If an EMT candidate has been convicted of a felony or misdemeanor, he or she should:
contact the state EMS office and provide them with the required documentation.
EMRs such as fire fighters, law enforcement officers, and park rangers, are an integral part of the EMS system because:
the presence of a person trained to initiate basic life support (BLS) care cannot be ensured.
The person who is responsible for authorizing EMTs to perform emergency medical care in the field is the:
medical director.
According to the National EMS Scope of Practice Model, an EMT should be able to:
assist a patient with certain prescribed medications.
Why are prehospital emergency care guidelines updated on a regular basis?
Additional information and evidence indicate that the effectiveness of certain interventions has changed.
An EMS provider who has extensive training in various aspects of advanced life support (ALS) is called a(n):
paramedic
Which of the following descriptions MOST accurately portrays emergency medical services (EMS)?
a team of health care professionals who are responsible for providing emergency care and transportation to the sick and injured
Obtaining continuing medical education is the responsibility of the:
individual EMT.
Continuing education in EMS serves to:
maintain, update, and expand your knowledge and skills.
If a defibrillator manufacturer claims that its device terminates ventricular fibrillation on the first shock 95% of the time, you should:
recognize that this does not mean it will save more lives.
The continuous quality improvement (CQI) process is designed to:
identify areas of improvement and provide remedial training if needed.
The criteria to be licensed and employed as an EMT include:
proof of immunization against certain communicable diseases.
The ____________ deals with the well-being of the EMT, career progression, and EMT compensation.
human resources department
Which of the following scenarios does NOT involve the administration of ALS?
a 64-year-old cardiac arrest patient who is defibrillated with an automated external defibrillator (AED)
Which of the following is a unique function of the emergency medical dispatcher (EMD)?
providing callers with life-saving instructions
You have been working at the scene of a major building collapse for 8 hours. Many injured people are still being removed, and everyone is becoming frustrated and losing focus. This situation is MOST effectively managed by:
requesting a CISM team to provide on-scene peer support.
If you use a waterless handwashing substitute in the field, it is important to:
wash your hands with soap and water at the hospital.
The final stage of death and dying is MOST commonly displayed as:
acceptance.
Which of the following is the MOST effective strategy for managing stress?
Focus on delivering high-quality patient care.
If it is not possible to adequately clean your ambulance at the hospital following a call, you should:
clean the ambulance at your station in a designated area that is well ventilated.
A critical incident stress debriefing should be conducted no longer than ________ hours following the incident.
72
A positive TB skin test indicates that:
you have been exposed to the disease.
The MOST serious consequence of drug or alcohol abuse among EMS personnel is:
substandard or inappropriate patient care.
The simplest yet most effective method of preventing the spread of an infectious disease is to:
wash your hands in between patient contacts.
The general adaptation syndrome is characterized by which of the following phases?
alarm response, reaction and resistance, and recovery
Your partner, a veteran EMT who you have worked with regularly for the past 4 years, seems unusually agitated during a call involving an elderly patient. Upon arrival back at your station, you note the obvious smell of alcohol on his breath. What should y
Discreetly report your suspicions to your supervisor.
The hepatitis B vaccine program, a component of the infection control plan, addresses all of the following issues, EXCEPT:
family history of hepatitis.
Which of the following signs would indicate that your partner is experiencing significant stress?
isolation from the rest of the crew
While providing care to a patient, blood got onto the ambulance stretcher. Because the stretcher was not properly cleaned afterward, a virus was transmitted to another emergency medical technician (EMT) several days later. What route of transmission does
indirect contact
Vector-borne transmission of an infectious organism occurs via:
animals or insects.
Which of the following is the MOST significant factor in determining if a person will become ill from certain germs?
immunity
What type of stress reaction occurs when an EMT is exposed to many insignificant stressors over a period of several months or years?
cumulative stress reaction
While on duty, your partner asks you out on a date and touches you in an inappropriate location without your consent. You should:
tell your partner to stop and report the incident to your supervisor.
You and your partner respond to the residence of a 66-year-old male with shortness of breath. As you are assessing the patient, his wife tells you that he was recently diagnosed with lung cancer. The patient is verbally abusive and tells you that failure
anger
You are summoned to a convalescent center for an 88-year-old female with an altered mental status. A staff nurse advises you that the patient has terminal cancer and her physician stated that she would probably die within the next few hours; a valid do no
make her comfortable and provide emotional support.
