARY ASSESSMENT, WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT AN ACCEPTABLE METHOD OF ASSESSING THE PATIENT'S CIRCULATORY STATUS?
TAKING A BLOOD PRESSURE READING
IN WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING SITUATIONS HSOULD AN EMT WITHHOLD RESUSCITATIVE MEASURES FROM A PATIENT IN CARDIAC ARREST?
THE PATIENT'S CAREGIVER PRESENTS A DNR ORDER SIGNED BY THE PATIENT AND HIS PHYSICIAN
IN WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING ZONES IS THE EMT EXPECTED TO BE STAGES AT THE SCENE OF A HAZARDOUS MATERIALS INCIDENT?
COLD ZONE
MRS THOMAS CALLS 911 FOR HER 9 MONTH OLD BABY, ELIZA, WHO IS LISTLESS AND PALE. SHE TELLS YOU THAT THE BABY OVERSLEPT THIS MORNING AND HSE HAD A HARD TIME WAKING HER UP. MRS THOMAS IS VERY DISTRAUGHT WORRYING ABOUT THE BABY. WHAT SHOULD YOU DO NEXT?
TRY TO GET SOME CURRENT HISTORY FROM THE MOTHER
OPERATIONS OF EMERGENCY VEHICLES MUST DRIVE WITH THE SAFETY OF OTHERS IN MIND. THIS IS KNOWN AS....
DRIVING WITH DUE REGARD
REGARDING THE USE OF EMERGENCY SIRENS, WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS FALSE?
AMBULANCE OPERATIONS ARE NOT AFFECTED BY SIREN NOISE
HOW OFTEN SHOULD THE EMT REASSESS THE VITAL SIGNS OF AN UNSTABLE PATIENT?
EVERY 5 MINUTES
THE TRENDELENBURG POSITION WOULD BE USED TO TRANSPORT WHAT TYPE OF PATIENT?
A PATIENT IN SHOCK
WHAT IS THE ADEQUATE CIRCULATION OF BLOOD THROUGHOUT THE BODY, WHICH FILLS THE CAPILLARIES AND SUPPLIES THE CELLS AND TISSUES OXYGEN AND NUTRIENTS?
PERFUSION
FAINTING
SYNCOPE
THE MEDICATIONS THAT TRANSPLANT PATIENTS NEED TO TAKE FOR THE REST OF THEIR LIVES TO PREVENT ORGAN REJECTION ALSO OFTEN LEAD TO HIGH SUSCEPTIBILITY OF...
INFECTION
THE MUSCULAR ORGAN IN WHICH A BABY DEVELOPS DURING PREGNANCY?
UTERUS
THE OXYGEN FLOW RATE FOR A NASAL CANNULA SHOULD NOT EXCEED HOW MANY LPM?
6
THE PATHOPHYSIOLOGY OF __________________ IS ONE IN WHICH THE PERICARDIAL SAC FILLS WITH BLOOD TO THE POINT WHERE THE CHAMBERS OF THE HEART NO LONGER FILL ADEQUATELY, USUALLY SECONDARY TO TRAUMA.
CARDIAC TAMPONADE
THE TRANSITION FROM CHILDHOOD TO ADULT IS KNOWN AS WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING?
ADOLESCENT
TO BE COMPASSIONATE AND EMPATHETIC, TO BE ACCURATE WITH INTERVIEWS, AND ATO INSPIRE CONFIDENCE ARE ALL EXAMPLES OF WHICH OF THE PERSONAL TRAITS OF A QUALITY EMT?
ABLE TO LISTEN TO OTHERS
TO EXHALE, THE DIAPHRAGM AND INTERCOSTAL MUSCLES RELAX TO CONTRACT THE CHEST, WHICH CREATES A POSITIVE PRESSURE. THE IS WHAT TYPE OF PROCESS?
PASSIVE
TRADITIONALLY AN APGNAR SCORE IS TAKEN AT WHAT TIME INTERVALS ARE BIRTH?
1 AND 5 MINUTES
TWO CHRONIC MEDICAL CONDITIONS THAT DIALYSIS PATIENTS FREQUENTLY HAVE IN ADDITION TO KIDNEY FAILURE ARE _________ AND __________.
HYPERTENSION
DIABETES
WHAT BEST DEFINES THE EVALUATION OF THE PATIENT'S CONDITION IN ORDER TO PROVIDE EMERGENCY CARE?
PATIENT ASSESSMENT
WHAT ARE THE SIGNS OF HYPOXIA?
COMMONLY SEEN AS BLUE OR GRAY SKIN, DETERIORATION OF PATIENT'S MENTAL STATUS LIKE CONFUSION OR RESTLESSNESS
WHAT IS THE EMTS HIGHEST PRIORITY AT THE SCENE OF A HAZARDOUS MATERIALS INCIDENT?
PERSONAL SAFETY
WHAT IS ANOHER NAME FOR AN ALLERGIC REACTION?
ANAPHYLAXIS
WHAT IS THE CORRECT ORDER OF AIR FLOW FROM THE NOSE TO THE ALVEOLI IN THE LUNGS
NOSE
NASOPHARYNX
PHARYNX
HYPO PHARYNX
LARYNX
TRACHEA
BRONCHI
ALVEOLI
WHAT IS THE PRIMARY EFFECT ON THE BODY WHEN AN EMT ASSISTS A PATIENT WITH A PRESCRIBED INHALER IF THE PATIENT IS SHORT OF BREATH?
RELAXATION OF THE BRONCHIOLES
WHAT IS IT CALLED WHEN A PATIENT DESCRIBES HOW HE FEELS?
HIS SYMPTOMS
WHEN CARBON DIOXIDE IS NOT EXCHANGED, THE NET RESULT IS HIGH CARBON DIOXIDE, A CONDITION CALLED _____________, WITHIN THE BODY.
HYPERCAPNIA
WHEN CHECKING BREATH SOUNDS IN A TRAUMA PATIENT, WHAT SHOULD THE MET ASSESS FOR FIRST?
PRESENCE AND EQUALITY
WHEN CONTROLLING THE SCENE OF AN EMERGENCY INVOLVING DAMAGED POWER POLES AND DONED ELECTRICAL WIRES, THE EMT MUST REMEMBER TO:
REQUEST APPROPRIATE PERSONNEL TO CUTE THE POWER SOURCE
WHEN DOES RESPIRATORY DISTRESS CHANGE TO RESPIRATORY FAILURE?
WHEN THE RESPIRATORY CHALLENGE CONTINUES, THE SYSTEMS CANNOT KEEP UP WITH THE DEMAND, AND SKIN COLOR AND MENTAL STATUS CHANGE
WHEN GIVING A RADIO REPORT TO THE HOSPITAL, WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING SHOULD BE STATED FIRST?
THE PATIENT IS A 55 Y.O. MALE
WHEN GROSSLY DECONTAMINATING A PATIENT WHO IS NOT WEARING PPE IN A HAZARDOUS MATERIALS INCIDENT, WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING TECHNIQUES SHOULD BE USED?
TAKING A LOW PRESSURE DECONTAMINATION SHOWER
WHEN PREPARING TO MOVE A PATIENT THAT IS USING A SPECIALTY MEDICAL DEVICE FROM HIS HOUSE TO THE AMBULANCE, WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS WOULD BE APPROPRIATE TO ASK THE FAMILY?
- WHAT WORKED BEST FOR MOVING THE PATIENT THE LAST TIME HE WAS TRANSPORTED BY AMBULANCE?
- HOW DO YOU NORMALLY MOVE THE PATIENT?
WHAT DO DIALATED PUPILS LOOK LIKE?
LARGER THAN NORMAL
WHAT IS IT CALLED WHEN THE HEART CONTRACTS AND FORCES BLOOD INTO THE ARTERIES, THE PRESSURE IS CREATED?
SYSTOLIC BLOOD PRESSURE
WHEN USING THE AED, WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING PEOPLE IS RESPONSIBLE FOR CALLING TO "CLEAR" THE PATIENT BEFORE DELIVERING A SHOCK?
THE EMT OPERATING THE DEFIBRILLATOR
WHEN YOU PLACE YOUR FINGER IN AN INFANT'S PALM, SHE GRASPS IT WITH HER FINGERS. THIS IS AN EXAMPLE OF WHICH REFLEX?
PALMAR REFLEX
WHERE DO BASELINE VITAL SIGNS FIT INTO THE SEQUENCE OF PATIENT ASSESSMENT?
AT SECONDARY ASSESSMENT
WHICH ABDOMINAL QUADRANT CONTAINS THE APPENDIX?
RIGHT LOWER
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING BEST DESCRIBES STATUS EPILEPTICUS?
TWO OR MORE SEIZURES WITH TONIC CLONIC ACTIVITY WITHOUT AN INTERVENING PERIOD OF CONSCIOUSNESS
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING BEST DESCRIBES THE EMTS INTENDED ROLE IN THE IDEAL PROVISIONS OF EMERGENCY CARDIAC CARE?
EARLY DEFIBRILLATION
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING BEST DESCRIBES THE DELIVERY OF O2 AND NUTRIENTS AT THE BODY'S CELLULAR LEVEL?
PERFUSION
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING BEST DESCRIBES THE MEDICAL CONDITION OF SHOCK?
A STATE OF INADEQUATE TISSUE PERFUSION
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING BEST DESCRIBES THE PURPOSE OF THE ODERN EMERGENCY MEDICAL SERVICES (EMS) SYSTEM?
TO HAVE TRAINED PERSONNEL RESPOND QUICKLY AND PROVIDE EMERGENCY CARE ON THE SCENE, DURING TRANSPORT, AND AT THE HOSPITAL
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING CAUSES WORSENING OF THE DAMAGE IN A BRAIN INJURY?
IMPROPER MANAGEMENT OF AIRWAY AND VENTILATION
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING CHEMICAL AGENTS PROHIBITS THE USE OF OXYGEN IN THE CELLS?
CYANIDE
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING DESCRIBES AN OPEN EXTREMITY INJURY?
BONE TISSUES HAVE LACERATED FROM THE INSIDE
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING DESCRIBES THE MIDLINE OF THE BODY?
AN IMAGINARY LINE DIVIDING THE BODY INTO EQUAL RIGHT AND LEFT HALVES
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING DESCRIBES THE NORMAL APPEARANCE OF AMNIOTIC FLUID?
CLEAR AND COLORLESS FLUID
WHAT ARE THE CONSIDERATIONS FOR LIFTING?
...
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING INHALERS WOULD NOT BE USED TO REVERSE AN ASTHMA ATTACK?
BECLOMETHOSONE
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A CLASSIFICATION OF THE SEVERITY OF SHOCK?
UNCOMPENSATED
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS FALSE REGARDING THE PURPOSE OF IMMEDIATELY DOCUMENTING VITAL SIGNS ONCE THEY ARE OBTAINED?
FAILURE TO RECORD IS FALSIFYING THE RECORD
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A BENEFT OF SPLINTING AN INJURY TO BONES AND CONNECTIVE TISSUES?
RESTRICT BLOOD FLOW TO THE SITE OF INJURY TO PREVENT SWELLING
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A REASON THAT AN AED MAY INDICATE THAT THERE IS "NO SHOCK ADVISED"?
VENTRICULAR FIBRILLATION
YOU ARE TREATING A 54 Y.O. FEMALE PATIENT WHO WAS INVOLVED IN A DOMESTIC DISPUTE; YOU NOTICE AN ABRASION TO THE SIDE OF HER HEAD. THE PATIENT IS UNRESPONSIVE WITH A BLOOD PRESSURE OF 200/110, A PULSE OF 60 BEATS PER MINUTE, SLIGHTLY IRREGULAR BREATHING. T
INTERCRANIAL PRESSURE
YOU ARE TREATING A 57 Y.O. MALE FOR CHEST PAIN. YOU HAVE GATHERED ALL PERTINENT HISTORY OF PRESENT ILLNESS, COMPLETED TWO SETS OF VITALS, TALKED WITH MEDICAL DIRECTION, AND ASSISTED THE PATIENT WITH TWO DOESES OF HIS NITROGLYCERIN. DETERMINATION OF WHETHE
REASSESSMENT
YOU ARE TREATING A PATIENT WHO HAS A PRODUCTIVE COUGH AND WHO REPORTS WEIGHT LOSS, LOSS OF APPETITE, WEAKNESS, NIGHT SWEATS, AND FEVER. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING DISEASES IS MOST LIKELY THE CAUSE OF THE SE SIGNS AND SYMPTOMS?
TUBERCULOSIS
YOU ARRIVE ON THE SCENE OF THE 55 Y.O. MALE PATIENT. THE PATIENTS WIFE CALLED 911 BECAUSE HE IS HAVING CHEST PAINS. THE PATIENT IS VERY ANGRY WITH HIS WIFE FOR CALLING 911 BECAUSE HE STATES HE ONLY HAS HEARTBURN AND ADAMANTLY REFUSES ANY TREATMENT OR TRAN
PROVIDE EMERGENCY CARE UNDER IMPLIED CONSENTS
YOU FIND A TEENAGE MALE LYING SUPINE IN HIS BEDROOM. YOU HEAR GURGLING SOUNDS FROM THE PATIENT'S MOUTH AND SEE VOMIT WITH PILL FRAGMENTS ON THE FLOOR. YOU SHOULD:
SUCTION THE AIRWAY
YOU HAVE ARRIVED AT THE SCENE OF A CALL A "MAN DOWN." AS YOU ENTER THE RESIDENCE YOU NOTE THAT YOUR PATIENT IS MALE IN HIS MID-60S WHO IS AWAKE BUT DOESN NOT SEEMS TO ACKNOWLEDGE YOU PRESENCE. HE IS PERSPIRING PROFUSELY, HAS CYANOSIS OF HIS EARS AND LIPS,
CHECK FOR A RADIAL PULSE
YOU HAVE JUST ADMINISTER NITROGLYCERIN TO A 68 Y.O. PATIENT. WITHIN A FEW MINUTES, SHE COMPLAIN OF FEELING FAINT AND LIGHTHEADED, BUT STATES THAT SHE IS STILL HAVING SOME CHEST PAIN. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING WOULD BE THE BEST SEQUENCE OF ACTIONS?
LOWER THE HEAD OF THE STRETCHER AND TAKE THE PATIENTS BLOOD PRESSURE
A 5 year old boy complains of pain to the right lower quadrant of his abdomen. Correct assessment of this child's abdomen includes
palpating the left upper quadrant first
A 6 year old male, who weighs 40 pounds, ingested a bottle of aspirin approximately 20 minutes ago. Medical control orders you to administer activated charcoal in a dose of 1 g/kg. How much activated charcoal will you administer?
18 g
A 9-year-old girl was struck by a car while she was crossing the street and is displaying signs of shock. During your assessment, you note a large contusion over the left upper quadrant of her abdomen. Which of the following organs has most likely been in
Spleen
A 30 year old woman has sever lower abdominal pain and light vaginal bleeding. She tells you that her last menstrual period was 2 months ago. On the basis of these findings, you should suspect
an ectopic pregnancy
A 40-year old patient sustained full=thickness burns to the entire head, anterior chest, and both anterior upper extremities. Using the adult Rule of Nines, what percentage of the patient's body surface area has been burned?
27%
A 42- year old man was ejected from his car after it struck a bridge pillar at a high rate of speed. You find him lying approximately 50' from the car. After manually stabilizing his head, your next action should be to
grasp the angles of the jaw and lift
A 56-year old man has labored, shallow breathing at a rate of 28 breaths/min. He is conscious, but extremely restless. Airway management should consist of
positive pressure ventilation
A 56-year-old man with a history of cardiac problems reports pain in the upper midabdominal area. This region of the abdomen is called the
epigastrium
A 60-year-old woman is experiencing severe respiratory distress. When you ask her a question, she can only say two words at a time. You should manage this patient by
providing positive pressure ventilations.
A 75 year old man has generalized weakness and chest pain. He has a bottle of prescribed nitroglycerin and he states that he has not taken any of his medication. After initiating oxygen therapy, you should next
complete a focused physical examination, including obtaining baseline vital signs.
An 80-year old woman has pain in the right upper quadrant of her abdomen and a yellowish tinge to her skin. You should suspect dysfunction of the
liver
The AED analyzes your pulseless and apneic patient's cardiac rhythm and advises that a shock is indicated. You should
ensure that nobody is touching the patient
After an initial attempt to ventilate a patient fails, you reposition the patient's head and reattempt ventilation without success. You should next
initiate airway obstruction removal techniques and provide transport
After assisting a patient with her epinephrine auto-injector, you should dispose of the device by
placing the device in a puncture proof container
After removing a patient from the water, your assessment reveals that the patient is breathing inadequately and is continuously regurgitating large quantities of water. You should manage this patient by
alternating suctioining with artificial ventilations
After the delivery of the defibrillation with the AED, the patient has a return of a pulse. You should next
assess the airway and ventilatory status
As you are performing CPR on an elderly man, his wife presents you with a "do not resuscitate" order. Your most appropriate course of action is to
continue CPR until medical control is notified
As you are providing initial ventilations to a patient with apnea using a bag-valve-mask device, you note minimal rise of the chest. You should next
increase the volume of the ventilations
As you assess a 56-year old man, you note that he is pulseless and apneic. As your partner gets the AED from the ambulance, you should
perform CPR until the AED is ready to use
As you begin your assessment of an unresponsive man who fell approximately 20' from a roof, you should first
manually stabilize the patient's head and perform a jaw-thrust maneuver
As you step out of the ambulance at the scene of a nighttime motor vehicle crash on the highway, your immediate concern should be
oncoming traffic
At the peak of the inspiratory phase, the alveoli in the lungs contain
more oxygen than carbon dioxide
At the scene of a mass-casualty incident, you notice a bystander who is clearly emotionally upset. An appropriate action to take would be to
assign the bystander a simple, non-patient-care task
The automated external defibrillator (AED) should NOT be used in patients who
are apneic and have a weak carotid pulse
An awake and alert 92-year-old woman with chest pain is refusing EMS treatment and transport to the hospital. Her family insists that you transport her. This situation is most appropriately managed by
advising the patient of the risks of refusing care
A common side effect of nitroglycerin is
headache
During a bar fight, a 22-year old man was stabbed in the chest with a large knife. The patient is pulseless and apneic, and the knife is impaled in the center of his chest. management should include
removing the knife, starting CPR, and providing rapid transport
During a soccer game, an 18 year old woman injured her knee. You note that the knee is in the flexed position and is obviously deformed. Your first action should be to
manually stabilize the leg above and below the knee
During the initial assessment of a trauma patient, you note massive facial injuries, weak radial pulses, and clammy skin. What should be your most immediate concern?
Potential obstruction of the airway
During the rapid trauma assessment of a patient with multiple injuries, you expose the chest and find an open wound with blood bubbling from it. What should you do next?
Prevent air from entering the wound.
During your assessment of a 34-year old man with a gunshot wound to the chest, you note that his skin is pale. This finding is most likely caused by
decreased blood flow to the skin
During your initial assessment of an unconscious adult patient, you find the patient is apneic. You should next
deliver two rescue breaths
The effectiveness of chest compressions are most effectively assessed by
palpating for a carotid pulse with each compression
An elderly man is found unconscious in his kitchen. The patient's wife tells you that her husband has diabetes and that he took his insulin, but did not eat anything. You should suspect
hypoglycemia
An EMT-B's failure to obtain consent to treat a patient could result in allegations of
battery
Firefighters have rescued a man from his burning house. he is conscious and in considerable respiratory distress. He has a brassy cough and singed nasal hairs. The most immediate threat to this patient's life is
closure of the airway
Following an apparent febrile seizure, a 4 year old boy is alert and crying. His skin is warm and moist. The most appropriate management of this child includes
offering oxygen and providing transport
Following blunt injury to the anterior trunk, a patient is coughing up bright red blood. You should be most suspicious of
bleeding within the lungs
Following delivery of a newborn, you note that the mother has a moderate amount of vaginal bleeding. The mother is conscious and alert and her vital signs are stable. The most appropriate management of the mother includes
administering oxygen and massaging the uterus
Immediately following a generalized motor seizure, most patients are
confused
Immediately upon delivery of a newborn's head, you should first
suction the mouth
In a patient with cardiac compromise, you would be LEAST likely to encounter
headache
In addition to ensuring your own safety, your primary responsibility when functioning at the scene of a violent crime is to
appropriately manage the patient
In most states; the EMT-Basic is required to report which of the following occurrences?