Upon arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle crash, you find a single patient still seated in his car. There are no scene hazards. As you approach the vehicle, you note that the patient is semiconscious and has a large laceration to his forehead. You sho
direct your partner to apply manual in-line support of the patient's head.
Which of the following conditions or situations presents the MOST unique challenge to the EMT when immobilizing an elderly patient on a long backboard?
abnormal spinal curvature
You have two patients who were involved in a motor vehicle crash when their SUV struck a tree�one with neck and back pain, and the other with a deformed left femur. The patient with the deformed femur states that he does not want to be placed on a hard bo
Immobilize the patient with neck and back pain on a long backboard and place him on the wheeled stretcher; place the patient with the deformed femur on a folding stretcher secured to the squad bench.
An 81-year-old female fell and struck her head. You find the patient lying on her left side. She is conscious and complains of neck and upper back pain. As you are assessing her, you note that she has a severely kyphotic spine. What is the MOST appropriat
Leave her on her side and use blanket rolls to immobilize her to the long backboard.
It is essential that you ____________ your equipment to prevent the spread of disease.
decontaminate
When moving a conscious, weak patient down a flight of stairs, you should:
place the wheeled stretcher at the bottom of the stairs and carry the patient down the stairs with a stair chair.
In order to facilitate a safe and coordinated move, the team leader should:
use preparatory commands to initiate any moves.
In which of the following situations is an emergency patient move indicated?
The EMT is unable to protect the patient from scene hazards.
What is the MOST appropriate method to use when moving a patient from his or her bed to the wheeled stretcher?
draw sheet method
The _________ is both the mechanical weight-bearing base of the spinal column and the fused central posterior section of the pelvic girdle.
sacrum
Which of the following statements regarding the neonatal isolette is correct?
The isolette serves to keep the neonate warm and protects from excess handling.
A critical aspect of the rapid extrication technique is to:
maintain stabilization of the spine at all times.
The extremity lift would NOT be appropriate to use on a patient:
with a deformed humerus
The FIRST rule of safe lifting is to:
keep your back in a straight, vertical position.
Which of the following statements regarding patient weight distribution is correct?
The majority of a horizontal patient's weight is in the torso.
When carrying a patient up or down stairs, you should avoid:
using a wheeled stretcher whenever possible.
When pulling a patient, you should extend your arms no more than ________ in front of your torso.
15? to 20?
Which of the following statements regarding an emergency patient move is correct?
An emergency move is performed before the primary assessment and treatment.
You and your partner enter the residence of an elderly couple, both of whom are found unconscious in their bed. There is no evidence of trauma. As you begin your assessment, you and your partner notice the smell of natural gas in the residence. Which of t
Rapidly remove the patients from their residence using a blanket or clothes drag.
Which of the following statements regarding the power lift is correct?
It is the safest and most powerful method of lifting a patient.
Two EMTs witnessed a call in which a coworker gave adequate medical care but ignored the patient's emotional needs. The coworker was deliberately rude solely because the patient was thought to be infected with the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). The E
legal but unethical.
When caring for a 65-year-old male with respiratory distress, you place him in a comfortable position but do not apply oxygen. The patient's condition continues to deteriorate and he develops cardiac arrest and dies at the hospital. This scenario is an ex
negligence.
Which of the following situations requires you to notify the appropriate authorities?
attempted suicide
Which of the following types of consent allows treatment of a patient who is unconscious or mentally incapacitated?
implied
While transporting a stable patient with chest pain to the hospital, you come across a major motor vehicle crash involving several critically injured patients. Your MOST appropriate action should be to:
continue transporting your patient and notify the dispatcher of the crash.
At the scene of a mass-casualty incident, you identify a patient as an organ donor. When triaging the other patients, you:
may have to assign the donor patient a lower triage priority.
Which of the following scenarios MOST accurately depicts abandonment?
A paramedic transfers patient care to an EMT.
In many states, a minor may be treated as an adult for the purpose of consenting to or refusing medical treatment if the minor:
is self-supporting and lives by him- or herself.
To minimize the risk of litigation, the EMT should always:
provide competent care that meets current standards.
In which of the following circumstances can the EMT legally release confidential patient information?
the patient is competent and signs a release form
In order for a do not resuscitate (DNR) order to be valid, it must:
clearly state the patient's medical problem.
In the eyes of the court, an incomplete or untidy patient care form indicates:
that inadequate patient care was administered.