Animal bite
In the patient with diabetes, hypoglycemia typically presents with
clammy skin and a rapid onset
In which of the following patients would an oropharyngeal airway be indicated?
An unconscious patient with fluid drainage from the ears
In which of the following patients would nitroglycerin be contraindicated?
53-year old male with chest discomfort, diaphoresis, a blood pressure of 146/66 mm Hg, and regular use of Cialis
Indications that artificial ventilations in an apneic adult are ineffective include
asymmetrical rise of the chest
Initial attempts at providing artificial ventilation should be accomplished using
a pocket mask with supplemental oxygen
the initial treatment of choice for ventricular fibrillation of short duration, such as a witnessed cardiac arrest is
prompt defibrillation
Management of a patient with severe abdominal pain includes
administering 100% oxygen
Management of an 18-year old woman with severe vaginal bleeding includes all of the following, EXCEPT
placing sterile dressings into the vagina
Management of an unconscious, breathing patient with a significant cardiac history would include all of the following, EXCEPT
analyzing the rhythm with an AED
A middle-aged woman has acute shortness of breath and respirations of 30 breath/min. How should you first manage this patient?
Assess respiratory quality
The middle, muscular layer of the heart is called the
myocardium
The most appropriate management of a patient who has sustained widespread full-thickness burns following an explosion should consist of applying
oxygen; dry, sterile dressings; warmth; and providing rapid transport
The most effective means of preventing the spread of disease is
effective handwashing
The most effective method for determining whether you are providing adequate artificial ventilation is
assessing the chest for adequate rise
the most important initial steps of assessing and managing a newborn include
clearing the airway and keeping the infant warm
Patients with closed head injuries often have pupillary changes and
hypertension
The position of comfort for a patient with nontraumatic chest pain most commonly is
semisitting
Prescribed inhalers, such as albuterol (Ventolin), relieve respiratory distress by
relaxing the smooth muscle of the bronchioles.
Prevention of cardiac arrest in infants and small children should focus primarily on
providing airway management
Prior to administering nitroglycerin to a patient with chest pain, you must
contact medical control and obtain proper authorization
Prior to applying a nonrebreathing mask on a patient with difficult breathing you should
prefill the reservoir bag to ensure delivery of 100% oxygen
Prior to your arrival at the scene, a near-drowning victim was removed from the water. You should manage the patient's airway appropriately while considering the possibility of
spinal injury
Pulmonary surfactant serves which of the following functions?
It facilitates the transport of oxygen-poor blood from the right ventricle to the lungs.
The scene size up includes all of the following components, EXCEPT
applying personal protective gear
A set of regulations and ethical considerations that define the extent or limits of an EMT-Basic's job is called
scope of practice
Signs of inadequate breathing in an unconscious patient include
a rapid respiratory rate
Snoring respirations are most rapidly managed by
correctly positioning the head
A soft-tissue injury that results in a flap of torn skin is referred to as
an avulsion
A sudden onset of respiratory distress in a 5 year old child with no fever most likely is the result of
obstruction of the airway by a foreign body
To ensure delivery of the highest concentration of oxygen to your patient using a nonrebreathing mask, you should
make sure that the reservoir bag is pre inflated
To obtain the most reliable assessment of a patient's tidal volume, you should
look at the rise of the chest
Unconsciousness, shallow breathing, and constricted pupils are most indicative of what type of drug overdose?
Narcotic
Upon arriving at the scene of a multiple vehicle crash, you can see that at least two patients have been ejected from their vehicles. What should you do next?
Call for at least one more ambulance
Upon delivery of a baby's head, you see that the umbilical cord is wrapped around its neck. You should manage this situation initially by
trying to remove the cord from around the neck.
The wall that separates the left and right sides of the heart is the
septum
When assessing a patient with a complaint of chest pain, which of the following questions would you ask to assess the R in OPQRST?
Is the pain in one place or does it move around?
When assessing a patient with a reduction in tidal volume, you would expect the respirations to be
shallow
When dealing with an emotionally disturbed patient, you should be concerned with
whether the patient could harm you
When is it most appropriate to clamp and cut the umbilical cord?
As soon as the cord stops pulsating
When is the best time to perform a detailed physical examination?
While enroute to the hospital
When monitoring a patient with a head injury, the most reliable indicator of his or her condition is the
level of consciousness
Which artery should you palpate when assessing for a pulse in an unresponsive 6-month old patient?
Brachial
Which of the following actions is most important when immobilizing a patient with a suspected spinal injury?
Select and apply the appropriate size of extrication collar.
Which of the following actions should be carried out during the initial assessment of an unconscious patient?
Assessing the skin
Which of the following actions would most likely cause a sudden drop in a patient's blood glucose level?
Taking too much prescribed insulin
Which of the following assessment findings would LEAST suggest cardiac compromise?
Palpable pain to the chest
Which of the following assessment findings would most suggest a systemic reaction following ingestion of a poison?
Tachycardia and hypotension
Which of the following bones is affected with a swollen, painful deformity to the lateral bone of the left forearm?
Radius
Which of the following conditions would most likely cause flushed skin?
Exposure to heat
Which of the following describe the MOST appropriate method of performing chest compressions on an adult patient in cardiac arrest?
Compress the chest to a depth of 1 1/2" to 2", allow full recoil of the chest after each compression, minimize interruptions in chest compressions
Which of the following describes the most correct method for inserting a nasopharyngeal airway
Insert the device with the bevel facing the septum
Which of the following injuries or conditions should be managed first?
Bleeding within the oral cavity
Which of the following mechanisms cause respiratory and circulatory collapse during anaphylactic shock?
Bronchoconstriction and vasodilation
Which of the following natures of illness is most consistent with a patient with low blood glucose level who is acting bizarre and breathing shallowly?
Altered mental status
Which of the following organs is not part of the endocrine system?
Gallbladder
Which of the following parameters would be most reliable as an indicator of perfusion in a 1 year old child?
capillary refill
Which of the following patients with diabetes should receive oral glucose?
A confused patient who has cool, clammy skin
Which of the following patients would be at most risk for suicide?
A man who is in the midst of losing a significant relationship
Which of the following patients would be most in need of a rapid trauma assessment?
an awake and alert 19-year-old man with a small caliber gunshot wound to the abdomen
Which of the following patients would MOST likely present with atypical signs and symptoms of acute myocardial infarction?
72-year old female with diabetes and hypertension
Which of the following signs would LEAST suggest a diabetic emergency?
Bradycardia
Which of the following situations is an example of abandonment?
A first responder assumes patient care from an EMT-Intermediate
Which of the following situations would necessitate treatment using implied consent?
A 65-eyar old man who is semiconscious and suspected of having a severe stroke
Which of the following statements best describes a mass-casualaty incident?
The number of patients overwhelms your resources
Which of the following statements regarding the function of insulin is most correct?
It facilitates the uptake of glucose from the bloodstream into the cell.
Which of the following structures is the primary pacemaker, which sets the normal rate for the heart?
Sinoatrial node
Which position is most appropriate for a mother in labor with a prolapsed umbilical cord?
Supine with hips elevated
Which vital sign is the best indicator of cardiac output during the initial assessment?
Pulse rate and quality
While a man was using a chainsaw to trim branches from a tree, it slipped and caused a large laceration to his left forearm. Bright red blood is spurting from the wound. The patient is conscious, alert, and talking. You should first
control the active bleeding
While assessing a patient with chest pain, you note that the patient's pulse is irregular. This most likely indicates
abnormalities in the heart's electrical conduction system
While managing a patient in cardiac arrest, you turn the AED on and attach the pads to the patient. When you push the analyze button, the machine signals "low battery" and then ceases to function. The patient subsequently dies. Which of the following stat
You and your partner may be held liable for negligence.
While managing a patient with acute shortness of breath, you prepare and apply a nonrebreathing mask set at 12 L/min. The patient pulls the mask away from his face, stating that it is smothering him. You should next
reassure the patient and apply a nasal cannula instead
You are administering oxygen to a woman with asthma who took two puffs of her prescribed inhaler without relief prior to your arrival. Your next action should be to
contact medical control for further advice
You are at the scene where a man panicked while swimming in a small lake. As you attempt to rescue this patient, you should first
throw a rope to the patient
You are called to a local park for a 7-year old boy with respiratory distress. During your assessment, you find that the patient is wheezing and has wide-spread hives and facial edema. What should you suspect has occurred?
allergic reaction
You are called to treat a male patient who overdosed on heroin and and is unconscious with shallow breathing and cyanosis to the face. The patient suddenly begins to vomit. What should you do first?
Turn the patient onto his side.
You are dispatched to the scene of a motorcycle crash in which two patients were injured. Upon arrival, you find that one patient, a 19-year-old woman, is conscious and alert and is being tended to by a police officer for minor scrapes and cuts. The secon
stabilize his head manually
You are dispatched to the scene of a motorcycle crash in which two patients were injured. Upon arrival, you find that one patient, a 19-year-old woman, is conscious and alert and is being tended to by a police officer for minor scrapes and cuts. The secon
advise the patient that she should be transported to the hospital because of the seriousness of the crash
You are dispatched to the scene of a motorcycle crash in which two patients were injured. Upon arrival, you find that one patient, a 19-year-old woman, is conscious and alert and is being tended to by a police officer for minor scrapes and cuts. The secon
palpable pain at the site of the injury.
You are dispatched to the scene of a motorcycle crash in which two patients were injured. Upon arrival, you find that one patient, a 19-year-old woman, is conscious and alert and is being tended to by a police officer for minor scrapes and cuts. The secon
repeat the initial assessment and treat as needed
You are dispatched to the scene of a motorcycle crash in which two patients were injured. Upon arrival, you find that one patient, a 19-year-old woman, is conscious and alert and is being tended to by a police officer for minor scrapes and cuts. The secon
Perform a rapid trauma assessment
You are managing a conscious patient who you believe is having an acute ischemic stroke. After administering oxygen, your next priority should include:
providing prompt transport for possible fibrinolytic therapy.
You are responding to a call for a 2 year old child who fell from a second story window. With the mechanism of injury and the age of the patient in mind, you should suspect that the primary injury occurred to the child's
head
You arrive at a residence where you find a man lying unconscious in his front yard. There were no witnesses to the event that caused the unconsciousness. In assessing this man, you must assume that he
has sustained an injury
You arrive at the scene shortly after a 3-year old female experienced a seizure. The child, who is being held by her mother, is conscious and crying. The mother tells you that her daughter has been ill recently and has a temperature of 102.5 degrees F. Wh
Oxygen via the blow-by technique, remove clothing and cool the child with towels soaked in tepid water, and transport.
You arrive at the scene shortly after a 55-year-old man collapsed. Two bystanders are performing CPR. The man's wife states that he had cardiac by-pass surgery approximately 6 months earlier. There are no signs of trauma. After you attach the AED and anal
Ventricular fibrillation
You arrive at the scene shortly after a 55-year-old man collapsed. Two bystanders are performing CPR. The man's wife states that he had cardiac by-pass surgery approximately 6 months earlier. There are no signs of trauma. Cardiac arrest in the adult popul
cardiac arrhythmias
You arrive at the scene shortly after a 55-year-old man collapsed. Two bystanders are performing CPR. The man's wife states that he had cardiac by-pass surgery approximately 6 months earlier. There are no signs of trauma. Your first action in the manageme
stop CPR so you can assess pulse and breathing
You arrive at the scene where a 49 year old woman is found semiconscious on the floor of her living room. The patient's husband tells you that they were watching TV when this condition suddenly developed. No trauma was involved. The patient moans occasion
decreased tidal volume
You arrive at the scene where a 49 year old woman is found semiconscious on the floor of her living room. The patient's husband tells you that they were watching TV when this condition suddenly developed. No trauma was involved. The patient moans occasion
a decrease in the amount of arterial oxygen
You arrive at the scene where a 49 year old woman is found semiconscious on the floor of her living room. The patient's husband tells you that they were watching TV when this condition suddenly developed. No trauma was involved. The patient moans occasion
assisted ventilations with 100% oxygen
You arrive at the scene where a 49 year old woman is found semiconscious on the floor of her living room. The patient's husband tells you that they were watching TV when this condition suddenly developed. No trauma was involved. The patient moans occasion
insert a nasopharyngeal airway
You assess a newborn with cyanosis to the chest and face and a heart rate of 90 beats/min. What should you do next?
Begin artificial ventilations
You have applied a pressure bandage and additional dressings to a large laceration with severe arterial bleeding. The bandages are quickly blood-soaked. You should next
remove the bandages and apply pressure at the site of the bleeding
You have completed your prehospital care report and left a copy at the hospital when you realize that you forgot to document a pertinent finding on the front of the report. Your most appropriate action would be to
attach an addendum to the original run report
you receive a call for a 3 year old girl with respiratory distress. When you enter her residence, you see the mother holding the little girl, who does not acknowledge your presence. This finding indicates that the child
has hypoxia
You receive a call to a local daycare center for a 3-year old boy who is not breathing. When you arrive and assess the child, you find him to be in cardiopulmonary arrest. You initiate CPR and request a back-up ambulance. A paramedic unit arrives at the s
8 to 10 breaths/min
You receive a call to a local daycare center for a 3-year old boy who is not breathing. When you arrive and assess the child, you find him to be in cardiopulmonary arrest. You initiate CPR and request a back-up ambulance. After attaching the AED, you push
immediately perform CPR
You receive a call to a local daycare center for a 3-year old boy who is not breathing. When you arrive and assess the child, you find him to be in cardiopulmonary arrest. You initiate CPR and request a back-up ambulance. As you are performing one-rescuer
30:2
You receive a call to a local daycare center for a 3-year old boy who is not breathing. When you arrive and assess the child, you find him to be in cardiopulmonary arrest. You initiate CPR and request a back-up ambulance. In infants and children, the most
decreased ventilatory volume
You receive a call to a restaurant where a 34 year old man is experiencing shortness of breath. When you arrive you immediately note that the man has urticaria on his face and arms. He is in obvious respiratory distress, but is awake and alert.
Epinephrin
As a bronchodilator, it facilitates adequate breathing
You receive a call to a restaurant where a 34 year old man is experiencing shortness of breath. When you arrive you immediately note that the man has urticaria on his face and arms. He is in obvious respiratory distress, but is awake and alert.
Suspecting
place a nonrebreathing mask set at 15 L/min on the patient.
You receive a call to a restaurant where a 34 year old man is experiencing shortness of breath. When you arrive you immediately note that the man has urticaria on his face and arms. He is in obvious respiratory distress, but is awake and alert.
the patien
provide transport and consider an ALS rendezvous
You respond to a call for a shooting at a local bar. You arrive at the scene and find a young man sitting against the wall, screaming in pain, with bright red blood spurting from a wound near his groin. What should you do first?
Apply pressure to the wound
you should suspect potential abuse of a 4 year old child when you encounter
purple and yellow bruises to the thighs
Your first action in managing a patient with an altered mental status should be to
make sure that the patient is breathing adequately
_______OVERDOSE IS NOT ASSOCIATED WITH HYPERVENTILATION
NARCOTIC OD
_____MY BE THE LAST MEASURABLE FACTOR TO CHANGE IN SHOCK
BLOOD PRESSURE
THE ____OF A BULLET HAS THE GREATEST IMPACT ON PRODUCING INJURY
SPEED
THE ACTUAL EXCHANGE OF 02 AND C02 OCCURS IN THE
ALVEOLAR SACS
THE PROCESS OF BINDING OR STICKING TO A SURGACE (ACTIVATED CHARCOAL)
ADSORPTION
AN AED DELIVERS PROMPT DEFIBRILLATION TO PATIENTS WITH
VENTRICULAR FIBRILLATION
AFTER ASSISTING WITH NITRO...
REASSESS BP WITHIN 5 MINS TO DETECT HYPOTENSION
AMI OCCURS WHEN
MYOCARDIAL TISSUE DIES SECONDARY TO AN ABSENCE OF OXYGEN
AMNIOTIC FLUID SERVES TO
INSULATE AND PROTECT THE FETUS
ANAPHYLAXIS IS CHARACTERIZED BY AIRWAY______ AND ____TENSION
SWELLING
HYPO
AREAS OF THE SPINE IN DESCENDING ORDER
-CERVICAL
-THORACIC
-LUMBAR
-SACRAL
-COCCYX
SMALLER VESSELS THAT CARRY BLOOD AWAY FROM THE HEART AND CONNECT THE ARTERIES TO THE CAPILLARIES
ARTERIOLES
AS A TRIAGE SUPERVISOR, YOU:
MUST NOT BEGIN TREATMENT UNTIL ALL PATIENTS HAVE BEEN TRIAGED
AS A WOMAN APPROACHES MENOPAUSE
HER MENSTRUAL PERIODS BECOME IRREGULAR AND VARY IN SEVERITY
AT THE ONSET OF AN ACUTE ASTHMA ATTACK, PATIENTS COMMONLY EXPERIENCE DIFFICULTY BREATHING AND
EXPIRATORY WHEEZING
NARROWING OF THE CORONARY ARTERIES DUE TO A BUILDUP OF FATTY DEPOSITS
ATHEROSCLEROSIS
AN INJURY THAT SEPARATES VARIOUS LAYERS OF SOFT TISSUE, RESULTING IN COMPLETE DETACHMENT OR A FLAP OF SKIN
AVULSION
THE AXIAL SKELETON IS COMPOSED OF THE...
-SKULL
-FACE
-THORAX
-VERTEBRAL COLUMN
BLEEDING FROM SOFT-TISSUE INJURIES TO THE FACE IS MOST EFFECTIVELY CONTROLLED WITH
DIRECT PRESSURE USING DRY, STERILE DRESSINGS
BRUISING TO THE RIGHT UPPER QUADRANT OF THE ABDOMEN FOLLOWING BLUNT TRAUMA IS MOST SUGGESTIVE OF INJURY TO
THE LIVER
CAPILLARY REFILL TIME IN AN INFANT
2 SECONDS
CARDIAC ARREST IN PEDIATRIC PATIENTS IS MOST COMMONLY THE RESULT OF
RESPIRATORY OR CIRCULATORY FAILURE
THE CERVICAL SPINE IS COMPOSED OF ___ VERTEBRAE
SEVEN (7)
IRREGULAR RESPIRATIONS CHARACTERIZED BY AN INCREASING RATE AND DEPTH OF BREATHING FOLLOWED BY PERIODS OF APNEA
CHEYNE-STOKES RESPIRATIONS
CIRCULAR MUSCULAR WALLS THAT REGULATE BLOOD FLOW THROUGH THE CAPILLARIES
CAPILLARY SPHINCTERS
COOL, CLAMMY SKIN
WEAKNESS
TACHYCARDIA
RAPID RESPIRATIONS ARE
CLASSIC SIGNS OF HYPOGLYCEMIA
IRREGULAR HEARTBEAT
SUDDEN UNEXPLAINED SWEATING
SHORTNESS OF BREATH / DYSPNEA
COMMON SIGN OF AMI
COMPARED TO AN ADULT, THE DIAPHRAM DICTATES THE AMOUNT OF AIR A CHILD INSPIRES BECAUSE
INTERCOSTAL MUSCLES ARE NOT WELL DEVELOPED
CONTRAINDICATION OF ADMINISTERING NITROGLYCERIN
SYSTOLIC BP IS LESS THAN 100MM HG
CONTRAINDICATIONS FOR ADMINISTERING ACTIVATED CHARCOAL
-INABILITY TO SWALLOW
-UNCONSCIOUS
-INGESTION OF ALKALI OR CAUSTIC MATERIAL
CORRECT DOSE OF EPINEPHRINE IN AN ADULR AUTO-INJECTOR
.3 MG
DEOXYGENATED BLOOD FROM THE BODY RETURNS TO THE
RIGHT ATRIUM
DETERMINING FREQUENCY OF LABOR CONTRACTIONS- TIME THE CONTRACTIONS FROM THE:
START OF ONE TO THE START OF THE NEXT
DIABETIC COMA
HYPERGLYCEMIA" COOL, CLAMMY SKIN
DISINFECTION IS MOST ACCURATELY DEFINED AS
KILLING PATHOGENIC AGENTS WITH A CHEMICAL MADE FOR THAT PURPOSE
DISLOCATION
DISRUPTION OF A JOING IN WHICH THE BONE ENDS ARE NO LONGER IN CONTACT
DISTRIBUTIVE SHOCK OCCURS WHEN
WIDESPREAD DILATION OF THE BLOOD VESSELS CAUSES BLOOD TO POOL IN THE VASCULAR BEDS
DOSE OF ACTIVATED CHARCOAL
1 GRAM FOR 1 KG OF BODYWEIGHT
DOSE OF ASPIRIN FOR CHEST PAIN
162-324 MG
DURING TRUE LABOE, UTERINE CONTRACTIONS....
BECOME MORE REGULAR
ECLAMPSIA
SEIZURES THAT RESULT FROM SEVERE HYPERTENSION
EPINEPHRINE IS INDICATED FOR PATIENTS WITH AN ALLERGIC REACTION WHEN _____ AND _____ ARE PRESENT
WHEEZING AND
HYPOTENSION
THE EXCHANGE OF O2 AND NUTRIENTS FOR WASTE PRODUCTS OF METABOLISM OCCURS AT THE CELLULAR LEVEL IN THE....
CAPILLARIES
EXTERNAL BLEEDING FROM A VEIN IS RELATIVELY EASY TO CONTROL BECAUSE
VEINS ARE UNDER A LOWER PRESSURE
THE EYEBALL ITSELF IS REFERRED TO AS
GLOBE
FUNCTION OF PLATELETS
FORMATION OF BLOOD CLOTS
GIVEN FOR CARDIAC-RELATED CHEST PAIN, __________ RELAXES THE WALLS OF THE CORONARY ARTERIES
NITROGLYCERIN
GOAL OF THE PRIMARY ASSESSMENT
IDENTIFY AND RAPIDLY TREAT ALL LIFE-THREATENING CONDITIONS
HEATSTROKE OCCURS WHEN
THE BODY'S HEAT-ELIMINATING MECHANISMS ARE OVERWHELMED AND CAN NO LONGER SWEAT
HEROIN IS AN EXAMPLE OF AN
OPIOID
HYPOTENSION IN A CHILD WITH BLUNT OR PENETRATING TRAUME OFTEN INDICATES:
THE LOSS OF HALF OF HIS/HER BLOOD VOLUME (THIS IS A LATE STAGE OF SHOCK)
HYPOTHERMIA OCCURS WHEN THE CORE BODY TEMP FALLS BELOW
95 F, 35 C
IN AN ADULT, BRADYCARDIA IS DEFINED AS
A PULSE RATE LESS THAN 60 BEATS/MIN
IN AN ADULT, TACHYCARDIA IS DEFINED AS
A HEART RATE GREATER THAN 100 BEATS/MIN
IN INFANTS AND CHILDREN, CAP REFILL GREATER THAN 2 SECS IS A SIGN OF
POOR PERIPHERAL PERFUSION
IN RESPONSIVE PATIENTS THAT ARE OLDER THAN 1, PALPATE THE PULSE AT THE _____ARTERY
RADIAL
INJURY TO A HOLLOW ORGAN WOULD MOST LIKELY RESULT IN
LEAKAGE OF CONTENTS INTO THE ABDOMINAL CAVITY
INSULIN SHOCK OCCURS IF
PATIENT TAKES TOO MUCH OF HIS PRESCRIBED INSULIN
ISCHEMIC HEART DISEASE
DECREASED BLOOD FLOW TO ONE OR MORE PORTIONS OF THE MYOCARDIUM
KUSSMAUL RESPIRATIONS ARE AN INDICATION THAT THE BODY IS..
ATTEMPTING TO ELIMINATE ACIDS FROM THE BODY
LEAF-SHAPED STRUCTURE LOCATED SUPERIOR TO THE LARYNX
EPIGLOTTIS
THE LEAST PRACTICAL PLACE TO STORE A PORTABLE OXYGEN CYLINDER IS:
IN THE DRIVER'S COMPARTMENT
THE MAJORITY OF A HORIZONTAL PATIENT'S WEIGHT IS IN THE
TORSO
THE MANNER IN WHICH THE EMT MUST ACT OR BEHAVE WHEN CARING FOR A PATIENT
STANDARD OF CARE
MAXIMUM DOSES FOR NITRO
3 DOSES
THE MOST APPROPRIATE LOCATION TO PARK YOUR AMBULANCE AT A HAZMAT INCIDENT IS:
UPWIND AT LEAST 100' AND UPHILL AT LEAST 25' FROM THE INCIDENT SITE
THE MOST SIGNIFICANT COMPLICATION ASSOCIATED WITH OROPHARYNGEAL SUCTIONING IS
HYPOXIA DUE TO PROLONGED SUCTION ATTEMPTS
THE MUSCULOSKELETAL SYSTEM
BONES AND VOLUNTARY MUSCLES
NARCAN IS ADMINISTERED BY THE EMT-B VIA:
AUTOMIZER
NEUROGENIC SHOCK OCCURS WHEN
FAILURE OF THE NERVOUS SYSTEM CAUSES WIDESPREAD VASODILATION
NITROGLYCERIN RELIEVES CARDIAC-RELATED CHEST PAIN BY
DILATING CORONARY ARTERIES AND IMPROVING CARDIAC BLOOD FLOW
NORMAL BLOOD GLUCOSE LEVEL
BETWEEN 80 AND 120 MG/DL
NORMAL RESPIRATORY RATE FOR AN ADULT
12 TO 20 BREATHS PER MINUTE
NORMAL SKIN COLOR, TEMP AND CONDITION
PINK, WARM AND DRY
OCCURS WHEN ORGANS PROTRUDE THROUGH AN OPEN WOUND
ABDOMINAL EVISCERATION
OPEN PNEUMOTHORAX OCCURS WHEN
AIR ENTERS THE PLEURAL SPACE FROM OUTSIDE THE BODY
OSTEOPOROSIS
DECREASE IN BONE MASS AND DENSITY
AN OXYGEN TANK SHOULD BE TAKEN OUT OF SERVICE AND REFILLED WHEN THE PRESSURE INSIDE IS LESS THAN
LESS THAN 500 PSI
A PATIENT WHO IS SWEATING PROFUSELY IS REFERRED TO AS BEING
DIAPHORETIC
PATIENTS WITH RIB FRACTURES WILL COMMONLY (BREATHE)
RAPIDLY AND SHALLOWLY
PEDIATRIC DOSE OF EPINEPHRINE
.15 MG
PERFUSTION
CIRCULATION OF BLOOD WITHIN AN ORGAN IN ADEQUATE AMOUNTS TO MEET THE BODY'S METABOLIC NEEDS
PERITONITIS USUALLY OCCURS WHEN
HOLLOW ABDOMINAL ORGANS SPILL THEIR CONTENTS
PID DOES NOT TYPICALLY AFFECT THE
URINARY BLADDER
THE PRIMARY FUNCTION OF THE RIGHT ATRIUM IS TO...
RECEIVE BLOOD FROM THE VENA CAVA
PLACENTA
ALLOWS 02, CO2, AND OTHER PRODUCTS TO TRANSFER BETWEEN MOTHER AND FETUS BUT DOES NOT ALLOW THEIR BLOOD TO MIX
POSITIVE INDICATORS OF A FRACTURE
CREPITUS AND FALSE MOTION
PULMONARY EDEMA AND IMPAIRED VENTILATION OCCUR DURING WHICH TYPE OF SHOCK?
CARDIOGENIC SHOCK
QUID PRO QUO
TYPE OF SEXUAL HARASSMENT, WHEN HARASSER REQUEST SEXUAL FAVORS IN EXCHANGE FOR SOMETHING ELSE
SHOCK IS THE RESULT OF
HYPOPERFUSION TO THE CELLS OF THE BODY
SKELETAL MUSCLE IS ALSO CALLED
VOLUNTARY MUSCLE
SOLID ABDOMINAL ORGANS INCLUDE THE
SPLEEN
KIDNEYS
PANCREAS
THE SPINAL CORD EXITS THE CRANIUM THROUGH THE
FORAMEN MAGNUM
SPLEEN
ASSISTS IN BLOOD FILTRATION, SERVES AS A BLOOD RESERVOIR, AND PRODUCES ANTIBODIES
STRIDOR
HARSH, HIGH-PITCHED INSPIRATORY SOUNDS IN THE UPPER AIRWAY
SUCCESSFUL TREATMENT OF A STROKE DEPENDS ON:
WHETHER THROMBOLYTIC THERAPY IS GIVEN WITHIN 3 HOURS AFTER SYMPTOM ONSET
SUPINE HYPOTENSIVE SYNDROME
THE PREGNANT UTERUS COMPRESSES THE INFERIOR VENA CAVA
SYNCOPE IN OLDER PATIENTS IS CAUSED BY
INTERRUPTION OF BLOOD FLOW TO THE BRAIN
SYSTOLIC PRESSURE
THE PRESSURE EXERTED AGAINST THE WALLS OF THE ARTERY WHEN THE LEFT VENTRICLE CONTRACTS
THREE MAJOR PARTS OF THE BRAIN
CEREBRUM
CEREBELLUM
BRAIN STEM
TREATMENT FOR JELLYFISH STING
IRRIGATING WOUND WITH VINEGAR AND IMMERSING HIS LEG IN HOT WATER
A TUBE FROM THE BRAIN TO THE ABDOMEN THAT DRAINS EXCESSIVE CS FLUID
SHUNT
TWO MOST COMMON SIGNS OF ANAPHYLAXIS
WHEEZING
URTICARIA (HIVES)
TWO WAYS OUR BODY ELIMINATES HEAT
SWEATING
DILATION OF SKIN BLOOD VESSELS
TYPE 1 DIABETES
CONDITION IN WHICH NO INSULIN IS PRODUCED BY THE BODY
USUAL DOSE OF ACTIVATED CHARCOAL MAXIMUM ADULTS AND PEDIATRIC
PEDIATRIC- UP TO 25 GRAMS
ADULT- UP TO 50 GRAMS
THE VOCAL CORDS ARE LOCATED IN THE
LARYNX
WHAT ACTIVITIES OCCUR IN THE "WARM ZONE"?
DECONTAMINATION
WHAT CAN CAUSE THE PUPILS TO REMAIN SIGNIFICANTLY CONSTRICTED?
OVERDOSE OF AN OPIATE DRUG
WHAT IS THE TYPICAL FUNCTION OF THE RESCUE TEAM?
TO PROVIDE SAFE ENTRY AND ACCESS TO PATIENTS
WHAT PHYSIOLOGIC ACTIONS DOES EPINEPHRINE PRODUCE WHEN GIVEN FOR AN ALLERGIC REACTION?
VASOCONSTRICTION
BRONCHODILATION
WHAT RESPONSIBILITY/DUTY DOES NOT FALL WITHIN THE REALM OF THE MEDICAL BRANCH OF THE ICS?
EXTRICATION
WHICH COMPONENTS ARE NEEDED TO PROVE NEGLIGENCE?
-DUTY TO ACT
-BREACH OF DUTY
-INJURY/DAMAGES
-CAUSATION
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING MEDICATION ROUTES HAS THE SLOWEST RATE OF ABSORPTION?
ORAL
abdominal thrusts
A four-year-old male patient has just swallowed a marble in front of you, which has caused a complete (severe) airway obstruction. Your immediate care should include:
pulling the object out in the direction it entered the cheek
Care for the patient with an impaled object in the cheek includes:
sucking chest wound
An open wound to the chest that allows air to pass through it, causing shortness of breath and bubbling of blood around the wound, is called a:
immobilizing the injury site and the joints above and below it
4. General rules of immobilization of extremity injuries include:
capillary refill
One of the most reliable signs of decreased perfusion in the pediatric patient is
The cause of febrile seizures in children is:
a rapid rise in temperature
Your unit has arrived on the scene of a private residence where the scene is determined to be safe. According to the parent who meets you at the door her six-year-old son may have taken a handful of pills, thinking they were candy. To treat the child who
activated charcoal
Which of the following patient care equipment should be carried in various sizes (such as pediatric, adult, etc.)?
bag mask devices
The ambulance vehicle should be regularly inspected. Inspections done while the ambulance engine is turned off include
the level of coolant/antifreeze and the pressure cap indicator
Most states allow ambulances responding to emergencies with lights and sirens to disregard certain traffic laws. The emergency vehicle operator
can exceed the posted speed limit as long as life or property is not endangered.
Ground gradient is electricity spreading out from a power line touching the ground. If you feel a tingling sensation in your legs you should
hop to a safe place on one foot.
Information you should report back to dispatch about the scene size-up of an MCI includes all of the following, except
the destination hospital of all patients
The area of the spine that is the least susceptible to injury would be the _________ spine
thoracic
The nerves that control the involuntary functions of digestion, the bowels, and the bladder are part of the _____________ nervous system
autonomic
You are on the scene of a 58-year-old male patient who collapsed in the bathroom at a local resturant. Bystanders determined he had no signs of circulation so they started CPR. After delivering your first shock with an AED, if the patient is still pulsele
perform two minutes of CPR and reassess
The four types of poison classifications include ____ poisons
inhaled
Modern treatment of poisonings and overdoses consists primarily of all the following, except
administration of an antidote
The exchange area where oxygen and nutrients from the mother's bloodstream are carried across to the fetus is called the
placenta
Delivery of the baby may be imminent when the mother's contractions:
last 30 seconds to 1 minute, and are 2 to 3 minutes apart
A prolapsed umbilical cord, when the cord is pinched between the vaginal wall and presenting part of the baby, is handled by
inserting several fingers into the mother's vagina and gently pushing the presenting part off the cord.
Which of the following is true regarding miscarriages and abortions?
The miscarriage is commonly considered spontaneous, and the abortion induced
Of the three major types of blood vessels, the vessels that carry blood away from the heart are called
arteries
The abbreviation NKDA means
no known drug allergies
The abbreviation STAT means
immediately
The main components of an adult's vital signs include assessment of breathing, skin, pupils, blood pressure, and
pulse
Which artery should be checked first by a healthcare provider for a pulse in the unresponsive infant?
Brachial
The skin should be assessed for
color, temperature, and condition.
In a dark room, the normal pupil should
dilate
What is body mechanics?
Methods developed for the proper positioning of the patient during lifting and moving operations
Which of the following moves is not considered an emergency move?
rapid extrication
The vocal cords are found in the
larynx
Your unit is on the scene of a 28-year-old male who was found by a coworker unconscious at his desk. Once you assure the scene is safe you begin your initial assessment. Which airway maneuver should be used to open the airway of an adult without suspected
head tilt/chin lift
You are treating a 39-year-old female who had an apparent seizure. She has a lot of secretions and foam around her mouth and nose, so you decide to suction her. What body substance isolation precautions should be used during suctioning?
gloves, mask, and eye protection
Irritability with co-workers, inability to concentrate, indecisiveness, loss of appetite, or isolation, are all warning signs of:
stress
One of the best techniques to use when working with death and dying is to just
listen
A mask should be worn by the EMT-Basic to prevent the spread of disease
during bleeding control
When delivering artificial ventilations to an adult patient using a pocket mask, it is important to
take a deep breath and slowly ventilate over 1 1/2 to 2 seconds
The preferred method of inserting an oropharyngeal airway in a child is
using a tongue depressor to press the tongue down while inserting the airway.
When your unconscious patient needs to be suctioned, due to a collection of secretions that are accumulating in his mouth, you should utilize a rigid tip (Yankauer) whenever possible. If you only have a flexible catheter to suction with remember to
never lose sight of the tip
Your unit is dispatched to a call for a victim of an assault in a local bar. As you call for the police to respond, you review in your mind the steps of the scene size-up. All the following are elements of a scene size-up, except
patient transport priority decision
The patient carrying device most commonly used for removing patients from vehicles is the
KED
In the term SAMPLE history, each letter stands for an element of the history. Which of the following is NOT one of those elements?
Length of illness
Blood in the ventricle is prevented from being forced back up into the atrium when the ventricle contracts by:
a one-way valve between the atrium and the ventricle.
Your unit has just arrived on the scene of a 34-year-old male patient who was found by a co-worker at the base of the stairwell. He states the patient has not been responding for the past 20 minutes. You assume that an unconscious medical patient would gi
implied
Guidelines that define the extent and limits of the job the EMT-Basic does are referred to as:
the scope of practice
The elbow is____to the shoulder since it is farther from the torso than the shoulder
distal
Forcing a competent patient to go to the hospital against his will may result in being charged with
assault and battery
Your unit is on the scene of a 68-year-old male patient who is complaining of a tearing sensation in his abdomen. He has a history of hypertension and you find there is a mass in his abdomen, which has a pulse. A weakened section of an arterial wall that
aneurysm
A patient with cardiac compromise should be transported immediately if he has:
no history of cardiac problems
Common symptoms of a patient in cardiac compromise include
difficulty breathing
A diastolic blood pressure greater than 90 mmHg is considered:
hypertension
Some patients complain of irregular or rapid heartbeats that they can feel as a fluttering sensation in the chest. This is called:
palpitations
When an asthma attack occurs:
stale air becomes trapped in the lungs
An infant or child patient who exhibits wheezing, increases breathing effort on exhalation, or rapid breathing without stridor, probably has a(n):
lower airway disease
You obviously will not be able to obtain a SAMPLE history from the patient if he is unresponsive. However, you may be able to obtain one from
family,friends,co-workers
Seesaw" breathing is:
a sign of inadequate breathing
Agonal respirations are:
shallow and gasping.
Upon arrival at the scene of a 68-year-old man who was having chest pain, the patient's wife tells you he just took a nitro tablet and has experienced some relief. Nitroglycerin tablets are administered:
sublingually
The EMT-Basic may assist a patient in using epinephrine when administered:
by auto-injector
Your unit has arrived on the scene of a 19-year-old female who was painting the deck when she was stung by a group of bees. She states she is highly allergic to bee stings. The medication used to reverse a life-threatening allergic reaction by constrictin
epinephrine
If your patient has an altered mental status and a history of diabetes, you may give him:
oral glucose
To the general public, the word "drugs" generally refers to:
illegal or abused substances
The study of drugs, their sources, characteristics, and effects, is called:
pharmacology
Which of the following is true regarding the prehospital care report?
It becomes part of the patient's permanent hospital record.
Patients who are hearing impaired or deaf
can often read your lips.
The agency that assigns and licenses radio frequencies is the:
Federal Communications Commission.
The memory aid OPQRST includes letters standing for:
severity" or how bad is the pain?
A significant mechanism of injury for a child is a fall:
from more than 10 feet
Techniques for applying a cervical collar include:
keeping the patient's hair out of the way.
The memory aid DCAP-BTLS includes which of the following?
Abrasions
You are on the scene of a 29-year-old female who was painting and fell off a ladder onto her head. During your initial assessment she responds only when you pinch her toe or rub her sternum briskly. This level of responsiveness would be:
painful
Based on your immediate assessment of the environment and the patient's chief complaint and appearance, you form a(n):
general impression
Because of multiple impacts, the type of collision that is potentially the most serious is the:
rollover
Signs and symptoms of shock (hypoperfusion), which are actually the body's compensating mechanisms, include all of the following except:
increased urine output
Your unit is on the scene of a 18-year-old woman in active labor. She states that her water broke, and lets you check for crowning. You note that the umbilical cord is sticking out of her vagina. How should the EMT-Basic transport a patient who presents w
in a knee-chest (hip elevated) position
Of each of the following methods of bleeding control, which should be used first?
direct pressure
Signs of blunt trauma include all of the following, except:
deep, sharp cuts
The functions of the integumentary system are: protection, sensation, excretion, vitamin D synthesis, and
temperature
There is a potential for internal bleeding or life-threatening injuries to internal organs from a(n):
puncture
Your unit is standing by at the scene of a residential fire. Suddenly a firefighter comes out carrying a 48-year-old female who is severely burned on the upper half of her body. Burn severity depends on each of the following factors, except
the type of object that was burning
A patient has sustained a third-degree burn on the back of her torso and the back of her left arm. What percentage of her body surface area is burned?