Shortly after loading your patient, a 50-year-old man with abdominal pain, into the ambulance, he tells you that he changed his mind and does not want to go to the hospital. He is conscious and alert and has no signs of mental incapacitation. You are susp
A mentally competent adult can withdraw his or her consent to treat at any time.
During your monthly internal quality improvement (QI) meeting, you review several patient care reports (PCRs) with the staff of your EMS system. You identify the patient's name, age, and sex, and then discuss the treatment that was provided by the EMTs in
are in violation of HIPAA because you did not remove the PHI from the PCR beforehand.
The manner in which the EMT must act or behave when caring for a patient is called the:
standard of care.
If an action or procedure that was performed on a patient is not recorded on the written report:
it was not performed in the eyes of the law.
When you and your partner arrive at the residence of a man in cardiac arrest, you immediately recognize the patient as the drunk driver who killed your brother several years earlier. A backup ambulance is en route to the scene. You should:
begin two-rescuer CPR and apply the automated external defibrillator (AED) as soon as possible.
Which of the following general statements regarding consent is MOST correct?
A patient can consent to transport but can legally refuse to be treated.
Which of the following scenarios MOST accurately depicts informed consent?
An EMT advises a patient of the risks of receiving treatment.
You suspect that a pregnant 16-year-old girl has a broken leg after she was hit by a car. You explain that you plan to splint her leg, and she agrees to treatment. What type of consent is her agreement considered?
expressed
Define anoxia
no oxygen in the blood
Define apnea
absence of breathing
Define Superior
toward the head
Define dyspnea
difficulty breathing
Define emia
blood
The elbow is an example of a ____________ joint.
hinge
In relation to the wrist, the elbow is:
proximal.
What set of nerves is responsible for carrying information from the body to the central nervous system?
sensory
Worn out blood cells, foreign substances, and bacteria are filtered from the blood by the:
spleen.
The bones of the forearm are called the:
radius and ulna.
Select the areas of the spinal column in descending order.
cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, coccyx
In relation to the chest, the back is:
Posterior
A by-product of involuntary muscle contraction and relaxation is:
Heat
A 5-year-old boy has fallen and has a severe deformity of the forearm near the wrist. He has possibly sustained a fracture of the:
distal forearm.
Anterior to the knee is a specialized bone called the:
Patella
An intoxicated 40-year-old male is found lying face down. How would you document his body's position?
Prone
The left side of the heart receives oxygenated blood from the lungs through the:
pulmonary veins.
Together, the right and left lungs contain how many lobes?
5
The brain connects to the spinal cord through a large opening at the base of the skull called the:
foramen magnum.
Breathing occurs as the result of a(n):
increase in carbon dioxide, which decreases the pH of the CSF.
Negative pressure breathing involves:
a drop in pressure within the chest cavity.
The descending aorta branches into the:
common iliac arteries.
Urine is transported from the kidneys to the urinary bladder via the:
ureters
How does respiration differ from ventilation?
Respiration is the process of gas exchange, whereas ventilation is the simple movement of air between the lungs and the environment.
The part of the brain that controls the left side of the body is the:
right side cerebrum.
If an average-sized patient's chest barely moves during inhalation, even if his or her respiratory rate is normal, you should suspect that:
minute volume is decreased.
The diaphragm and intercostal muscles contract during:
inhalation.
The inferior cartilaginous tip of the sternum is called the:
xiphoid process
The largest portion of the brain, which is commonly referred to as the "gray matter," is called the
cerebrum.
The ___________ is made up of the maxilla and zygoma, as well as the frontal bone of the cranium.
orbit
The leaf-shaped flap of tissue that prevents food and liquid from entering the trachea during swallowing is called the:
epiglottis
Which of the following anatomic terms is synonymous with the word "dorsal"?
posterior
The ___________ portion of the spinal column is joined to the iliac bones of the pelvis.
sacrum
The primary function of the right atrium is to:
receive blood from the vena cava
The primary organ responsible for absorption of products of digestion is the:
small intestine.
Which of the following are central pulses?
femoral and carotid
Which of the following organs or structures lies within the retroperitoneal space?
kidneys
Which of the following statements regarding the medulla oblongata is correct?
The medulla is sensitive to pH changes and sends messages via the phrenic nerve to contract the diaphragm.
What happens when blood volume is lost from the body?
The arteries contract to increase the blood pressure.