22.5
The key functions of the musculoskeletal system include:
support, protection, movement
To select the proper size oropharyngeal airway, you should measure from the patient's:
corner of the mouth to the tip of the earlobe
The technique for inserting a nasopharyngeal airway includes:
gently pushing tip of the nose upward
The yoke of a portable oxygen pressure regulator is designed so it will fit an oxygen tank and not on a tank containing another type of gas. The system used to assure this is called:
the pin-index safety system
A patient who is said to be in respiratory arrest has:
no breathing but may still have a pulse
A bag mask should be connected to an oxygen inlet flow of _____ liters per minute
15
When managing the airway of a pediatric patient, the EMT-Basic should consider:
the mouth and nose are more easily obstructed than in adults.
The reason a patient calls EMS is referred to as the:
chief complaint
In unresponsive patients the chief complaint may be determined by all of the following except:
the patient
Capillary refill is most reliable when assessed:
at room temperature
The main purpose for checking circulation during the initial assessment is to:
determine if the patient has a pulse
To complete the initial assessment the EMT-Basic should:
make a priority transportation decision.
You have just completed the initial assessment of a 30-year-old victim of a fall. According to the patient he is not sure if he lost consciousness. The first step in the focused history and physical exam of the trauma patient is to:
perform the rapid trauma exam
Assessment of ________ should be done before and after immobilization of any extremity
proximal pulse, motor function, and sensation
The ongoing assessment is performed on:
all patients who are transported
Trending a patient's condition is something that is done in the
ongoing assessment
How often should you reassess an unconscious medical patient who has a nasal airway and nonrebreathing mask in place?
Every 5 minutes
A medication, or drug, can have up to _____ different names.
4
A non-desired medication reaction that occurs, in addition to the desired reaction, is known as a:
side effect
A(n) _____ is a form of medication with drug particles that are mixed in a suitable liquid.
suspension
Documentation of medication the EMT-Basic administers should include
improvements in a patient's condition, route and time of administration, deterioration of a patient's condition.
Your unit is on the scene of a 38-year-old female who may be having an asthma attack. As you enter the room you notice audible wheezing and the patient is sitting with her elbows out. This tripod position is associated with a patient having:
severe respiratory distress
The EMT-Basic can provide positive pressure ventilation to a patient using a(n):
bag-valve mask
A type of medication designed to relax and open the smaller airways, helping to improve breathing, is called a(n):
a bronchodilator
A 32-year-old female has a complaint of sudden onset of dyspnea with no history of any respiratory problems. She is a one-pack-a-day smoker, takes an oral contraceptive but no other meds and has no allergies. Which of the following conditions should be hi
pulmonary embolism
Pneumonia is primarily an acute infectious disease and usually presents with a fever in patients, except:
the elderly
A(n) ______ will increase the work of breathing and the body's oxygen demand, especially in children.
increased stress level
Seesaw or rocky breathing, exhibited by the chest drawn inward and the abdomen moving outward, is a sign of:
extreme inspiratory efforts in children
Your unit is on the scene of a 58-year-old male patient who has had crushing substernal chest pain for the past 30 minutes. You have taken a set of vitals and are administering oxygen. When assessing and treating a patient with chest pain or discomfort, t
not take the time to diagnose what type of cardiac emergency is occurring.
Anatomical differences between adults and children include:
the infant's head is proportionately larger than the adult's.
Your treatment for a 3-year-old male in severe respiratory distress should include:
assisted ventilations, using a bag-valve mask and oxygen
In infants and children, the primary cause of nontraumatic cardiac arrest is
respiratory failure
You are treating a 9-month-old who "fell out of the crib while sleeping." You note the child is only responsive to painful stimuli, and note the soft spots on the skull (fontanelles) look swollen. What should you suspect?
shaking baby syndrome
In some pulmonary diseases, such as emphysema, the pulmonary vessels are compressed, making it much more difficult for the _____ to pump the blood out.
right ventricle
The AED is intended for use with:
all cardiac arrest patients with shockable rhythms, except infants
The heart's typical response to ischemia is
chest discomfort
Using the AED, the EMT-Basic delivers one shock to an apneic and pulseless patient. The AED now states, "no shock advised." What most likely is the reason for this alert from the AED?
The patient is no longer in V-fib
Your unit is on the scene of a 69-year-old male whose wife called the ambulance because she was concerned that his color was not good and he has a cardiac history. His vitals are respirations of 20, pulse of 88 and BP of 138/82. Which of the following is
generalized weakness
The two primary hormones that are responsible for controlling the blood sugar level are ____ and ____, both of which are secreted by the pancreas.
insulin:glucagon
The EMT-Basic arrives at an office to find multiple patients with altered mental status. The EMT-Basic should suspect _____ is causing the illness.
some type of hazardous gas or poison
Your unit is on the scene with a 18-year-old patient who suddenly became ill after eating in a seafood restaurant. His color is pale and his vital signs are: respirations of 28, pulse of 120 and BP of 110/60. You suspect an allergic reaction is the proble
medications that are taken orally or by injection
The most significant mechanism of heat loss is
radiation
The first step in the care of a patient presenting with confusion, who is found in a hot environment, is to:
move the patient to a cool environment as quickly as possible.
A patient with a core body temperature of ______ is considered to be hypothermic.
95F or less (35C or less)
All of the following are potential hazards of improper splinting, except:
reduction of pain
A(n) ______ is the most important sign in cases of suspected head injury.
creasing mental status
Which of the following statements about skull injuries is most accurate?
The deformity itself does not cause disability or death.
When a patient with a suspected spine injury must be moved before being immobilized, this is called
rapid extrication
A tool for assessing a patient's level of responsiveness that uses numerical values to score responses is:
the Glasgow Coma Scale
Paralysis of the respiratory muscles may occur with injury to the _______ spine.
cervical
A sign of severe head injury in which the systolic blood pressure increases, the heart rate decreases, and the respiratory pattern changes, is known as:
Cushing's reflex
Medical factors that could mimic a behavioral emergency include:
excessive cold, hypoxia, infections
Most ____ patients have elaborate delusions, mostly of persecution.
paranoid
Which of the following statements about behavioral emergencies is most accurate?
Not all behaviorally disturbed patients will become violent.
Signs and symptoms of a possible spontaneous abortion include all of the following, except:
crowning
You have just assisted a mother with the delivery of a healthy full-term baby girl. The apgar is a 10 and the child is resting. You notice that the mother continues to bleed at a rapid pace, so you attempt uterine massage. Uterine massage helps to stop va
stimulating contractions, which decreases the uterine size
During the transportation of a woman in her third trimester, the EMT-Basic should place the patient in a sitting position to avoid
supine hypotension syndrome
You have just arrived on the scene of a woman who is in active labor. Her water broke already and it appears from your inspection for crowning that birth is imminent. In a normal delivery the head will deliver in a ____ position and turn:
face down / sideways
Fluids should be removed from the newborn infant's airway
as soon as the baby is delivered.
Your unit has just arrived on the scene of a two-vehicle head-on collision. One patient is dead at the scene and the other driver is entrapped in his vehicle. To gain access to a patient trapped in a vehicle the EMT-Basic should
break the window furthest from the patient.
When responding to a call, minimal lighting should be used
during heavy fog
Your unit is arriving at the scene of an overturned tanker truck. After calling for additional help and identifying the substance from the placard on the truck, you establish a location to treat the exposed patients. The _____ zone at the site of a HAZ-MA
cold
Which of the following is least accurate about the chest of a child? The rib cage is more flexible
decreasing the likelihood of internal organ damage with blunt chest trauma.
In children _____ provide more valuable information about the perfusion and shock status than the blood pressure
skin color, temperature, and condition
a tort is a
civil wrong
When the body's immune system detects an antigen, the response is to:
produce antibodies
The EMT-Basic may be required to make a decision about any of the following aspects of care, except:
when to access the public service answering point (PSAP).
A woman in labor states that her water broke, the fluid is stained green. This is called _______ staining and is an indication that the baby is _________.
meconium: stressed
What is the organ that contains the developing fetus?
uterus
What is the outgrowth of the developing fetus that attaches to the wall of the uterus and supplies the fetus with nutrients called?
placenta
What do you do with about the placenta once you have successfully delivered the baby and cut the cord?
initiate transport and allow the placenta to deliver spontaneous.
What is it called when during your examination, during a contraction, the top of the head of the baby appears at the vaginal opening called?
crowning
What is the best course of action when you are on scene with a 25 y/o female who is 37 weeks pregnant and she states she started bleeding bright red blood but is not having contractions?
immediate transport
How is the period of pregnancy from conception to birth divided?
trimesters
What should you do if you find the cord wrapped around the neck, when the baby is delivered?
pull cord over baby's head if possible
What is contraindicated when a 26 y/o woman, who is 38 weeks pregnant, calls for help because "something fell out". On examination you find the umbilical cord hanging out of vagina.
with a gloved hand, push umbilical cord back into vagina
When does the third stage of labor end?
placenta is delivered
What should you do once the baby has been delivered and has an apgar of 3 at one minute and after stimulation, you note that the pulse rate is 50 and the baby is not breathing.
start compressions and BVM with 100% oxygen
What may be imminent of delivery of a baby?
1. contractions are 2-3 mins apart
2. mother has urge to push
3. contractions last 3-4 mins
4. bag of waters break
5. head is crowning
What is called when you are delivering a baby when you become aware that the presenting part is the buttocks.
Frank breech
What fluid is the fetus floating in the "bag of waters"?
amniotic
What is the first thing you should do when you have delivered an infant who is limp and blue?
1. suction
2. dry
3. stimulate
What is not appropriate when you have successfully delivered a baby and the placenta and you have noted that there are still vaginal bleeding?
pack vagina with sterile pads
What should you do first when you are transporting a 32 week pregnant woman who was involved in a motor vehicle crash and she is immobilized on a back board, while en route, you note that her blood pressure has dropped to 85/40?
tilt backboard up to the left side
What is the APGAR score 5 mins after delivering a baby and you note that the baby has blue extremities, a pulse of 120, little response to suctioning, vigorous activity and good respirations with a strong cry?
8
What are the signs of APGAR?
1. appearance
2. pulse
3. grimace
4. activity
5. respirations
What might you have to do aftr the baby's head has delivered?
1. Suction mouth then nose
2. wipe mucous from baby's mouth
What should be your first action when the 3 y/o child is in severe respiratory distress from asthma and you note rapidly level of consciousness and a pulse of 40?
BVM with 100% oxygen
What should you with the parent or caregiver when caring for a sick child?
assist with the care of the child as much as possible
What should you do if you are caring for a 2 y/o child who fell down stairs and injured his left arm and during your exam, you notice bruises to chest and abdomen and what appears to be cigarette burns on back?
report findings to ED, police and social services
What findings would lead you to believe a child is dehydrated when you are examining a child's fontanelle?
sunken and non-pulsatile fontanel
What is the best course of action when you have responded to the scene of a child not breathing and he was put down for a nap and found apneic 2 hrs later, which you find the child still warm to the touch?
start cpr and immediately transport
What does the pediatric airway have in comparison to an adult airway?
proportionally larger tongue
Why do children develop hypothermia more easily than adults?
larger surface area in proportion to body mass
What may stridor be a sign of?
1. epiglottitis
2. foreign body
3. croup
What would be the first step when you find an unresponsive child victim who has agonal gasps and someone else is calling to activate EMS?
start CPR
What is a child in who exhibits increased work in breathing?
respiratory distress
What should you do if you are trying to examine a 6 y/o child with abdominal pain and she is being very uncooperative.
allow mother to hold her while examine her as best as you
What is important to remember when dealing with a toddler?
they do not like to be touched by strangers
What rate should you ventilate at when ventilating a child in respiratory failure?
12-20
What is the most common cause of cardiac arrest in children?
respiratory failure
What should you do if you have a 6 y/o patient at a soccer match that has collapsed and adequate CPR was initiated prior to your arrival?
immediately place AED pads and analyze the rhythm
What must be done if a procedure must be done that may cause pain?
tell child it may hurt
What is an accurate indicator of early hypoperfusion in children?
delayed capillary refill
What must be done when opening the airway of an infant or young child?
extend neck sufficiently to open airway
What should be done when caring for a sick or injured child?
allow parent to hold child when possible
Within the first minute of observing a sick or injured child what should you base your initial treatment on?
1. skin color
2. work of breathing
3. general impression
What accurately describes the changes in the body that occur with aging?
muscle strength decreases and is not easily built up
What should the EMT-B do when obtaining a history from an elderly patient?
address patient as mr or mrs unless asked otherwise
what is contraindicated when you are assessing a 76 y/o female with an injured arm when she has obvious hearing and visual deficits as you try to communicate?
shout loudly
What is the best place to check for signs of dehydration?
mucous membranes
What should you do when assessing an 82 y/o male who is confused and disoriented?
check with family to determine if this is normal for the patient
What is the respiratory rates for 0-1 yoa?
30-60
What is the respiratory rate for child?
15-30
What is the respiratory rate for teens?
12-20
What is the heart rate for 0-1 yoa?
100-200
What is the heart rate for a child?
60-140
What is the heart rate for teens?
60-100
Under what conditions is it appropriate to use a police or other emergency vehicle escort?
as a last resort
Under what condition should an EMT exceed teh posted speed limit?
situation is critical
What 4 times should you notify dispatch?
1. leaves the scene 2. arrives at hospital 3. back in service 4. arrives at scene
What is your first responsibility once you transferred care of your patient?
write PCR
What is the EMT's first duty to the patient while arriving at scene?
safety
What is the symbol of EMS called?
star of life
What factor concerning your chosen landing site would make it useable by helicopter, once you have requested a helicopter response?
100 x 100 ft in area
What should be used to clean an ambulance when there is no visible blood or body fluid contamination?
EPA approved germocide
what part of the ambulance does not require a check at the beginning of each shift?
tie rod ends
Under what circumstances may an EMT by-pass driving laws?
when running as an EMS provider on EMS call
What direction should an EMT approach a vehicle that has been involved in a collision and has a patient inside?
front
What is the easiest way to eliminate electrical current and associated hazards in vehicle collisions?
turn off engine
What is the best way to gain quick access to a patient who is still in a vehicle following a crash?
check all doors
What is the safest way for an EMT to approach a scene with downed wires?
assume wires are live and do not approach
What is the best method for protecting a patient during extraction from a vehicle?
cover patient and EMT-basic with heavy fire proof covering
Where should you park your ambulance if you are the first responder to arrive at the scene of a motor vehicle accident?
on shoulder, between traffic coming up behind you and the crash scene
Where should you park ambulance when you recognize that a truck has rolled over and is leaking liquid?
uphill and downwind
What is the role of the EMT in vehicle stabilization and patient extraction?
patient care provider
What is the first thing an EMT should do when arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle crash?
make sure the scene is safe
What situation is most likely to involve simple access?
residential home
In what zone are normal triage, stabilization and treatment performed?
cold
What is the first and primary concern of the EMT at a hazardous material incident?
personal safety
What would a number 3 in the blue area indicate?
extreme danger to health
What is not a potential danger posed by hazardous materials?
infection
What is the minimal level of training recommended by OSHA for EMS providers likely to witness or discover a hazardous materials emergency?
first responder awareness
In which zone is initial (gross) decontamination performed?
hot
What type of hazardous material does a red placard with a flame symbol?
flammable gas or liquid
What is the definition of a hazardous material?
unreasonable risk or unreasonable risk to health
What information form is the workplace required to have available if you respond to the scene of an injury from a chemical spill?
msds
in what zone are life saving procedures such as airway management and immobilization performed?
warm
What activity is the staging sector responsible?
controlling ambulance flow
What basis should patients be moved from triage sector to treatment sector?
priority
What would you do if you are an EMT working a mass casualty scene?
assist at local hospitals if requested
What color are delayed care patients in a standard 4 level triage system?
yellow
Who should be assigned as the triage officer?
most qualified emt
What is a set of signs and symptoms would indicate a red tag description?
20% burns with stridor and wheezing
What would be the level of a patient who has a life-threatening injury, but is breathing and has a pulse?
immediate
Who should be responsible for assuming command of a multiple casualty incident when the first units arrive?
senior emt at scene
What is the sector responsible for distributing medical material and equipment called?
supply
What phase of an explosion causes damage through a pressure wave?
primary
What are 4 characteristics of vesicants?
1. treated by immediate irrigation 2. phosgene and mustard gas 3. blistering agents 4. delayed effect
Under what circumstances does a patient represent a potential danger to others when he presents with possible radiation exposure?
radioactive material in wounds
What types of injury are you anticipating to treat when you are responding to WMD scene where an incendiary device has been used?
heat burns
What should you do first when your unit is the first to arrive on scene at a possible WMD incident?
incident command system
What are biological weapons?
infectious agents
In what settings besides a terrorist attack might you encounter a " nerve agent" ?
1. household 2. industrial 3. agricultural
What type of chemical agent is most likely to have been exposed when your patient has been exposed to an unknown chemical agent?
vesicant
In which settings would there most likely be an adequate response to a WMD attack?
a. large metro area
b. suburban community
c. rural community
none
What does "SLUDGE" refer to?
effects of organophosphates
What are the 4 most likely injuries you will find on the patient closest to the impact when a car is t boned?
1. head 2. upper spine 3. pelvis 4. long bones
How is the pattern of injury in an auto-pedisterian collision different between adult and child?
child will turn towards vehicle
What is the most improtant factor in determining the amount of kinetic energy of a moving object?
velocity
What other area should be examined if a 23 y/o female falls from s second story window, landing on her feet?
upper lumbar spine
What is most likely to occur when a person is holding their breath when his chest impacts against a solid object?
alveoli may rupture, called a "paper bag" injury
What is it called when a bullet creates a path through a soild organ that is wider than the bullet itself, thereby increasing the damage?
cavitation
What is a priority action that should occur on scene when you have established that your patient has a high risk mechanism of injury and is a priority trauma patient?
spinal immobilization
What 3 impacts are involved when a car runs into a telephone pole?
1. organs against interior of body 2. auto into pole 3. driver into car interior
What 5 aspects are a potential type of damage from a blast injury?
1. body striking another object 2. penetrating wounds 3. fractured limbs 4. internal organs striking inside body 4. shock wave damage
What 3 organs may be possibly injured if your patient was stabbed in an upward direction by a 6 inch blade just under the costal margin on the right side of his body?
1. liver 2. lung 3. bowel
What would be a possible complication if your patient was stabbed with a 6 inch knife in the anterior part of the chest?
1. infect 2. bleeding in the chest
What is the most appropriate management of the avulsed segment of tissue if your patient has suffered a skin avulsion of the upper arm that is still attached to the body by a small piece of skin?
place skin over wound and dress with sterile dressing
What si an occlusive dressing?
does not allow air to penetrate
A tongue caught in the mouth of a beer bottle is an example of clamping injury? T or F
true
What would you most likely expect if your motorcycle rider "laid the bike down" and was not wearing protective gear?
multiple abrasions
What 3 things may a crush injury cause?
1. substantial bleeding 2. self healing 3. cause cardiac arrest
What action is most appropriate if your patient has a hematoma and swelling along teh middle of her left forearm following an assualt with a baseball bat?
splinting for possible fracture
What is a hematoma?
large collection of blood under the skin
What is an avulsion?
flap of skin that has been torn off underlying tissues
What is a puncture?
wound that is deeper than it is wide
What is abrasion?
part or all of the epidermis is scraped off
What is a contusion?
discoloration and swelling within the dermis
What is a laceration?
linear cut or tear through the skin
How do you treat a patient that has a small laceration below his right eye which is bleeding profusely?
pressure dressing
What is the most appropriate treatment for the stump wound with a patient with an amputated thumb?
indirect pressure
What is the most appropriate action if you have applied an occlusive dressing to a sucking chest wound and after this your patient complains of increasing difficulty breathing and his BP starts to drop?
remove dressing and then reapply
Which statement is most true of bandaging and dressing a wound?
a dressing should be sterile and held in place by the which need not to be sterile
What is the 3 things true of amputations?
1. may not bleed 2. amputated part must be found an dkept cool 3. trasnported to specialty facility
What is the 6 classic sequences in controlling teh bleeding if your patient has spurting, bright red blood coming from a laceration on his leg?