What is the function of platelets?
initial formation of a blood clot
Which of the following statements regarding smooth muscle is correct?
A person has no voluntary control over smooth muscle.
Which of the following statements regarding the heart is correct?
It is under control of the autonomic nervous system.
Which of the following statements regarding the kidneys is correct?
The kidneys eliminate toxic waste products from the body and control its balance of water and salt.
Which organ lies in the lateral and posterior portion of the left upper quadrant (LUQ) of the abdomen?
spleen
Your ability to remain awake is a function of the:
reticular activating system.
Which of the following statements regarding an infant's vital signs is correct?
An infant's normal body temperature is typically higher than a preschooler's.
An infant's blood pressure typically increases with age because:
blood pressure directly corresponds to body weight.
You are dispatched to a call for a 4-month-old infant with respiratory distress. While you prepare to take care of this child, you must remember that:
small infants are nose breathers and require clear nasal passages at all times.
infants are often referred to as "belly breathers" because:
their rib cage is less rigid and the ribs sit horizontally.
Which of the following is an anatomic difference between children and adults?
An infant's tongue is proportionately larger than an adult's.
An infant or small child's airway can be occluded if it is overextended or overflexed because:
the occiput is proportionately large and the trachea is flexible.
Which of the following describes the Moro reflex?
The neonate opens his or her arms wide, spreads his or her fingers, and seems to grasp at something after being startled.
The anterior fontanelle fuses together between the ages of:
9 and 18 months.
In contrast to secure attachment, anxious-avoidant attachment occurs when a child:
shows little emotional response to a parent or caregiver following repeated rejection.
At what age does separation anxiety typically peak in infants and small children?
10 to 18 months
An infant or small toddler would MOST likely gain trust in an individual who:
provides an organized, routine environment.
Which of the following statements regarding toddlers and preschoolers is correct?
Toddlers and preschoolers commonly experience upper respiratory infections because of a loss of passive immunity.
The pulse rate of a child from ages 6 to 12 years is approximately:
70 to 120 beats/min.
In preconventional reasoning, children:
act almost purely to avoid punishment and to get what they want.
Which of the following is a physical change that typically occurs in the adolescent age group?
Secondary sexual development begins.
Which of the following statements regarding psychosocial development in the adolescent age group is correct?
Antisocial behavior and peer pressure peak around 14 to 16 years of age.
The human body should be functioning at its optimal level between the ages of:
19 and 25 years.
The low normal systolic blood pressure for a 30-year-old is:
90 mm Hg.
Physical changes that typically occur in early adults include an:
increase in fatty tissue, which leads to weight gain.
Which of the following statements regarding middle adults is correct?
Cardiovascular health becomes an issue in this age group, as does the greater incidence of cancer.
Which of the following statements regarding normal gas exchange in the lungs is correct?
Oxygen and carbon dioxide diffuse across the alveolar walls and capillaries.
Which of the following structures is NOT found in the upper airway?
bronchus
The leaf-shaped structure located superior to the larynx is called the:
epiglottis.
The __________ cartilage is a firm ring that forms the inferior part of the larynx.
cricoid
Structures of the lower airway include all of the following, EXCEPT the:
epiglottis.
The actual exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide occurs in the:
alveolar sacs.
Which of the following structures is contained within the mediastinum?
esophagus
The physical act of moving air into and out of the lungs is called:
ventilation.
Inhalation occurs when the:
diaphragm and intercostal muscles contract and cause a decrease in intrathoracic pressure.
The diaphragm functions as an involuntary muscle when a person:
sleeps
The partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli is _______ mm Hg, while the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the alveoli is _______ mm Hg.
104, 40
Tidal volume is defined as the volume of air that:
moves into or out of the lungs in a single breath.
What is the minute volume of a patient with a tidal volume of 500 mL, a dead space volume of 150 mL, and a respiratory rate of 16 breaths/min?
5,600 mL
Which of the following factors will cause a decreased minute volume in an adult?
shallow breathing
In contrast to inhalation, exhalation:
is a passive process caused by increased intrathoracic pressure.
Hypoxia is MOST accurately defined as:
inadequate oxygen to the tissues and cells.
The hypoxic drive�the primary stimulus to breathe for patients with certain chronic respiratory diseases�is influenced by:
low blood oxygen levels.
Which of the following is a late sign of hypoxia?
cyanosis
Which of the following statements regarding oxygenation and ventilation is correct?