1. direct pressure 2. pressure dressing 3. additional guaze pads 4. elevate extremity 5. apply pressure to pressure point 6. tourniquet
What is the best method for handling an impaled object in the cheek or mouth that is not and will not obstruct the airway?
leave in place and stabilize with bulky dressing
How do you treat an injury if you had a patient running with a screw driver in his hand and tripped over his dog and the screwdriver went into his chest just below the clavical?
stabilize the screwdriver with a bulky dressing and be prepared to treat the patient for shock
What is the most correct treatment for this patient that you and your partner respond to an MVC and the driver appears unresponsive and you see major bleeding across his lower abdomen. upon inspection you find a small area of bowel protruding through teh
apply a sterile moist dressing, then an occlusive dressing and be prepared to treat for shock
What is your primary concern for this baby if you are called for a baby whose big brother pushed her down and she bit her tongue and it is bleeding profusley?
airway
What is the layer of skin that contains nerves, blood vessels, sweat and subceous glands and hair follicles?
dermis
What are burns that are characterized by charred or leathery consistency with no pain sensation called?
full thickness
What is the estimated burn percentage if an adult has suffered a partial thickness-burn to the anterior portions of both arms, chest and abdomen, using the rule of nines?
27
What is a burn that goes completely around a limb or torso called?
circumferential
What kind of burns are large fluid filled blisters?
partial thickness
Which is the most appropriate first step in the mangement of a skin exposure to a dry cuastic chemical?
brush of chemical
What is the first step in caring for a patient that has suffered an electrical burn to the leg after falling on a downed power line?
confirm poer is off
Which should be removed from a burn patient?
rings and jewelry
What is the most appropriate first treatment for an injury of battery acid has splashed into both eyes of the patient?
irrigate copiously with water
What makes the circumferential burns so dangerous besides the burn itself?
possibility of compartment syndrome
What is teh severity of a partial thickness burn encompassing 22% of the BSA of a child less than age 5?
critical
What is the tough fibrous tissue that connects muscles to bones?
tendon
What will you do if you have applied the PASG to a suspected femur fracture: you are at 11,000 feet and your ED is at 5,000 feet?
increase pressure in PASG
What must you do to correctly splint a long bone?
immobilize joints above and below injured bone
What is the bone of the upper extremity?
humerus
What is the most appropriate action when you are 30 mins from a hospital from the hospital with a patient who has a midshaft injury of the humerus and there are no distal pulses palpable in the left arm?
contact medical control and obtain permission to manupulate the injury
What is your first step in teh treatment if your patient has suffered a fracture of the lower leg with the ends of the bones exposed and the patient is talking to you and crying.
cover wound with sterile guaze
What splint is best suited for a shoulder fracture or dislocation?
sling and swathe
What is teh most appropriate splinting technique for your patient who has suffered an open femur fracture 3 inches above the knee?
traction splint
What effects does applying ice to an injured extremity accomplish?
vasoconstriction and decrease swelling
What is this type force when a patient falls on an outstretched hand and fractures the radius at the elbow?
indirect
What will your next action be when you have just applied a long bone splint to a suspected tibia fracture when you reassess PMS and you find that the pulse is no longer palpable?
lossen splint and recheck PMS
What is the most appropriate field term for a suspected fracture?
swollen, painful deformity
What assessment would you us for your patient that fell from a bed and suffered an injury to the left shoulder. His only complaint is pain in teh anterior shoulder. There was no loss of concious and the patient has an patent airway?
focused physical
What is an injury that causes teh bones at a joint to be seperated from each other?
dislocation
What is the most appropriate way to manage the wound if your patient has an evisceration from a gun shot wound?
cover organs with moist sterile dressing then occlusive dressing
What do you need to evaluate your patient with your patient was the restrained driver in a frontal impact at 65 MPH and as you examine, you note bruising over the abdomen which is tough and rigd?
hypovolemic shock
What is caused when you are palpating injured patients chest and note a crackling or bubbly sensation with your fingers?
air beneath skin
What i the appropriate care for a MVC patient that has bony crepitus and tenderness when you press on the pelvis and teh genitalia show swelling and discoloration?
bleeding from uretha
What 2 aspects cause the pulonary contusions to be life threatening injury?
1. reduces oxygen exchange 2. may cause pressure on heart
What is the current treatment for an emt to give with a flail chest?
stabilize chest with bulky dressing
What is your first action when your patient has an open wound to his left chest?
open airway and check for breathing
What is the most likely cause when your patient has suffered a closed injury and presents with decreased breath sounds on one side, JVD and hypotension?
Tension pneumothorax
What is a flail segment?
2 adjacent ribs fractured in 2 or more places
What organ is most likely to cause infection in a blunt injury to abdomen?
ruptured bowel
What is teh significance of this substances presence if your patient that has been struck in the eye by a piece of pipe and you see a clear gel-like substance on teh surface of the eye?
globe has been ruptured
What structure is not a part of the neck?
mandible
What is the seond action when your patient has recieved a knife wound to his lateral neck?
pressure dressing covered by an occlusive dressing taped on 4 sides
What is the best method for handling an avulsed tooth?
hold by the crown and transport in solution
What is the medical term for the white of the eye?
sclera
What is the most life-threatening problem associated with facial injuries?
airway obstruction
How do you treat your patient with splashed chemical into his left eye?
rinse eye copiously with water or saline: continue during transport
What is an injury that involves the eye being pulled from its socket?
extrusion
What is the best method for handling an object impaled in the eye?
stabilize with bulky dressing
What is your first action if your patient was assualted with a knife and recieved a laceration to the lateral neck and you note steady bleeding?
place a gloved hand over the laceration
What is the sign called when your patient was injured in a high speed motorcycle accident. His helmet was cracked and there is no evidence of trauma to his face but there is purple discoloration around both eyes?
racoon eyes
What has a patient suffered if he fell and struck his head on teh ground. He is unconcious for several minutes, then arouses. His nuero exam is normal.
concussion
What set of vital signs is most consistient with a severe head injury with increased intracranuial pressure?
160/104, p56,r34
What sign or symptom is most indicative of a severe head injury?
prolonged loss of concious
What is the most appropriate airway and breathing management if a patient was struck in teh face with a bat. He is unconcious with shallow respirations after applying c-spine precautions?
oropharyngeal with BVM
What is the most critical part of management for the patient with significant head trauma?
airway management
What functions are controlled by the brainstem?
breathing and heart rate
What is the appropriate rate of ventilations fo a patient with severe head injury?
10-12 / min
What is the response called when your patient suffered a severe head injury in a fall?
decerabrate posturing
What is teh term if the pressure inside teh cranium becomes severe and teh brain may be forced down through the foramen magnum?
herniation
Multilumen Airway- Removal etc
Doesn't require visualization for placement. There are 2 types, combitube and pharyngeotracheal lumen airway. Should not be used if the patient has a gag reflex, children under 14, adults shorter than 5', patients that have ingested a caustic substance, p
Laryngoscope Blade
it's purpose is to sweep the tongue out of the way and align the airway so the vocal cords can be visual and the ET tube passed through them. Blades are curved or strait and range in size 0-4. Blades contain a light to see better. Blade is detachable from
Signs IV site is infiltrated..
Edema or swelling at the catheter site, extremely slow IV flow, patient complaint of tightness and pain around the IV site.
Spike bag, prime line, and flush air.
IV bag.
Why are gastric tubes used pre-hospital?
used to relieve gastric distention caused by positive pressure ventilation prior to the advanced airway.
How can you tell the difference between sinus tach, and sinus rhythm on an EKG strip?
Can only tell be the number of waves on the strip. the waves should look the same but there are a lot more waves on the strip with sinus tachycardia.
If a patient is being adequately ventilated with bag-mask device attached to high-flow oxygen:
Endotracheal intubation may not be necessary.
Procedure for laryngeal mask airway
The LMA consists of two parts: the tube and the mask or cuff. After blind insertion, the device molds and seals itself around the laryngeal opening by inflation of the mask. The epiglottis contained within the mask or cuff. Comes in seven sizes and can be
Where does an IO needle go?
Proximal tibia
Vesicant agents are?
Blister agents. Such as mustard, lewisite, and phosgene oxide. Primary exposure is skin.
What is weaponization?
The creation of weapon from biologic agent generally found in nature and that causes disease. The agent is cultivated, synthesized, and or mutated to maximize the target population's exposure the germ.
The purpose of placards and labels on storage containers?
They are intended to give a general idea of the hazard inside a particular container or cargo tank. A placard identifies the broad hazard (flammable, poison, corrosive) to which the material inside belongs.
Responsibilities of medical branch of ICS?
Ensuring responder and public safety, achieving incident management goals, and ensuring the efficient use of resources.
a major benefit when using a multi-lumen airway device is that
maintenance of mask-to-face seal is not required
Approximately 10 seconds into an intubation attempt, you are unable to view the vocal cords. you should:
Direct your partner to apply posterior cricoid pressure.
If a patient if being adequately ventilated with bag-mask device attached to high-flow oxygen:
Endotracheal intubation may bot be necessary.
According to Department of Homeland Security Advisory system, the color orange indicates a ____ risk of terrorist attacks.
High
A weapon of mass destruction (wmd) is most accurately defined as:
Any agent used to bring about mass death, casualties, or massive infrastructural damage.
In the prehospital setting, gastric tubes are used primarily to:
Decompress the stomach
If an Iv line is found to be infiltrated, you should:
Remove the catheter and apply direct pressure.
What is the primary concern at the scene of a hazardous materials incident?
The safely of the EMT and Crew, patients and the public.
Whenever possible, a female sexual assault victim should be:
given the option of being treated by a female EMT.
A 26 -year- old female presents with heavy vaginal bleeding. She is conscious, but restless. Her blood pressure is 84/54 mm Hg, her pulse is 120 beats/min and weak, and her respirations are 22 breaths/min with adequate depth. She tells you that she insert
administer high-flow oxygen, place a sterile pad over her vagina, keep her warm, elevate her lower extremities, and transport without delay.
Potentially life-threatening consequences of PID include:
ovarian abscess and ectopic pregnancy.
Law enforcement personnel request your assistance to assess a 31-year-old female who was sexually assaulted. When you arrive at the scene, you find the patient sitting on a curb outside her apartment. She is conscious, alert, and crying. When you ask her
provide emotional support and visually assess her for obvious trauma.
Which of the following statements regarding rape is correct?
Rape is a legal diagnosis, not a medical diagnosis.
You are dispatched to a residence for a 40-year-old female who complains of lower abdominal pain, fever and chills, and a foul-smelling vaginal discharge. Which of the following additional assessment findings would increase your index of suspicion for PID
a shuffling gait when walking
During your assessment of a young female with nontraumatic vaginal bleeding, you note that her level of consciousness is decreased, her respirations are rapid and shallow, her skin is cool and moist, and her pulse is rapid and weak. You should:
assist her ventilations with a bag-mask device.
The third stage of labor begins when the:
the baby is expelled from the vagina
You have just delivered a full-term infant. His respirations are rapid and irregular, and he has a strong cry. What should you do next?
Assess the brachial or umbilical pulse.
Which of the following statements regarding the placenta is correct?
The placenta allows oxygen, carbon dioxide, and other products to transfer between the mother and fetus but does not allow blood to mix between the mother and fetus.
Eclampsia is MOST accurately defined as:
seizures that result from severe hypertension.
Which of the following statements regarding a breech presentation is MOST correct?
A breech presentation occurs when the buttocks are the presenting part.
A nuchal cord is defined as an umbilical cord that:
is wrapped around the baby's neck.
After the fetus has descended into the pelvis at the end of the third trimester, many mothers experience:
easier breathing
An infant is considered to be premature if it:
weighs less than 5 lb or is born before 36 weeks' gestation
The leading cause of maternal death during the first trimester of pregnancy is:
internal bleeding caused by a ruptured ectopic pregnancy
An abortion occurs when the fetus and placenta deliver before:
20 weeks
In contrast to a full-term infant, a premature infant:
has an even proportionately larger head.
During your visual inspection of a 19 -year- old woman in labor, you see the baby's head crowning at the vaginal opening. What should you do?
Apply gentle pressure to the baby's head as it delivers.
During delivery, it is MOST important to position your partner at the mother's head because:
the mother may become nauseated and vomit.
Which of the following occurs during true labor?
Uterine contractions become more regular
The term "bloody show" is defined as:
the small amount of pink-tinged mucus that is discharged from the vagina after expulsion of the mucous plug.
When the mother is experiencing a contraction, you should instruct her to:
take quick short breaths.
A pregnant trauma patient may lose a significant amount of blood before showing signs of shock because:
pregnant patients have an overall increase in blood volume
The vagina and the neck of the uterus comprise the:
birth canal
Braxton-Hicks contractions are characterized by:
alleviation of pain with movement or changing positions.
The ONLY indications for placing your gloved fingers in the vagina during delivery are:
breech presentation and prolapsed umbilical cord
The onset of labor begins with:
contractions of the uterus
By the 20th week of pregnancy, the uterus is typically at or above the level of the mother's:
belly button
Your 22 -year- old patient is in active labor. Upon visual inspection, you note that the infant's leg is protruding from the vagina. Appropriate management of this situation includes:
placing the mother supine with her head down and pelvis elevated.
Which of the following statements regarding gestational diabetes is correct?
In some cases, women with gestational diabetes require insulin injections.
After a baby is born, it is important to
ensure that it is thoroughly dried and warmed
Which of the following questions is of LEAST pertinence when determining whether a mother will deliver her baby within the next few minutes?
When are you due?
A newborn infant will usually begin breathing spontaneously within _______ seconds following birth.
15-30
Which of the following is a normal physiologic change that occurs in the mother's respiratory system during pregnancy?
increased respiratory rate and decreased respiratory reserve
If a newborn's heart rate is less than 60 beats/min following delivery, you should:
provide ventilations for 30 seconds.
The term primigravida refers to a woman who:
is pregnant for the first time
Placenta previa is MOST accurately defined as:
development of the placenta over the cervical opening
While examining a woman in labor, you see the umbilical cord protruding from the vagina. You should:
push the infant's head away from the cord
The amniotic fluid serves to:
insulate and protect the fetus
Preeclampsia MOST commonly occurs after the ____ week of gestation.
30th
When determining the frequency of contractions, you should time the contractions from the:
start of one to the start of the next
Following delivery of a full-term baby, you have properly cared for the baby and have clamped and cut the umbilical cord. During transport, you note that the mother is experiencing moderate vaginal bleeding. You should:
firmly massage the uterine fundus with a circular motion
If a baby is born at 7:52, the second Apgar score should be calculated at
7:57
The presence of thick meconium in the amniotic fluid indicates:
that the baby's airway may be obstructed.
Upon delivery of an infant's head, you note that the umbilical cord is wrapped around its neck. You should:
attempt to slip the cord gently over the infant's head.
You have just delivered a baby boy. His body is pink, but his hands and feet are blue. His heart rate is approximately 110 beats/min and his respirations are rapid and irregular. He has a weak cry when stimulated and resists attempts to straighten his leg
8
Which of the following is an indication of imminent birth?
crowning of the baby's head
Signs and symptoms of preeclampsia include:
headache and edema
From what internal female organ is the fetus expelled during delivery?
uterus
Common interventions used to stimulate spontaneous respirations in the newborn include all of the following, EXCEPT:
positive-pressure ventilations
Abruptio placenta occurs when
the placenta prematurely separates from the uterine wall.
Upon delivery of the baby's head, you note that its face is encased in the unruptured amniotic sac. You should
puncture the sac and suction the baby's mouth and nose
A 33-year-old woman who is 36 weeks pregnant is experiencing scant vaginal bleeding. During transport, you note that she suddenly becomes diaphoretic, tachycardic, and hypotensive. In addition to administering 100% oxygen, you should
place her in a left lateral recumbent position.
Vigorous suctioning of a newborn's airway is indicated if
there is meconium in the amniotic fluid
The umbilical cord
carries oxygen to the baby via the umbilical vein
Causes of infant death that may be mistaken for SIDS include all of the following, EXCEPT:
hyperglycemia
Febrile seizures in a child
may indicate a serious underlying illness
The components of the PAT are
appearance, work of breathing, and skin circulation
The MOST ominous sign of impending cardiopulmonary arrest in infants and children is
bradycardia
Which of the following findings is LEAST suggestive of child abuse?
consistency in the method of injury reported by the caregiver
When administering oxygen to a frightened child, it would be MOST appropriate to:
place oxygen tubing through a hole in a paper cup.
A 4-year-old female ingested an unknown quantity of liquid drain cleaner. Your assessment reveals that she is conscious and alert, is breathing adequately, and has skin burns around her mouth. You should
Monitor her airway and give her oxygen.
A common cause of shock in an infant is
dehydration from vomiting and diarrhea
Blood pressure is usually not assessed in children younger than _____ years.
3
Greenstick fractures occur in infants and children because
their bones bend more easily than an adult's.
The purpose of the pediatric assessment triangle (PAT) is to
allow you to rapidly and visually form a general impression of the child.
Common causes of seizures in children include all of the following, EXCEPT
hyperglycemia
You are dispatched to a residence for a child with respiratory distress. The patient, an 18-month-old female, is tachypneic, has sternal retractions, and is clinging to her mother. Her skin is pink and dry, and her heart rate is 120 beats/min. The MOST ap
administering blow-by oxygen and transporting the child with her mother
The MOST common cause of dehydration in pediatric patients is
vomiting and diarrhea
Early signs of respiratory distress in the child include
bradycardia
A 6-month-old male presents with 2 days of vomiting and diarrhea. He is conscious, but his level of activity is decreased. The infant's mother tells you that he has not had a soiled diaper in over 12 hours. The infant's heart rate is 140 beats/min and his
moderate dehydration
You respond to a skate park where a 10 -year- old male fell from his skateboard and struck his head on the ground; he was not wearing a helmet. He is responsive to painful stimuli only and has a large hematoma to the back of his head. After your partner s
assist his ventilations, be prepared to suction his mouth if he vomits, apply full spinal precautions, and prepare for immediate transport to a trauma center
A 6-year-old male presents with acute respiratory distress. His mother states that she saw him put a small toy into his mouth shortly before the episode began. The child is conscious, obviously frightened, and is coughing forcefully. You should
encourage him to cough, give oxygen as tolerated, and transport.
The EMT should be MOST concerned when a child presents with fever and
a rash
Cardiac arrest in the pediatric population is MOST commonly the result of:
respiratory or circulatory failure
After using the PAT to form your general impression of a sick or injured child, you should
perform a hands-on assessment of the ABCs.
You are dispatched to a local elementary school for an injured child. As you approach the child, you note that he is lying at the base of the monkey bars. He is unresponsive and there are no signs of breathing. You should:
stabilize his head and open his airway
Unless he or she is critically ill or injured, you should generally begin your assessment of a toddler
at the feet
Capillary refill time is MOST reliable as an indicator of end-organ perfusion in children younger than:
6 years
Blood loss in a child exceeding _____ of his or her total blood volume significantly increases the risk of shock.
25%
An 8-year-old female with a history of asthma continues to experience severe respiratory distress despite being given multiple doses of her prescribed albuterol by her mother. She is conscious, but clearly restless. Her heart rate is 130 beats/min and her
be prepared to assist her ventilations, transport at once, and request an ALS intercept en route to the hospital
Bruising to the _________ is LEAST suggestive of child abuse
shins
Death caused by shaken baby syndrome is usually the result of:
bleeding in the brain.
Which of the following is NOT a known risk factor of SIDS?
putting a baby to sleep on his or her back
Pale skin in a child indicates that the
blood vessels near the skin are constricted
The use of multiple prescription drugs by a single patient, causing the potential for negative effects such as overdosing or drug interaction, is called:
polypharmacy
You are assessing a 70-year-old female who complains of intense thirst, frequent urination, and dizziness. She has a history of type 2 diabetes, heart disease, rheumatoid arthritis, and gout. Her blood glucose level is 450 mg/dL. She is conscious, but con
hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic coma (HHNC).
General communication techniques with the elderly include
frequently asking the patient if he or she understands.
Because of the complexity of the older patient and the vagueness of his or her complaint, you should:
attempt to differentiate between chronic and acute problems.
You receive a call for a sick person. When you arrive, you find the patient, a 75-year-old male, lying unresponsive in his bed. His respirations are slow and irregular and his pulse is slow and weak. His daughter tells you that he fell the day before, but
a subdural hematoma
The purpose of the GEMS diamond is to:
help EMS personnel remember what is different about elderly patients.