In mines or confined places, where oxygen levels are low, ventilation may continue despite adequate oxygenation.
Each cell of the body combines nutrients and oxygen and produces energy and waste products through a process called:
metabolism.
The process of exchanging oxygen and carbon dioxide between the alveoli and the blood of the capillaries is called:
external respiration
Gas exchange in the lungs is facilitated by:
adequate amounts of surfactant.
In the presence of oxygen, the mitochondria of the cells convert glucose into energy through a process called:
aerobic metabolism.
Without adequate oxygen, the body's cells:
incompletely convert glucose into energy, and lactic acid accumulates in the blood.
The primary waste product of aerobic metabolism is:
carbon dioxide.
Central chemoreceptors located in the medulla provide feedback to increase the rate and depth of breathing when they sense:
slight elevations in carbon dioxide or a decrease in the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid.
A ventilation/perfusion (V/Q ratio) mismatch occurs when:
a disruption in blood flow inhibits the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the lungs, even though the alveoli are filled with fresh oxygen.
If ventilation is impaired, carbon dioxide levels in the bloodstream will increase. This condition is called:
hypercarbia.
Intrapulmonary shunting occurs when:
blood coming from the right side of the heart bypasses nonfunctional alveoli and returns to the left side of the heart in an unoxygenated state.
An adult at rest should have a respiratory rate that ranges between:
12 and 20 breaths/min.
Which of the following patients is breathing adequately?
a conscious male with respirations of 19 breaths/min and pink skin
Which of the following statements regarding breathing adequacy is correct?
Patients breathing shallowly may require assisted ventilation despite a normal respiratory rate.
Which of the following would NOT cause a decrease in tidal volume?
deep respirations
Irregular respirations characterized by an increasing rate and depth of breathing followed by periods of apnea are called:
Cheyne-Stokes respirations.
An unconscious patient found in a prone position must be placed in a supine position in case he or she:
requires cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR).
You are dispatched to a residence where a middle-aged man was found unconscious in his front yard. There are no witnesses who can tell you what happened. You find him in a prone position; his eyes are closed and he is not moving. Your FIRST action should
log roll him as a unit to a supine position.
What is the MOST common cause of airway obstruction in an unconscious patient?
the tongue
In which of the following patients would the head tilt-chin lift maneuver be the MOST appropriate method of opening the airway?
a 37-year-old female who is found unconscious in her bed
The jaw-thrust maneuver is used to open the airway of patients with suspected:
cervical spine injuries
Which of the following patients would MOST likely require insertion of an oropharyngeal airway?
a 40-year-old unconscious patient with slow, shallow respirations
A 19-year-old female is found unconscious by her roommate. Your primary assessment reveals that her breathing is inadequate. As you insert an oropharyngeal airway, she begins to gag violently. You should:
remove the airway and be prepared to suction her oropharynx.
To select the proper size oropharyngeal airway, you should measure from the:
corner of the mouth to the earlobe.
The nasopharyngeal airway is MOST beneficial because it:
can maintain a patent airway in a semiconscious patient with a gag reflex.
The MOST serious complication associated with using a nasopharyngeal airway in a patient with trauma to the head or face is:
penetrating the cranium.
A nasopharyngeal airway is inserted:
with the bevel facing the septum if inserted into the right nare.
A 71-year-old male is semiconscious following a sudden, severe headache. There is vomitus on his face and his respirations are slow and shallow. The EMT must immediately:
perform oropharyngeal suctioning
When testing a mechanical suctioning unit, you should turn on the device, clamp the tubing, and ensure that it generates a vacuum pressure of more than:
300 mm Hg
The MOST significant complication associated with oropharyngeal suctioning is:
hypoxia due to prolonged suction attempts.
Proper technique for suctioning the oropharynx of an adult patient includes:
suctioning while withdrawing the catheter from the oropharynx.
You have inserted an oral airway and are ventilating an apneic woman with a bag-mask device. She suddenly begins regurgitating large amounts of vomit. You should:
roll her onto her side and remove the oral airway.
A 23-year-old male experienced severe head trauma after his motorcycle collided with an oncoming truck. He is unconscious, has rapid and shallow breathing, and has copious bloody secretions in his mouth. How should you manage his airway?
Alternate 15 seconds of oral suctioning with 2 minutes of assisted ventilation.