Common causes of syncope in older patients include all of the following, EXCEPT:
vasoconstriction
Which of the following would be the MOST practical method of communicating with a hearing-impaired patient until his or her hearing aids can be located?
using a piece of paper and writing utensil to ask questions
You receive a call to a residence for an apneic 2-month-old male. When you arrive at the scene, the infant's mother tells you that her son was born prematurely and that his apnea monitor has alarmed 4 times in the past 30 minutes. Your assessment of the i
transport the infant to the hospital and bring the apnea monitor with you.
You are assessing a 440-lb man who complains of shortness of breath and lower back pain. The patient is conscious and alert, his blood pressure is 148/98 mm Hg, and his heart rate is 120 beats/min. Your MOST immediate action should be to
avoid placing him in a supine position if possible and administer oxygen.
Autism is MOST accurately defined as a
pervasive developmental disorder characterized by impairment of social interaction.
You respond to a residence for a 9 -year- old female with Down syndrome who is sick. When you arrive at the scene and assess the patient, you determine that she is unresponsive and has gurgling respirations. You should:
open her airway with a manual maneuver, suction her oropharynx, and insert a simple airway adjunct.
If suctioning of the tracheostomy tube is necessary, the EMT should:
attempt to use the patient's suction device first because it is probably already sized correctly.
911 system
-system for telephone access to report emergencies
-dispatcher takes info and alert EMS or fire or police
-"enhanced 911" has capability of automatically identify caller's number and location
abandonment
leaving a patient after care has been initiated and before patient has been transferred to someone with equal or greater medical training
ABC
airway, breathing, circulation
abdominal quadrants
4 divisions of the abdomen used to pinpoint the location of a pain or injury
RUQ,LUQ,RLQ,LLQ
acetabulum
pelvic socket into which the ball at the proximal end of femur fits to form the hip joint
acromioclavicular join
joint where the acromion and clavicle meet
acromion process
highest portion of the shoulder
acute myocardial infarction
heart attack
advance directive
DNR order
AED
automated external defribrilator
ALS
advanced life support
alveoli
microscopic sacs of lungs where gas exchange with bloodstream takes place
amniotic fluid
fluid-filled membrane where fetus develops
anatomical position
standard reference position for the body, body stands erect facing the observer with arms down at sides and palms of hands forward
anatomy
study of body structure
angina pectoris
chest pain caused by stress or exertion
anterior
front of body or body part
aorta
largest artery in body, transports blood from left ventricle to being systemic circulation
apnea
condition of not breathing
appendix
small tube located near the junction of the small and large intestines in right lower quadrant of abdomen
arteriole
smallest kind of artery
artery
any blood vessel carrying blood away from heart
artria
two upper chambers of heart
asthma
chronic obstructive lung disease triggered by allergy condition
asystole
absence of ventricular contractions
automaticity
ability of the heart to generate and conduct electrical impulses on its own
autonomic nervous system
division of peripheral nervous system that controls involuntary motor functions
AVPU
alert, responds to verbal stimulus, responds to pain stimulus, unresponsive
bilateral
on both sides
blood pressure
pressure caused by blood exerting force against the walls of blood vessels, usually arterial blood pressure is measured, diastolic/systolic
brachial artery
artery of upper arm, site of pulse checked during infant CPR
brachial pulse
pulse produced by compressing major artery of the upper arm
bradycardia
abnormal heart rate, usually 50 or fewer beats per minute
bronchi
two large sets of branches that come off trachea and enter lungs, right and left bronchi
BSI
body substance isolation
BVM
bag valve mask
C.V.A.
stroke
calcaneus
heel bone
capillary
thin-walled, microscopic blood vessel where the oxygen/carbon dioxide and nutrient/waste exchange with body' cells takes place
cardiac conduction system
system of specialized muscle tissues which conduct electrical impulses that stimulate the heart to beat
cardiac muscle
specialized involuntary muscle found only in the heart
cardiovascular system
system made up of heart( cardio) and blood vessels (vascular), circulatory system
carotid arteries
large neck arteries, one on each side of neck, that carry blood from the heart to head
carpals
wrist bones
central nervous system(CNS)
brain and spinal cord
central pulses
carotid and femoral pulses, which can be felt in central part of body
cervix
mouth of uterus
CISM critical incident stress management
comprehensive system that includes education and resources to both prevent stress and to deal with stress appropriately when it occurs
clavicle
collarbone
confidentiality
obligation not to reveal information obtained about a patient except to other health care professionals involved in patient's care
consent
permission from patient for care or other action by EMT
contamination
introduction of dangerous chemicals, disease, or infectious materials
COPD
chronic obstruction pulmonary disease
coronary arteries
blood vessels that supply the muscle of the heart(myocardium)
CPR
cardio pulmonary resuscitation
cranium
top, back, sides of skull
cricoid cartilage
ring-shaped structure that forms the lower portion of larynx
cyanosis
sign that adequate perfusion is not accomplished
DCAPBTLS
deformities, contusions, abrasion, punctures, burns, tenderness, lacerations, swelling
decontamination
removal or cleansing of dangerous chemicals and other dangerous or infectious materials
dermis
inner(second) layer of skin, rich in blood vessels and nerves, found beneath epidermis
designated agent
EMT or other person authorized by a medical director to give medication or give emergency care, extension of medical director's license to practice
diaphragm
muscular structure that divides chest cavity from abdominal cavity, major muscle of respiration
diastole
period of myocardial relaxation during which cardiac chambers fill
diastolic pressure
pressure in arteries when the left ventricle refilling
digestive system
system by which food travels through body and digested, or broken down into absorbable forms
distal
farther away from torso
DNR order
do not resuscitate order, legal document signed by patient and physician and states patient has terminal illness and does not wish to prolong life
dorsal
referring to back of body
dorsal pedis artery
artery supplying the foot, lateral to the large tendon of the big toe
duty to act
obligation to provide care to patient
dyspnea
difficulty in breathing
ectopic pregnancy
development of the fetus outside the uterus
emphysema
degeneration of alveolar structure
endocrine system
system of glands that produce chemicals called hormones that help to regulate many body activities and functions
epidermis
outer layer of skin
epiglottis
leaf-shaped structure that prevents food and foreign matter from entering trachea
epinephrine
hormone produced by body, as medication it dilates respiratory passages and is used to relieve severe allergic reactions
exhalation
passive process in which intercostal muscles(ribs) and diaphragm relax, causing chest cavity to decrease in size and air to flow out lungs
expressed consent
consent given by adults of legal age and mentally competent to make a rational decision in regard to their medical well-being
FBAO
foreign body airway obstruction
femoral artery
major artery supplying leg
femur
large bone of thigh
fetus
developing baby
fibula
lateral and smaller bone of lower leg
fowler's position
sitting position
gallbladder
sac on underside of liver that stores bile produced by the liver
good samaritan laws
series of laws varying in each state designed to provide limited legal protection for citizens and some health care personnel when they are administered care
hazardous-material incident
release of a harmful substance into the environment
HIPAA
health insurance portability and accountability act, federal law protecting the privacy of patient-specific health care information and providing the patient with control over how this information is used and distributed
humerus
bone of upper arm, between shoulder and elbow
hypertension
blood pressure above normal range
hypoglycemia
condition of low blood pressure
hypo-perfusion
inadequate perfusion of the cells and tissues of body caused by insufficient flow of blood through capillaries
hypotension
blood pressure below that considered normal
ilium
superior and widest portion of pelvis
implied consent
consent presumed by patient or patient's parent would give if they could such as for an unconscious patient or small child at school
inferior
away from the head
inhalation
active process in which intercostal muscles(ribs) and diaphragm contract, expanding the size of the chest cavity and causing air to flow into lungs
insulin
hormone produced by pancreas or taken as medication by many diabetics
insulin shock
condition of low blood pressure
involuntary muscle
muscle that responds automatically to brain signals but cannot be consciously controlled
ischium
lower, posterior portions of pelvis
joint
point where two bones come together
large intestine
muscular tube that removes water from waste products received from small intestine and removes anything not absorbed by the body toward excretion from the body
laryngectomee
patient who breathes through incision (partial or total removal of larynx) made in throat
larynx
voice box
lateral
to the side, away from midline
lateral malleolus
at lower end of fibula, seen on outer ankle
left atrium
receives oxygenated blood returning from the lungs
ligament
tissue that connects bone to bone
liver
largest organ, produces bile to assist in breakdown of fats and assists in the metabolism of various substances in body
LPM
liters per minute
lungs
organs where exchange of atmospheric oxygen and waste carbon dioxide take place
malleolus
protrusion on the side of ankle
mandible
lower jaw bone
manubrium
superior portion of sternum
maxillae
two fused bones forming the upper jaw
medial
toward midline
medial malleolus
lower end of tibia, seen on inner ankle
medical direction
oversight of patient-care of ems system
medical director
physician who assumes ultimate responsibility for the patient care aspects of EMS system
metacarpals
hand bones
metatarsals
foot bones
MI
myocardial infarction
mid-axillary line
line drawn vertically from middle of armpit to ankle
mid-clavicular line
line through center of each clavicle
midline
imaginary line drawn down the center of the body, dividing it into right and left
miscarriage
spontaneous abortion
multiple casualty incident MCI
emergency involving multiple patients
muscle
tissue that can contract to allow movement of a body part
musculoskeletal system
system of bones and skeletal muscles that support and protect the body and permit movement
nasopharynx
area directly posterior to nose
nervous system
system of brain, spinal cord, and nerves that govern sensation, movement, and thought
nitroglycerine
medication used for chest pain
NRB
non rebreather mask
obstructed airway
occurs when food bolus or other object prevents inspiratory/expiratory process
off-line medical direction
orders from medical director to EMT to give certain medications or do certain procedures without speaking to medical director or physician
on-line medical direction
orders from an on-duty physician given directly to EMT through radio or phone
OPA
oropharyngeal airway
OPQRST
onset, provocation, quality, radiation, severity, time
oropharynx
area directly posterior to mouth
pancreas
gland located behind stomach that produces insulin and juices that assist in digestion of food in duodenum of small intestine
pathogens
organisms that cause infection such as viruses and bacteria
perfusion
supply of oxygen to and removal of wastes from the cells and tissues of body as a result of the flow of blood through capillaries
peripheral pulses
radial, brachial, posterior tibial, dorsalis pedis pulses, which can be felt at peripheral (outlying) points of the body
pharynx
area directly posterior to mouth and nose, made up of oropharynx and nasopharynx
placenta abruption
premature separation of the placenta from the wall of the uterus
placenta previa
development of the fetus over the mouth of the uterus
plane
flat surface formed when slicing through a solid object
plasma
fluid portion of blood
platelets
components of the blood, membrane-enclosed fragments of specialized cells
PNS peripheral nervous system
nerves that enter and leave the spinal cord and travel between brain and organs without passing through spinal cord
posterior
back of body
posterior tibial artery
artery supplying the foot behind the medial ankle
PPE
personal protective equipment that protects the EMS worker from infection or exposure to danger of rescue operations
primary function of autonomic nervous system
regulate unconscious or involuntary body functions
prone
laying face down
protocols
-lists of steps ( assessments and interventions) to be taken in different situations
-developed by medical director of EMS system
proximal
closer to torse
PSI
pounds per square inch
pulmonary arteries
vessels that carry blood from the right ventricle of heart to lungs
pulmonary edema
fluid in lungs
pulmonary veins
vessels that carry oxygenated blood from lungs to left atrium of heart
pulse
rhythmic beats caused as waves of blood move through and expand arteries
quality improvement
process of continuous self review with the purpose of identifying and correcting aspects of the system that require improvement
radial artery
artery of lower arm
recovery position
lying on side, also called "lateral recumbent position
red blood cells
components of blood, carry oxygen to and carbon dioxide away from cells
respiratory system
system of nose, mouth, throat, lungs, and muscles that brings oxygen into body and expels carbon dioxide
right atrium
receives unoxygenated blood returning from the body
SAED
semi automatic external defribrillator
SAMPLE
signs & symptoms, allergies, medical history, past medications, last oral intake, event that led to injury/illness
scope of practice
set of regulations and ethical considerations that define the scope, or extent and limits of the EMT's job
small intestine
muscular tube between stomach and large intestine, divided into duodenum, jejunum, and ileum which receives partially digested food from stomach and continues digestion, nutrients are absorbed by body through its walls
sphygmomanometer
instrument used to determine arterial pressure with non-invasive technique
standard precautions
strict form of infection control that is based on assumption that all blood and other body fluids are infectious
standing orders
-policy or protocol issued by medical director that authorizes EMT's and others to perform particular skills in certain situations
sternum
breastbone
stomach
muscular sac between esophagus and the small intestine where digestion begins
stress
state of physical and or psychological arousal to a stimulus
subcutaneous layers
layers of fat and soft tissues found below the dermis
superior
toward the head
supine
laying on back
systole
part of cardiac cycle during which myocardial fibers contract and cardiac chambers empty
systolic blood pressure
pressure created in arteries when left ventricle contracts and forces blood out into circulation
T.I.A.
temporary signs of a stroke
tachycardia
abnormal heart rate, usually 120+ beats per minute
tarsals
ankle bones
tendon
tissue that connects muscle to bone
thorax
chest
tibia
the medial and larger bone of lower leg
torso
trunk of body, body without the head and extremities
trachea
windpipe", structure that connects the pharynx to lungs
trendelenburg position
position which the patient's feet and legs are higher than head
ulna
medial bone of forearm
uterus
womb
valve
structure that opens and closes to permit the flow of a fluid in only one direction
venae cavae
superior vena cava and inferior vena cava, these two major veins return blood from body to right atrium
ventral
referring to front of body
ventricles
two lower chambers of heart, right ventricle sends oxygen -poor blood to lungs and left ventricle sends oxygen-rich blood to body
venule
smallest kind of vein
vertebrae
33 bones of spinal column
voluntary muscle
muscle that can be consciously controlled
white blood cells
components of blood, produce substances that help body fight infection
xiphoid process
inferior portion of sternum
zygomatic arches
form the structure of cheeks
Abortion
The delivery of the fetus and placenta before 20 weeks; miscarriage
wrapped in a sterile dressing, placed in a plastic bag, and kept cool
Your unit has arrived on the scene of a patient who stuck his hand in a snowblower and accidentally amputated his right middle and ring fingers. When caring for a patient with an amputation, the amputated part should be:
Your unit has arrived on the scene of a patient who threw gasoline on his grill in an attempt to light the fire faster. There was an explosion, and he has thermal burns on most of the front of his body, causing blisters and discomfort. Once you are sure t
partial thickness
Your unit is on the scene of a warehouse fire. A firefighter just carried out a patient who has burns completely around both of his arms and on the front of his chest. His vitals are respirations of 26, pulse of 110 and BP of 110/70. Circumferential burns
constrict the skin, interrupting circulation to the distal tissues
Bones are covered with a strong, white, fibrous material called the
periosteum
Your unit is assessing an 8-year-old child who fell from the monkey bars at a local park. The patient has vital signs of respirations 24, pulse 100, and BP of 96/P. He did not strike his head or lose consciousness, but his lower right leg may be broken. S
can prevent additional blood loss, pain, and complications from nerve and blood vessel injury.
Your unit is on the scene of a car vs. motorcycle collision. After assuring the scene is safe and conducting an initial assessment, you determine from your rapid trauma exam that the patient has road rash and swollen deformed right thigh. Since his vital
a femur fracture
You are on the scene with a patient who sustained a serious head injury from striking the side of his head. His vital signs are respirations of 24, pulse of 56 and BP of 170/90. You use the Glasgow Coma Scale as a method of
ongoing neurological assessment
Which of the following is not a common cause of hypoperfusion, or shock, in infants and children?
cardiac compromise
The viral disease that results in inflammation of the larynx, trachea, and bronchi in children is called:
croup
Unless there is a specific exception for your state, the medications carried on the ambulance should include
oral glucose
Your unit has just arrived on the scene of a high-speed collision. You determine that it will be necessary to detour the traffic away from the scene. When placing flares at a motor vehicle collision site, things to remember include:
avoiding spilled fuel and dry vegetation
Your unit is on the scene of a multiple vehicle collision. Your patient was found on the ground, lying besides his car and a bystander states he witnessed the patient exit the car, and take two or three steps then fall to the ground. After assessing the p
elevate the legs for spinal shock
An example of a "shockable" rhythm, that is, one for which defibrillation is effective, is
rapid ventricular tachycardia
Pulseless electrical activity is a condition in which:
there is only electrical activity of the heart, without pumping action
Your unit is on the scene of a 23-year-old female office worker who co-workers state was acting like she was intoxicated for the past hour. Apparently, from her Medic Alert� bracelet, she has a history of diabetes. Typical signs and symptoms of hypoglycem
altered mental status, leading to possible unconsciousness
Anything that causes an allergic reaction is called a(n):
allergen
Activated charcoal is given to patients who have ingested a poison or overdose because it:
adsorbs or binds to many poisons
Drugs capable of producing stupor or sleep, which are also used to relieve pain and to quiet coughing are
narcotics
The body loses heat in several ways. One way is when currents of air pass over the body, carrying heat away. This is called
convection
If a heat emergency patient has hot skin, whether moist or dry, the
patient may have heat stroke, which is considered a true emergency
Your unit has arrived on the scene of a patient who attempted to take his life by slashing his wrist. He is a 20-year-old, ambulatory at the scene and pacing back and forth with two seriously bleeding wrists. When dealing with a potential or attempted sui
his/her own safety
The developing baby, or fetus, grows inside the mother's
uterus
The developing fetus floats in a thin membranous bag filled with
amniotic fluid
Once the baby's head delivers, if you see the umbilical cord around the baby's neck, you should:
place two fingers under the cord and remove it from around the baby's neck
Which of the following is true about veins?
Veins have one-way valves that prevent blood from flowing in the wrong direction
Hypoperfusion, or shock, can be caused by blood loss. Severe blood loss results in
inadequate fluid to fill the capillaries and inadequate oxygen and nutrients to the cells
When transmitting on a radio, you should
listen to the channel before starting to talk, hold the microphone 2 to 3 inches from your lips as you speak, depress the microphone and wait a second before talking
The standardized medical abbreviation for loss of consciousness is
LOC
An EMT-Basic may assist with which injectable liquid?
Epinephrine
The method for reporting breathing rate is in respirations per:
minute
On a child over eight years of age, which is the primary site for evaluating a peripheral pulse?
radial
Cool, moist skin may indicate anxiety or
shock
Drug use can cause the pupils to become
either dilated or constricted
You are treating a patient complaining of chest pressure. You completed your assessment, applied oxygen, and are transporting him to the hospital, now that the pain has subsided. His vital signs are BP 134/70, HR 78, and RR22. How often should you reasses
Every 15 minutes
A turbulent breathing sound that may be present during inspiration is called
crowing
The parts of the lower airway are the
trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, and alveoli
Your unit is on the scene of a 22-year-old male patient who has taken a large number of pills in an attempt to kill himself. If a patient has stopped breathing, or has inadequate breathing, the EMT-Basic should provide:
artificial ventilation
Abandonment is acceptable only if the EMT-Basic provider is
in fear of his or her own safety
Expressed or informed consent cannot be given by a patient who is:
mentally incompetent
An insufficiency in the supply of oxygen to the body's tissues is called:
hypoxia
In the event of copious thick secretions or vomiting, you may consider
removing the suction tip and using the large-bore tubing to suction the patient.
The ambulance should be inspected every
tour or shift
Unconscious patients with no suspected spinal injury should be placed in the _____ position.
recovery
An extremity lift or the draw sheet method of moving a patient is appropriate only for a patient:
with no suspected spine injury.
The proper use of your body to facilitate lifting and moving is called body
mechanics
In the acronym "SAMPLE" each letter stands for an element of the patient's history. For example, the "A" stands for
allergies
The pressure created when the heart contracts forcing blood into the arteries is called___blood pressure. When the heart relaxes, the pressure remaining is called ____blood pressure.
systolic:diastolic
When your patient inhales, the intercostal muscles:
and diaphragm contract
The division of the nervous system that controls involuntary motor functions and affects digestion and heart rate is the ______ nervous system.
autonomic
The body's largest artery is the
aorta
Roles and responsibilities of the EMT-Basic include
patient assessment, lifting and moving patients, transport of patients.