Which of the following patients should you place in the recovery position?
a 31-year-old semiconscious male with low blood sugar and adequate breathing
Which of the following organs or tissues can survive the longest without oxygen?
muscle
The purpose of the pin-indexing system that has been established for compressed gas cylinders is to:
ensure that the correct regulator is used for the cylinder.
The pressure of gas in a full cylinder of oxygen is approximately _______ pounds per square inch (psi)
2,000
Which of the following oxygen flowmeters is NOT affected by gravity and can be used in any position when attached to an oxygen cylinder?
Bourdon-gauge flowmeter
An oxygen cylinder should be taken out of service and refilled when the pressure inside it is less than:
500 psi.
Which of the following statements regarding oxygen is correct?
Oxygen supports the combustion process and may cause a fire.
A patient who is suspected of being hypoxic and is breathing adequately should be given supplemental oxygen with a:
nonrebreathing mask.
With a good mask-to-face seal and an oxygen flow rate of 15 L/min, the nonrebreathing mask is capable of delivering up to ______% inspired oxygen.
90
Prior to applying a nonrebreathing mask on a patient, you must ensure that the:
reservoir bag is fully inflated.
At a flow rate of 6 L/min, a nasal cannula can deliver an approximate oxygen concentration of up to:
44%.
The nasal cannula is MOST appropriately used in the prehospital setting:
when the patient cannot tolerate a nonrebreathing mask.
The main advantage of the Venturi mask is:
the use of its fine adjustment capabilities in the long-term management of physiologically stable patients.
A 51-year-old female presents with a sudden onset of difficulty breathing. She is conscious and alert and able to speak in complete sentences. Her respirations are 22 breaths/min and regular. You should:
administer 100% oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask.
What occurs when a patient is breathing very rapidly and shallowly?
Air moves primarily in the anatomic dead space and does not participate in pulmonary gas exchange.
As the single EMT managing an apneic patient's airway, the preferred initial method of providing ventilations is the:
mouth-to-mask technique with a one-way valve
You and your partner are treating a 66-year-old man who experienced a sudden onset of respiratory distress. He is conscious but is unable to follow simple verbal commands. Further assessment reveals that his breathing is severely labored and his oxygen sa
assist his ventilations with a bag-mask device.
Which of the following statements regarding positive-pressure ventilation is correct?
With positive-pressure ventilation, more volume is required to have the same effects as normal breathing.
How does positive-pressure ventilation affect cardiac output?
It increases intrathoracic pressure, which decreases venous return to the heart and causes a decrease in cardiac output.
You are ventilating a 40-year-old uninjured man who is apneic but has a pulse. When your partner reassesses his blood pressure, he notes that it has decreased significantly from previous readings. You elevate the patient's legs, but this action has no eff
reevaluate the rate and volume of your ventilations.
You are performing mouth-to-mask ventilations with oxygen connected and set at a flow rate of 15 L/min. What percentage of oxygen is your patient receiving?
55%
You and your partner are caring for a critically injured patient. Your partner is controlling severe bleeding from the patient's lower extremities as you attempt ventilations with a bag-mask device. After repositioning the mask several times, you are unab
begin ventilations using the mouth-to-mask technique.
Which of the following statements regarding the one-person bag-mask device technique is correct?
Adequate tidal volume is often difficult to achieve when one EMT is operating the bag-mask device.
Despite your attempts to coach a conscious young female's respirations, she continues to hyperventilate with a marked reduction in tidal volume. You should:
explain to her that you will assist her ventilations.
When ventilating an apneic adult with a simple barrier device, you should deliver each breath:
while watching for adequate chest rise.
After establishing that an adult patient is unresponsive, you should:
open the airway.
CPR will NOT be effective if the patient is:
prone
In MOST cases, cardiopulmonary arrest in infants and children is caused by:
respiratory arrest.
Several attempts to adequately open a trauma patient's airway with the jaw-thrust maneuver have been unsuccessful. You should:
carefully perform the head tilt-chin lift maneuver.
Signs of a sudden severe upper airway obstruction include all of the following, EXCEPT:
forceful coughing.
Which of the following techniques should you use to dislodge a foreign body airway obstruction in a patient who is in an advanced stage of pregnancy or who is very obese?
chest thrusts
After ________ minutes without oxygen, brain damage is likely.
6
The proper depth of chest compressions on a 9-month-old infant is:
one third to one half the diameter of the chest.
Complications associated with chest compressions include all of the following, EXCEPT:
gastric distention.