Your unit has been dispatched to a local bar in which there has been a fight. Your first priority as an EMT-Basic when called to a scene involving violence is
to be certain the scene is safe before entering
Personal protective equipment (PPE) for body substance isolation (BSI) may include
latex or vinyl gloves
You are caring for a terminally ill patient who tells you, "It's okay. I'm not afraid." This is called the ______stage.
acceptance
The front half of the body is called:
anterior
A list of steps, such as assessment and interventions, to be taken by an EMT-Basic in specific situations, is called a(n)
protocol
In order for a patient to refuse care or transport, the conditions that must be met include
the patient must be fully informed of the risks.
A thrombus, which has broken loose, moving with blood flow is called a(n)
embolism
Your unit is on the scene of a 67-year-old male who has been complaining of substernal chest pain for the past two hours. A contraindication to assisting the patient in taking nitroglycerin tablets is the:
systolic blood pressure is less than 100 mmHg
A common symptom in patients with cardiac compromise is an abnormal heart beat. A heart rate that is too slow is called
bradycardia
The most important drug the EMT-Basic can give to a patient with a heart problem is
oxygen
You are on the scene of a 21-year-old female patient who is wheezing and in obvious distress. Her co-worker states that she has a history of asthma and carries a bronchodilater. An asthma attack is often triggered by
an allergic reaction, emotional stress, strenuous exercise
Signs of moderate to severe respirtory distress include all of the following, except
increased pulse rate in children
The face is comprised of 14 irregular shaped bones that are all fused into immovable joints, except
mandible
Indirect medical direction involves the following of written standing orders called:
protocols
Which of the following is true regarding the airway structure of an infant or child?
A child's tongue is proportionately larger than an adult's
When assessing breathing for quality, normally we should observe
the use of accessory muscles to breathe
The structure that divides the chest cavity from the abdominal cavity is the
diaphragm
Epinephrine is administered to reverse the symptoms of severe allergic reaction. It also increases the heart rate. This action of the drug is known as a
side effect
Bronchodilators an EMT-Basic can assist a patient in taking come in the form of a(n)
inhaler
The medication that absorbs some poisons and is used to treat poisonings and overdoses that are swallowed is
activated charcoal
Writing in the prehospital care report that you provided an intervention that you actually did not provide is called
falsification
When noting times on your prehospital care report you should use the times
as given by the dispatcher
Guidelines for interpersonal communication include
being aware of your position and body language.
When asking about your patient's history of present illness, the letter "P" in the memory aid OPQRST means:
provokes
All of the following are considered a significant mechanism of injury, except
fall off a 6-foot ladder
Your unit is on the scene of a 56-year-old male patient who was thrown from a vehicle during a high-speed crash. When conducting your initial assessment, due to the significant mechanism of injury, instead of a focused physical exam, you should perform a(
rapid trauma assessment
If the mechanism of injury exerts great force on the upper body, or if there is any soft tissure damage to the head, face, or neck, you should
apply a cervical collar
The "L" in DCAP-BTLS stands for:
laceration
If your patient is dark-skinned, check the skin color of the:
lips
Part of assessing the ABCs is assessment of the patient's circulation. Check the pulse of a responsive adult patient at the ____ artery.
radial
The AVPU levels of responsiveness include:
painful
The initial assessment has six parts. These include
determining transport priority
The initial assessment is designed to identify immediately life-threatening conditions. These conditions include
severe bleeding
Injury caused by a blow that strikes the body but does not penetrate the skin or other body tissues is called _____ trauma.
blunt force
The "up and over" pattern is an injury type common in ______ collisions.
head-on
Your unit is on the scene of a 59-year-old male patient who was assaulted while attempting to use the ATM outside the local bank. It appears that the patient's neck was slashed. External bleeding from the large veins in the neck can be dangerous because t
venous pressure may be lower than atmospheric pressure, and air may be sucked into the vein
Air in the chest cavity between the lung and chest wall is called a(n)
pneumothorax
Your unit is on the scene of a patient who was assaulted with a knife. He was slashed from side to side with a carving knife. When abdominal organs protrude through a laceration, this is called a(n)
evisceration
Adding a reservoir to a bag mask device increases the oxygen delivered to your patient from 50 percent to nearly _______ percent.
100
You are on the scene of an unconscious 33-year-old male patient. You have no reason to believe that there was any trauma involved in the call. As you insert an oropharyngeal airway into your patient, he begins to gag. You should
remove the airway
The diameter of the patient's little finger is a common method of sizing a nasopharyngeal airway (NPA). Another method of sizing is to measure
the nostril to the earlobe
When a D cylinder of oxygen is full its pressure should be _______ psi.
2,000 to 2,200
Most airway problems are caused by
the tongue
When suctioning an infant or child, use a rigid tip but be careful not to
touch the back of the airway
When performing artificial ventilation on an infant you
must be careful to avoid excessive pressure or volume
During the initial assessment of a trauma patient, which of the following would not be criteria for a rapid transport
An allergic reaction
The abdomen should be inspected for any abnormal ____ or discoloration.
distention
Any patient who presents with an altered mental status may be suffering from ______, which can be assessed with a drop of the patient's blood and a(n):
a low blood sugar level/glucometer
Which of the following is an example of pertinent past medical history for a patient presenting with chest pain?
Cardiac bypass five years ago
Assessment, intervention, and ______ of the patient, is the key to all emergency care provided in the prehospital environment.
reassessment
The EMT-Basic may only administer or assist with administration of medication that is:
identified in local protocols
Every medication that the EMT-Basic will administer, or assist the patient with, requires:
an order from medical direction
The medication most commonly administered by the EMT-Basic is
oxygen
Medications administered by injection, such as an epinephrine auto-injector, should be injected:
only in specific muscle groups
When obtaining information about the onset of dyspnea in a patient, the EMT-Basic would ask any of the following questions, except:
On a scale of 1 to 10, how bad is your breathing difficulty?
A _______ is a device that consists of a canister of aerosolized medication and a plastic container that is used to deliver a medication by inhalation.
metered dose inhaler
A child in respiratory distress will have more prominent retractions than an adult would in the same situation because:
the child's chest wall muscles are not well-developed
Of the following conditions, which one is the most frequently seen in patients with cardiac dysfunction leading to congestive heart failure?
pulmonary edema
All of the following are late signs of pulmonary embolism, except
increased blood pressure
A 40-year-old male is complaining of chest discomfort, shortness of breath, and weakness. The EMT-Basic should immediately suspect
acute coronary syndrome
When caring for adolescents, it is important to remember that adolescents
want to be treated like adults and assessed away from parents
The total blood volume of an average preschooler is approximately ____ percent of the total body weight.
8
Your 2-year-old female patient is in obvious respiratory distress with stridor and audible wheezing. The most likely cause might be
upper airway obstruction
The signs and symptoms of shock (hypoperfusion) in children include
pale, cool, clammy skin
Which of the following is the most common cause of seizures in infants?
high fever
A child who has been struck by a vehicle may present with a triad of injuries, including the legs
head and abdomen
Indications that your 8-year-old male trauma patient may be abused would include
evidence of past or repeated burns
The ______ branch off from the base of the aorta and are responsible for supplying the heart itself with a rich supply of oxygenated blood.
coronary arteries
The major difference between the fully automated AED and the semi-automated AED is that the
the fully automated AED will deliver the shock itself.
The EMT-Basic is applying AED pads to a patient and discovers that the patient is wearing a transdermal patch on the right upper chest. The EMT-Basic should
remove the patch, with gloved hands, and wipe the site. Then apply the patch.
A type of medication used to reduce the amount of fluid in the body due to chronic heart failure is a:
diuretic
A condition where there is a build-up of fluid in the body from the pump failure of the heart is called:
congestive heart failure
The heart contains specialized _____, known as the cardiac conduction system, which allows it to generate electrical impulses.
conductive tissue
Which of the following patients might the EMT-Basic expect to find with an altered mental status?
A 28-year-old male with a history of seizures, who just stopped seizing.
For the patient experiencing an allergic reaction, the EMT-Basic should focus the physical exam on
complaints involving the airway, breathing, and circulation.
Epinephrine is the drug of choice for severe allergic reactions because:
it constricts blood vessels to improve blood pressure, it relaxes smooth muscle in the lungs to improve breathing, it works to reverse swelling and hives
Which of the following statements about poison ivy is true?
You do not need direct contact with the plant to have a reaction.
Your unit is on the scene with a group of skiers who were just found after being lost for the past 12 hours. Upon assessment you find that one of the skiers has frostbite in the toes on his left foot. Care for this patient will include:
splinting the left foot
Initially unconscious after being involved in a motor vehicle collision, the patient awakens to find that he cannot feel or move either of his legs. The patient most likely has
sustained damage to the spinal cord.
If a first responder is holding manual in-line spinal stabilization of a patient with a suspected spinal injury upon arrival, the EMT-Basic should:
instruct the first responder to continue stabilization and not let go.
Your unit has responded to the scene of a two-car collision. One patient is seated behind the wheel and the crew is preparing a KED. Another patient with a suspected spinal injury is found standing. You should:
immobilize the patient while standing and/or use the standing takedown technique.
During a rapid trauma exam, the EMT-Basic discovers leaking cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). Which of the following locations on the body might this be found?
any orifice in the head
Early signs that a person may have lost control and may become violent include all of the following, except
withdrawal
Traumatic factors that could mimic a behavioral emergency include
significant blood loss from internal bleeding
The structure of the umbilical cord and the blood traveling through it prevent the cord from:
kinking
Your unit has responded to a call for a 19-year-old woman in labor to assist with the delivery of her full-term infant. Now that both mother and child are stable, it is time to manage the umbilical cord. You should
place two clamps on the cord and cut between them
Your unit was dispatched to the shopping mall where you find a 30-year-old patient who is having a seizure. She is obviously pregnant. When a pregnant woman experiences a seizure:
is can be a life-threatening emergency for the mother and the fetus
Allowing the infant to breast-feed soon after childbirth
stimulates the release of oxytocin, which causes uterine contractions
You are on the scene of an 18-year-old female who you found in the bathroom with an infant partially delivered. You quickly assist in the delivery of a baby boy. One of the most important things the EMT-Basic can do in the care of the newborn is:
keep the infant warm and dry
After the amniotic sac ruptures, the umbilical cord, rather than the head may be the first part presenting at the vaginal opening. This is called a
prolapsed cord
During the delivery of multiple fetuses, if the second infant has not delivered within 10 minutes, the EMT-Basic should
transport the mother to the hospital for delivery of the second infant
vehicle is considered stable when
it can no longer move, rock or bounce
Using a police or other emergency vehicle escort enroute to the hospital is
dangerous and should be avoided
Which of the following is not considered a warning device approved for ambulances?
Public address (PA) system
As an early priority at the scene of any hazardous materials emergency:
safety zones are established for rescue operations.
At the scene of a MCI, sectors are established to
provide an orderly means of decision making
Trending is a step in the __________________ assessment.
ongoing
Your unit has responded to the scene of a patient who is in respiratory distress. He is a 22-year-old and you have obtained vital signs of respirations 34, pulse 110, and BP of 160/88. Signs of insufficient supply of oxygen to the body's tissues in an adu
pink mucous membranes.
When suctioning a patient's airway, you should suction slowly as you
withdraw the tip from the patient's mouth.
The first element of the scene size-up is scene safety. The EMT-Basic's first safety concern is for that of:
one's self
Your unit is on the scene of a call for breathing difficulty, which occurred in an adult care facility. The patient is a 69-year-old woman in respiratory distress. Her vitals are stable but she has a persistent productive cough. The disease in which the b
chronic bronchitis
Upon arrival at the scene of a motor vehicle collision you assure that the scene is safe. While conducting the initial assessment, once your patient's life-threats are under control, you will next
decide on the patient's transport priority
The assessment steps you take for the purpose of discovering and dealing with life-threatening problems are called the ______ assessment
initial
Finding out what is or may be wrong with a medical patient is similar to identifying the mechanism of injury with a trauma patient. This is called
nature of illness
What caused an injury (e.g., rapid deceleration causing the knees to strike the dashboard) is known as the
mechanism of injury
When using the head-tilt, chin-lift maneuver to open an unconscious patient's airway, your hand(s) should be placed on the
forehead, with the fingertips of the other hand under the jaw
When two rescuers are providing bag mask ventilation
one squeezes the bag while the other maintains a mask seal
The diaphragm is a
muscular structure that divides the chest cavity from the abdominal cavity
The non-breathing adult patient should be ventilated by the EMT-Basic at a rate of once every _____ seconds
5
All of the following conditions may require oxygen administration, except:
a twisted ankle injury
Suction is applied after the rigid tip is in place and
while withdrawing the catheter or Yankauer.
When ventilating a patient with a stoma, the EMT-Basic should:
ventilate by sealing a pediatric-sized mask over the stoma
All of the following are hazards of oxygen cylinder handling, except
oxygen regulators should be tightened with a steel wrench.
Before connecting the regulator to an oxygen tank the EMT-Basic should:
crack" the cylinder valve slightly to clear any dirt from the delivery port
In-line stabilization is performed under which circumstances?
suspected spinal injury
Which of the following is the mnemonic for assessment of a patient's mental status?
AVPU
An initial assessment (IA) of the circulation includes all of the following, except
obtaining a blood pressure
Which of the following is not a sign of inadequate breathing?
chest wall symmetry
A major factor to consider when assessing the condition of the skin would be the
effects of the environment on the patient
Apparent in some patients with chronic respiratory diseases, ______ is designed to keep the airway pressure in the smaller bronchioles higher during exhalation so they do not collapse
pursed lip breathing
A childhood respiratory condition that presents with drooling, while the child sits straight upright, jutting his neck out, is called
epiglottitis
While assessing a 76-year-old male who is lying in bed, the EMT-Basic hears gurgling coming from the patient's throat, and the lungs sound like fluid. The patient is cyanotic and gasping for breaths. What treatment should be done immediately?
Sit the patient upright and begin positive pressure ventilations
A significant sign of chest trauma, in which an area of the chest moves inwardly during inhalations and outward during exhalation, is called
paradoxical motion
When using a flow-restricted, oxygen-powered ventilation device, the oxygen concentration being delivered is ____ percent.
100
Before the EMT-Basic can assist a patient with an MDI he/she must
administer oxygen, verify the prescription is the patient's, get approval from medical control.
A severe asthmatic attack that does not respond to either oxygen or medication is called
status asthmaticus
Prolonged ____ can lead to too much carbon dioxide elimination, resulting in muscle cramps in the hands and feet.
hyperventilation
Chest pain caused by a narrowed coronary artery, which cannot supply enough oxygen to a portion of the heart during exertion is called
angina pectoris
The medication nitroglycerin is often prescribed to patients with a history of chest pain. The action of nitroglycerin is:
dilation of blood vessels
Chaotic electrical activity originating from many sites in the heart is called
V-Fib
Which of the following is true regarding asystole?
The heart has ceased generating electrical impulses
A 44-year-old female patient with chronic hypertension, a mild cough, and allergies was working in the yard when she suddenly felt a severe substernal chest pain radiating to her neck and down her left arm. Her husband called EMS. What is her chief compla
Pain radiating up the neck and down one arm
Your unit has responded to the local ski resort's first aid room. A ski patroller tells you that Sally has an open fracture of the right femur after colliding with a tree while skiing. The wound is bleeding and painful. How often should you reassess her v
every 5 minutes
Your unit is on the scene of a 34-year-old female who is in respiratory distress. During your assessment, you note she is using her accessory muscles to breathe. Examples of accessory muscles of breathing are the______muscles.
sternocleidomastoid
Serious blood pressure problems are generally considered to exist when the
systolic pressure falls below 90 mm/Hg.
You are on the scene of a 38-year-old male who fell off a ladder, striking the right side of his head. His vital signs are currently stable and you note equal strength in all four extremities. When checking a patient's pupils, shining a bright light into
constrict
Skin color and temperature can provide clues to significant blood loss in a patient because:
constriction of the blood vessels causes the skin to become pale
The patient experiencing inadequate breathing may show which of the following signs?
Movements associated with breathing limited to the abdomen
The rate of respirations is classified as normal, rapid, or slow. The normal range for an adult at rest is between ___breaths per minute.
12 and 20
When measuring the radial pulse, place:
your first three fingers on the thumbside of the patient's wrist just above the crease.
The term automaticity refers to the property of the heart that allows it to
generate and conduct electrical impulses on its own.
The blood vessel through which oxygen-rich blood is returned to the heart from the lungs is the:
pulmonary vein
You are treating a 72-year-old male patient who has the signs and symptoms of a heart attack. His vital signs are respirations of 24, pulse of 140, and BP of 98/64. A complication of a heart attack is mechanical pump failure. This can lead to
cardiac arrest, shock, fluid in the lungs
Hardening of the arteries," a stiffening of the artery wall resulting from calcium deposits, is called:
arteriosclerosis
One reason patients with cardiac compromise think they might have the "flu" is because the symptoms include
sweating with nausea
An example of trending a patient's condition would be
taking multiple sets of vital signs and comparing
The first step in the ongoing assessment of a critical patient is to:
repeat the initial assessment
All of the following are signs and symptoms that indicate the AED should be applied to a patient, except
unable to speak
After delivering one shock with the AED to a patient found not breathing and pulseless, the AED states, "no shock advised." The EMT-Basic should
continue with the steps of CPR
Which of the following types of patients are known to present with atypical presentations of acute coronary syndromes?
the elderly,diabetes, women
The EMT-Basic has assisted a patient with chest pain to take two nitroglycerin tablets, which have been prescribed to the patient. The patient's chest pain is less, but still present, and the last set of vital signs are: respiratory rate of 18, pulse of 8
stop giving nitroglycerin and check with medical control for directions.
In a normal heart the electrical impulse is generated in the _____ at the sinoatrial node.
right artium
The severity of shock is classified into three catagories. When the body is able to maintain blood pressure and perfusion, it is called _______ shock.
compensated
A crush injury occurs when force is transmitted from the body's exterior to its internal structures. An example of a crush injury is a
ruptured spleen
Your unit has arrived on the scene of a slashing. The police are on the scene advising; the scene is secure, and the patient is bleeding severely from a neck wound. During your initial assessment, one of your first steps is to control the bleeding from th
occlusive dressing
Your unit responds to a basketball court where you find a 22-year-old male who went up for a shot and came down hard-breaking his right thigh. His vital signs are respirations of 22, pulse of 100, and BP of 120/76. A traction splint is applied to a femur
reduce muscle spasms
Bones are living tissue and bleed when they are injured. A simple closed tibia-fibula fracture can result in blood loss of
500 cc
Your unit is on the scene of a local nursing home where EMS was called for an elderly patient who fell. Upon your assessment it appears as if the patient may have a painful right hip. Stabilization of a hip fracture is accomplished by
binding the legs together with a blanket placed between them.
Some parts of the spine are more susceptible to injury than others. The two parts most susceptible are the
cervical and lumbar vertebrae
A patient is complaining of low back pain from an old herniated disk injury. You find him standing in the kitchen holding onto the countertop, and he is in a lot of pain. What would be the best method to immobilize him?
Use the standing takedown onto a long backboard.
Your unit is on the scene at the local YMCA basketball courts. You are assessing a 14-year-old male who was slammed to the floor, with no loss of consciousness, while playing basketball. The patient is groggy and has a headache. Which of the following inj
concussion
You are using the Glasgow Coma Scale (GSC) to monitor the mental status of a head-injured patient. You assess the patient for verbal response, motor response, and
eye opening
Systolic blood pressure is a measurement of pressure in the
arteries while the heart is contracting
The nerves that carry messages from the brain to the body are the _______ nerves.
motor
You are assessing an unconscious 29-year-old male construction worker who fell 20 feet to the ground from a platform. You find blood and clear fluid draining from his nose. His vitals are: respirations of 24, pulse 64 and BP 160/92. You should suspect
a skull fracture
You unit is on the scene of a 59-year-old male patient who is complaining of chest pain. You have completed an initial assessment and are conducting the focused history and physical exam. One way to remember the questions asked to obtain a history of pres
OPQRST
Your unit is on the scene of a 22-year-old female who was thrown from her motorcycle. You have completed the initial assessment and a rapid trauma exam. An easy way to remember what you are trying to find when you assess a suspected injured area of the pa
DCAP-BTLS
Bullets cause damage in two ways. One is damage caused directly by the projectile. The other is called
cavitation
You have arrived on the scene of a patient who was shot with a handgun in the right upper leg. As you begin your initial assessment, it is clear that the patient has serious external bleeding, which needs to be handled right away. If, after you have appli
apply additional dressings on top of it and hold firmly in place
The layer of the skin that consists of mostly fatty cells and connective tissue is called the:
subcutaneous layer
You have just arrived on the scene of a 38-year-old male who was accidentally shot in the right upper chest when his rifle went off as he was climbing down from a tree stand. The hunter has an open chest wound and is in respiratory distress. How should op
Chest wounds should be covered immediately with a gloved hand
A third-degree burn is also called a_____burn
full-thickness
A patient has sustained second-degree burns on the front of his torso and the front of his right leg. What percentage of his body surface is burned?