During two-rescuer CPR, the compressor and ventilator switch positions. While rescuer one is finishing his or her cycle of 30 compressions, rescuer two should:
move to the opposite side of the patient's chest.
The impedance threshold device (ITD) may improve circulation during CPR by:
limiting the amount of air that enters the lungs during the recoil phase between chest compressions, which results in negative intrathoracic pressure and improved cardiac filling.
The MOST appropriate treatment for a patient with a mild upper airway obstruction includes:
administering oxygen and transporting immediately.
CPR should be initiated when:
a valid living will is unavailable.
Which of the following is NOT a BLS intervention?
cardiac monitoring
Initial treatment to dislodge a severe foreign body airway obstruction in a responsive infant involves:
back slaps.
Most prehospital cardiac arrests occur as the result of:
a cardiac arrhythmia.
You should deliver chest compressions to an unconscious adult patient in cardiac arrest by:
compressing the sternum between the nipples.
Which of the following is considered an obvious sign of death and would not require the initiation of CPR?
dependent blood pooling
Which of the following is NOT an indication to stop CPR once you have started?
Care is transferred to a bystander.
Which of the following is an example of a symptom?
headache
Which of the following scenarios does NOT involve the presence of any symptoms?
a 61-year-old female who is unconscious with facial cyanosis
Which of the following actions would NOT be performed during the scene size-up?
rapidly assessing a patient's respiratory status
While en route to the scene of a shooting, the dispatcher advises you that the caller states that the perpetrator has fled the scene. You should:
confirm this information with law enforcement personnel at the scene.
Upon arriving at a potentially unsafe scene, you should:
ensure that you are safe.
You are assessing a 72-year-old man with abdominal pain. The patient is sitting in a chair; he is conscious, alert, and calm. As you are talking to the patient, your partner discreetly directs your attention to a handgun, which is located on a nearby tabl
position yourself in between the patient and the gun and ask your partner to request law enforcement assistance.
Which of the following statements regarding the mechanism of injury (MOI) is correct?
The MOI may allow you to predict the severity of a patient's injuries.
The MOST effective way to determine whether your patient's problem is medical or traumatic in origin is to:
perform a careful and thorough assessment.
During an EMS call, you should take standard precautions:
upon exiting the ambulance, but before actual patient contact.
Treatment and transport priorities at the scene of a mass-casualty incident should be determined after:
all the patients have been triaged
When is it MOST appropriate to consider requesting additional ambulances at an accident scene?
when you determine there are multiple patients
The goal of the primary assessment is to:
identify and rapidly treat all life-threatening conditions.
Observations made when forming a general impression of a patient would include all of the following, EXCEPT:
pulse strength.
When approaching a 32-year-old male who is complaining of traumatic neck pain, you should:
ensure that the patient can see you approaching him.
Which of the following conditions would be LEAST likely to cause an altered level of consciousness?
acute anxiety
You are called to a motor vehicle collision where the car is on fire. You should ensure safety by:
remaining a safe distance from the car until the fire is out
You and your partner are en route to a motor vehicle crash involving a tanker truck on a rural road. Dispatch informs you that fluid is leaking from the truck and that there are several bystanders passed out on the ground near the cab of the truck. You sh
consult the Emergency Response Guidebook.
You and your partner respond to a residence for a fall. You arrive to find a group of approximately 30 adults surrounding a middle-aged man who appears to be unconscious. A police car pulls in behind you. You should:
wait for the police officer to assess the safety of the scene.
Your patient fell out of a tree while putting the roof on a tree house. A 15-foot ladder is required to enter the tree house and there is enough room for an adult to stand up inside. Your patient should be transported to:
a trauma center.
While transporting a patient to the hospital you should:
continue assessing your surroundings for danger
Which of the following is the correct manner for checking for responsiveness in an apparently unresponsive infant?
Flicking the soles of the feet
Which of the following is the most reliable means of determining whether a patient has any immediately life-threatening conditions?
A systematic approach to assessment
A patient whose mental status can be described as "verbal" is able to:
respond to speaking or shouting by opening the eyes.
Which of the following indicates a possible circulatory problem?
All of the above
Which of the following is a significant mechanism of injury?
Gunshot wound of the forearm
Your patient is a 27-year-old female who was ejected from a vehicle that then rolled over her. She is complaining of pain in her pelvic region. Which of the following techniques should be used to assess the injury?
Do not palpate the pelvis
What term describes a permanent surgical opening in the neck through which a patient breathes?