27
The rapid trauma exam is performed:
when a trauma patient is unconscious.
The _____ takes more time to complete than other exams and is usually performed when all ongoing critical care has been managed.
detailed physical exam
After being involved in a moderate speed motor vehicle collision, the driver of the vehicle is presenting with temporary concussion-like insult to the spinal cord that causes effects below the level of the injury. The EMT-Basic should suspect
spinal shock
Sizing of an immobilization collar to a patient is based on
the design of the device
Signs and symptoms of a diabetic emergency include all of the following, except
decreased heart rate
The distinguishing factor between anaphylaxis and a mild allergic reaction is that, in anaphylaxis, the patient will have
respiratory distress
The use of activated charcoal is contraindicated for the patient who has ingested
an oven or drain cleaner
One way the body cools itself is by producing perspiration. Perspiration on the skin vaporizes. This method of cooling is called
evaporation
heat emergency patient with moist, pale, normal-to-cool skin may have which of the following signs and symptoms?
Muscular cramps, usually in the legs and abdomen
The general term for poisons produced by living organisms, such as animals or plants, is
toxin
Your patient's abnormal behavior may be due to a medical or traumatic condition. These problems include
inadequate blood supply to the brain, lack of oxygen, low blood sugar
Risk factors associated with suicide include all of the following, except
ages 25 to 35 years which show a high suicide rate.
When dealing with a violent or potentially violent patient, you should
not let the patient stand between you and an exit
What type of emergencies may require the EMT-Basic to administer activated charcoal?
Overdose
Oral glucose is most commonly administered in what form?
gel
Because nitroglycerin causes a slight drop in blood pressure, low blood pressure is a(n)_________ to give the drug.
contraindication
Albuterol, Ventolin, and Proventil are names of prescribed medications your patient may have to treat:
breathing difficulty
Every drug is listed in the U.S. Pharmacopoeia by its generic name. An example of a generic name for a medication is
epinephrine
Upon arrival at the scene of a patient, you determine the scene is safe and you have enough help available. You begin to question the patient. What the patient tells you is wrong is the
chief complaint
The focused history and physical exam of the medical patient is guided by the information obtained from the _____ questions.
OPQRST and SAMPLE
An EMT-Basic administers medications
under the direct order of a licensed physician.
The route and form in which a drug is given is referred to as the
method of administration
Following the administration of a medication, it is necessary to ____ and note any changes in the patient's condition.
perform an ongoing assessment
A medication that has a past due expiration date
should not be used
You have just arrived on the scene of a construction site. Apparently one of the workers, a 26-year-old male, is having difficulty breathing, and expressed that he has food allergies. The EMT-Basic should suspect that a patient who has a known serious all
have a prescribed epinephrine auto-injector
Signs and symptoms associated with anaphylaxis/allergic reaction that involve the cardiovascular system may include all of the following, except
nausea and vomiting
You respond to the scene of a poisoning. According to the bystanders, the patient drank a very strong quantity of an acid about 30 minutes ago. If an acid is ingested, a majority of the chemical burn will occur in the
stomach
You have responded to an alleyway on a very cold night. Your patient is an elderly patient who wandered off from the adult home and has been laying collapsed in the snowbank for at least an hour. Care of the patient with generalized hypothermia includes e
rough handling may induce a cardiac dysrhythmia
To maintain an open airway in the pediatric patient, it is important to
position the child's head in a more neutral position than an adult's
Signs of epiglottitis include the patient
sitting in the tripod position, sitting very still, but working hard to breathe, complaining of painful swallowing
Prior to delivery, if the mother is in the supine position she may develop dizziness and a drop in her blood pressure. This is called
supine hypotension syndrome, caused by the weight of the baby compressing on the inferior vena cava.
Which of the following is true regarding the delivery of a baby.
Keep the baby at the level of the mother's vagina until the cord is clamped and cut.
Excessive pre-birth bleeding may be the result of placenta previa. This condition occurs when the
placenta is formed in an abnormal location that will not allow for a normal delivery of the fetus.
The pulse rate of an infant or child with severe respiratory difficulty will
decrease
If a newborn's heart rate is below 100 beats per minute, the EMT-Basic should
provide artificial respirations at a rate of 40 to 60 per minute.
You unit has arrived on the scene of a private residence where you are met by a 23-year-old woman who is nine months pregnant. She tells you this is her third child and that her water just broke. The "bag of waters" is also known as the
amniotic sac
Since newborns can lose heat quickly, an EMT-Basic should
dry and wrap the infant in a warm blanket.
When caring for a 3-year-old patient it is important to remember that
fears needles and instruments
Which of the following statements is true regarding pediatric patients in respiratory distress?
nasal flaring and audible wheezing are early signs.
An important concept to understand about shock (hypoperfusion) in infants and children is that
their bodies compensate for blood loss for a long time.
You arrive on the scene of a bicycle crash involving a car. Your 10-year-old male patient was riding his bike. He is unconscious and has a great deal of bleeding from an open leg wound. Your first action should be
assure an open airway and cervical spine stabilization.
You are caring for a 6-year-old female patient who has reportedly fallen off her bed. During your exam you note small, round burns to the girl's back and several bruises of different colors on her legs and arms. Her parents state the child "falls a lot.
the child may have been abused
Once the placenta has been delivered, the EMT-Basic should
bring it to the hospital for examination.
While assisting a patient with childbirth, the EMT-Basic recognizes the presence of meconium staining. This finding indicates
The fetus may be having significant stress.
During which point of pregnancy does the fetus turn into position for normal childbirth?
The third trimester
After delivery, the EMT-Basic should inspect the perineum for
tearing and bleeding
A 4-year-old child has been seizing non-stop for 12 minutes. There is no sign of trauma, no fever, and no history of seizures. In order to assure adequate oxygenation, the EMT-Basic should immediately
begin positive pressure ventilations with oxygen
It may be difficult to feel a carotid pulse in infants because
their necks are short and fat
Which of the following is true about using a siren when responding to an emergency?
You assume that some motorists will hear your siren, yet ignore it.
You are transporting a 56-year-old male patient who called EMS due to his crushing substernal chest pain and difficulty breathing. Upon arrival at the ED your PCR is being prepared and a crew member asks about some of the terminology you are writing. The
R/O
A specialized lifting and moving technique that uses the large muscles of the legs is called a
power lift
You have just completed your assessment of an elderly male who was found on the ground. After conducting an interview of the bystanders, you determine there was little mechanism of injury involved here. When moving the patient, who has no suspected trauma
extremity lift
A device designed for moving patients over rough or irregular terrain is called a
Stokes stretcher
Which of the following is not considered by the courts and juries when evaluating negligence?
Whether the EMT-Basic asked permission to treat the patient.
Your unit is on the scene of a 45-year-old male patient who has been getting radiation treatments daily for terminal lung cancer that has spread throughout his body. As you assess the patient, it is evident that he is dying and may not survive the trip to
bargaining
Advanced directives include
do not resuscitate orders
If the spouse of an unconscious patient agrees to let the EMT-Basic treat her husband, in the absence of an advance directive, this would still be an example of _________ consent
implied
As an EMT-Basic, you must maintain up-to-date knowledge and skills. One way to accomplish this is by
attending continuing education conferences.
The infectious disease that kills more healthcare workers in the United States every year than any other disease is
hepatitis B
Your patient is lying flat on his back in bed. He is in the ______position
supine
Once the EMT-Basic has initialized care, leaving the patient without assuring the continuation of proper medical care is called:
abandonment
A system of internal and external reviews and audits of an EMS system to ensure a high quality of care is called
quality improvement
If you make an error while writing a prehospital care report, you should
draw a single horizontal line through the error, initial it, and write the correct information
Each individual box in the prehospital care report is called
a data element
When caring for a patient who does not speak the same language as you, remember to
use an interpreter, such as a family member or friend.
If you receive an order for a medication or a procedure from your medical direction, you should
repeat the order word for word
One of two basic ways a rescuer can gain access to a patient is _____, which requires no specialized tools
simple
Your unit has just arrived on the scene of a multiple car collision. One of the vehicles took down an electrical pole. As the EMT-Basic in charge of the scene, you should always consider a downed power line
to be electrically alive
The most common collisions in which ambulances are involved are those that occur:
at intersections
All of the following are considered a component of pre-run preparations, except
dispatch pre-arrival instructions
A commonly used emergency response communications resource service for hazardous material incidents is called
CHEMTREC
Once the EMS incident commander has established sectors at an MCI, a team leader is assigned to each sector and wears a ______ to be easily recognized.
highly visible reflective vest
An ambulance should be inspected every
shift
Amniotic Sac
The fluid-filled, baglike membrane in which the fetus develops
Apgar Score
A scoring system for assessing the status of a newborn that assigns a number value to each of fave areas of assessment
Birth Canal
The vagina and cervix
Bloody Show
A small amount of blood at the vagina that appears at the beginning of labor and may include a plug of pink-tinged mucus that is discharged when the cervix begins to dilate
Breech Presentation
A delivery in which the buttocks come out first
Crowning
The appearance of the infant's head at the vaginal opening during labor
Fetal Alcohol Syndrome
A condition of infants who are born to alcoholic mothers; characterized by physical and mental retardation and a variety of congenital abnormalities
Gestational Diabetes
Develops during pregnancy in women who did not have diabetes before
Limb Presentation
A delivery in which the presenting part is a single arm, leg or foot
Meconium
A dark green material in the amniotic fluid that can indicate disease in the newborn; it can be aspirated into the infant's lungs during deliver; the baby's first bowel movement
Multigravida
A woman who had had previous pregnancies
Multipara
A woman who had had more that one live birth
Nuchal Cord
An umbilical cord that is wrapped around the infant's neck
Pelvic Inflammatory Disease
An infection of the fallopian tubes and the surrounding tissues of the pelvis
Perineum
The area of skin between the vagina and the anus
Preeclampsia
A condition of late pregnancy that ivolves headache, visual changes, and swelling of the hands and feet; also called pregnancy induced hypertension
Presentation
The position in which the infant is born; the part of the infant that appears first
Primigravida
A woman who is experiencing her first pregnancy
Primipara
A woman who had had one live birth
Prolapse of the Umbilical Cord
A situation in which the umbilical cord comes out of the vagina before the infant
Spinal Bifida
A development defect in which a portion of the spinal cord of the meninges may protrude outside of the vertebrae and possibly even outside of the body, usually at the lower third of the spine in the lumbar area
Umbilical Cord
The conduit connecting mother to infant via the placenta; contains tho arteries and one vein
Vagina
The outermost cavity of a woman's reproductive system; the lower party of the birth canal
Adolescents
Children between 12 to 18 years of age
Child Abuse
Any improper or excessive action that injures or otherwise harms a child or infant; includes neglect and physical, sexual and emotional abuse
Dehydration
A state in which fluid losses are greater than fluid intake into the body ,leading to shock and death if untreated
Febrile Seizure
Seizure relation to a fever
Gastrostomy Tube
A feeding tube placed directly through the wall of the abdomen; used in patients who cannot ingest liquids or solids
Hypoventilation
Reduced minute volume, either from reduced rate and/or depth of breathing
Infancy
The first year of life
Meningitis
Inflammation of the meginges that cover the spinal cord and the brain
Neonatal
The first month after birth
Occiput
The back of the head
Pediatrics
A specialized medical practice devoted to the care of the young
Preschool-Age
Children between 3 to 6 years of age
Rigor Mortis
Stiffening of the body after death
School-Age
Children between 6 to 12 years of age
Shaken Baby Syndrome
Bleeding within the head and damage to the cervical spine of an infant who has been intentionally and forcibly shaken; a form of child abuse
Shunt
A tube that diverts excess cerebrospinal fluid from the brain to the abdomen
Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS)
Death of an infant or young child that remains unexplained after a complete autopsy
Toddler
The period following infancy until 3 years of age
Tracheostomy Tube
A tube inserted into the trachea in children who cannot breath on their own; passes through the neck directly into the major airways
Anemia
A deficiency of red blood cells or hemoglobin
Blanching
Turning white
Capillary refill time (CRT)
The amount of time that it takes for blood to return to the capillary bed after applying pressure to the skin or nailbed; indicates the status of end-organ perfusion; reliable in children younger than 6 yrs
Crackles
A crackling breath sound caused by the flow of air through liquid in the lungs; a sign of lower airway obstruction
Croup
Infection of the airway below the level of the vocal cords, usually caused by a virus
Epiglottitis
An infection of the soft tissue in the area above the vocal cords
Grunting
An 'uh' sound heard during exhalation; reflects the child's attempt to keep the alveoli open; a sign of increased work of breathing
Head Bobbing
The head lifts and tilts back during inspiration, then moves back during expiration; a sign of increased work of breathing
Nares
The external openings of the nostrils. Asingle nostril opening is called a naris
Pediatric Assessment Triangle (PAT)
A structured assessment tool that allows you to rapidly form a general impression of the infant or child without touching; consists of assessing appearance, work of breathing, and circulation to the skin
Pediatric Resuscitation Tape Measure
A tape used to estimate an infant or child's weight on the basis of length; appropriate drug doses and equipment sizes are listed on the tape
Retractions
Drawing in of the intercostal muscles and sternum during inspiration; a sign of increased work of breathing
Septum
The central divider in the nose
Stiffening Position
Optimum neutral head position for the uninjured child who require airway management
Tachypnea
Increased respiratory rate
Tenting
A condition in which the skin does not quickly return to its original shape after being pinched; indicates dehydration
Tidal Volume
The amount of air that is delivered to the lungs and airways in one inhalation
Transition Phase
A time period that allows the infant or child to become familiar with you and your equipment; only appropriate if the child's condition is stable
Advance Directives
Written doc. that specifies medical treatment for a competent patient should the patient become unable to make decisions; also called living wills
Aneurysm
A swelling or enlargement of a part of an artery, resulting from weakening of the arterial wall
Arteriosclorosis
A disease that is characterized by hardening, thickening and calcification of the arterial walls
Atherosclorosis
A disorder in which cholesterol and calcium build up inside the walls of blood vessels, forming plaque, which eventually leads to partial or complete blockage of blood flow and the formation of clots that can break off and embolize
Cataracts
Clouding of the lens of the eye or its surrounding transparent membranes
Collagen
A protein that is the chief component of connective tissues and bones
Compensated Shock
The early stage of shock, in which the body can still compensate for blood loss
Decompensated Shock
The late stage of shock, when blood pressure is falling
Delirium
A change in mental status marked by the inability to focus, think logically and maintain attention
Dementia
The slow onset of progressive disorientation, shortened attention span and loss of cognitive function
Elastin
A protein found in the elastic tissues such as skin and artery walls
Elder Abuse
Any action on the part of an older person's family member, caregiver or other associated person that takes advantage of the older individual's person, or emotional state; also called granny beating and parent battering
Hypoxia
A condition in which the body's cells and tissues do not have enough oxy
Kyphosis
A forward curling of the back caused by an abnormal increase in the curvature of the spine
Syncope
A fainting spell or transient loss of consciousness, often caused by an interruption of blood flow to the brain
Vasoconstriction
The narrowing of a blood vessel
Vasodilation
The widening of a blood vessel
Burst Fracture
Compression fracture of the vertebrae that typically results from a higher energy mechanism such as a motor vehicle crash or fall from substantial height
Central Cord Syndrome
A form of incomplete spinal cord injury in which some of the signals from the brain to the body are not received; results in weak or absent motor function, which is more pronounced in the upper extremities than the lower
Compression Fractures
Stable spinal cord injuries in which often only the anterior third of the vertebra is collapsed. This type of racture often results from minimal trauma
Polypharmacy
Simultaneous use of many medications
Septicemia
The disease state that results presence of microorganisms of their toxic products in the bloodstream
Stable Spinal Injury
A spinal injury that has a low risk of leading to permanent neurologic deficit or structural deformity
Unstable Spinal Injury
A spinal injury that has a high risk of permanent neurologic deficit of structural deformity
Casualty Collection Area
An area set up by physicians, nurses and other hospital staff near a major disaster scene where patients can receive further triage and medical care
Chemical Transportation Emergency Center (CHEMTREC)
An agency that assists emergency personnel in identifying and handling hazardous materials transport incidents
Command Post
The designated field command center where the incident commander and support personnel are located
Decontamination Area
The designated area in a hazardous materials incident where all patients and rescuers must be decontaminated before going to another area
Hazardous Materials
Any substances that are toxic, poisonous, radioactive, flammable or explosive and cause injury or death with exposure
Hazardous Materials Incident
An incident in which a hazardous material is no longer properly contained and isolated
Incident Commander
The individual who had overall command of the scene in the field
Incident Command System
An organizational system to help control, direct and coordinate emergency responders and resources; also known as an incident managment system (IMS)
Mass-Casualty Incident
An emergency situation involving three or more patients or that can place great demand on the equipment or personnel of the EMS system or had the potential to produce multiple casualties
Rehabilitation Area
The area that provides protection and treatment to fire fighters and other personnel working at an emergency. Here, workers are medically monitored and receive any needed care as they enter and leave scene
Sector Commander
The individual delegated to oversee and coordinate activity in an incident command sector; works under the incident commander
Toxicity Levels
Measures of the risk that a hazardous material poses to the health of an individual who comes into contact w/ it
Transportation Area
The area in a mass-casualty incident where ambulances and crews are organized to transport patients from the treatment area to receiving hospitals
Transportation Officer
The individual in charge of the transportation sector in a mass-casualty incident who assigns patients from the treatment area to awaiting ambulances in transportation area
Treatment Area
Location in a mass-casualty incident where patients are brought after being triaged and assigned a priority, where they are reassessed, treated and monitored until transport to the hospital
Treatment Officer
The individual, usually a physician who is in charge of and directs EMS personnel at the treatment area in mass-casualty incident
Triage Area
Designated are in a mass-casualty incident where the triage officer is located and patients are initially triaged before being taken to the treatment center
Triage Officer
The individual in charge of the incident command triage sector who directs the sorting of patients into triage categories in a mass-casualty incident
Chlorine (CL)
The first chemical agent ever used in warfare. It has a distinct odor of bleach and creates a green haze when released as a gas. Initially it produces upper airway irritation and a choking sensation
Communicability
Describes how easily a disease spreads from one human to another
Contact Hazard
A hazardous agent that gives off very little or no vapors; the skin is the primary route for this type of chemical to enter the body; also called a skin hazard
Contagious
A person infected w/ a disease that is highly communicable
Incubation
Describes the period of time from a person being exposed to a disease to the time when symptoms begin
Lymph Nodes
Area of the lymphatic system where infection fighting cells are housed
Lymphatic System
A passive circulatory system that transports a plasma like liquid called lymph, a thin fluid that bathes the tissues of the body
Miosis
Bilateral pinpoint constricted pupils
Mutagen
Substance that mutates, damages and changes the structures of DNA in the body's cells
Nerve Agents
A class of chemical called organophosphates; they function by blocking an essential enzyme in the nervous system, which causes the body's organs to become overstimulated and burn out
Neurotoxins
Biological agents that are the most deadly substances known to humans; they include botulinum toxin and ricin
Route of Exposure
Manner by which a toxic substance enters the body
Vapor Hazard
An agent that enters the body though the respiratory tract
Vesicants
Blister agents; the primary route of entry for vesicants is through the skin
Viruses
Germs that require a living host to multiply and survive
Volatility
Term used to describe how long a chemical agent will stay on a surface before it evaporates