Stoma
You are performing a rapid trauma assessment on an unresponsive 30-year-old male. As you evaluate his head, which of the following should you check for?
Crepitus
Your 35-year-old male patient was involved in a high-speed vehicle collision. The patient is not entrapped, but he is a high priority for transport due to suspected internal bleeding. The trauma center is 15 minutes away, and an ALS response unit is 10 mi
Transport the patient to the hospital.
When the heart contracts and forces blood into the arteries, the pressure created is known as the:
systolic blood pressure.
When pupils are dilated they are:
larger than normal.
Where do baseline vital signs fit into the sequence of patient assessment?
At secondary assessment
You are assessing a 55-year-old male complaining of chest pain and have determined that his radial pulse is barely palpable. You also determine that there were 20 pulsations over a span of 30 seconds. Based on this, how would you report this patient's pul
Pulse 40 and weak
Your patient is in late stages of liver failure and has requested to be transported to the emergency department. You take your body substance isolation and move him to your cot and notice his skin is warm and dry with a yellow color. Your radio report to
jaundiced.
You are called for a patient who is complaining of being weak and dizzy. He reports that he doesn't have enough money to pay for his medications so he hasn't gotten them refilled. Your service has an automatic blood pressure machine and you use it to meas
Take a manual blood pressure.
Your patient has fallen in her kitchen and has a possible sprained ankle. As you proceed through your history and physical exam, you notice that she has an altered mental status and is not answering your questions appropriately. She is alone in the house
checking her pupils.
You are caring for a teenager who is having a severe allergic reaction. He has hives all over his stomach, is having respiratory distress, and is wheezing. After you administer oxygen, you get a set of vital signs. Medical direction has ordered you to ass
reassessment.
You are on the scene of a patient who is the victim of an assault. The scene is safe. You find a 22-year-old male patient responsive to painful stimuli only. His blood pressure is 180/80, pulse is 60, respirations are 12, and his oxygen saturation is 95 p
Unstable. The patient is responsive to painful stimuli only.
If an EMT candidate has been convicted of a felony or misdemeanor, he or she should:
contact the state EMS office and provide them with the required documentation.
EMRs such as fire fighters, law enforcement officers, and park rangers, are an integral part of the EMS system because:
the presence of a person trained to initiate basic life support (BLS) care cannot be ensured.
The person who is responsible for authorizing EMTs to perform emergency medical care in the field is the:
medical director.
According to the National EMS Scope of Practice Model, an EMT should be able to:
assist a patient with certain prescribed medications.
Why are prehospital emergency care guidelines updated on a regular basis?
Additional information and evidence indicate that the effectiveness of certain interventions has changed.
An EMS provider who has extensive training in various aspects of advanced life support (ALS) is called a(n):
paramedic
Which of the following descriptions MOST accurately portrays emergency medical services (EMS)?
a team of health care professionals who are responsible for providing emergency care and transportation to the sick and injured
Obtaining continuing medical education is the responsibility of the:
individual EMT.
Continuing education in EMS serves to:
maintain, update, and expand your knowledge and skills.
If a defibrillator manufacturer claims that its device terminates ventricular fibrillation on the first shock 95% of the time, you should:
recognize that this does not mean it will save more lives.
The continuous quality improvement (CQI) process is designed to:
identify areas of improvement and provide remedial training if needed.
The criteria to be licensed and employed as an EMT include:
proof of immunization against certain communicable diseases.
The ____________ deals with the well-being of the EMT, career progression, and EMT compensation.
human resources department
Which of the following scenarios does NOT involve the administration of ALS?
a 64-year-old cardiac arrest patient who is defibrillated with an automated external defibrillator (AED)
Which of the following is a unique function of the emergency medical dispatcher (EMD)?
providing callers with life-saving instructions
You have been working at the scene of a major building collapse for 8 hours. Many injured people are still being removed, and everyone is becoming frustrated and losing focus. This situation is MOST effectively managed by:
requesting a CISM team to provide on-scene peer support.
If you use a waterless handwashing substitute in the field, it is important to:
wash your hands with soap and water at the hospital.
The final stage of death and dying is MOST commonly displayed as:
acceptance.
Which of the following is the MOST effective strategy for managing stress?
Focus on delivering high-quality patient care.
If it is not possible to adequately clean your ambulance at the hospital following a call, you should:
clean the ambulance at your station in a designated area that is well ventilated.
A critical incident stress debriefing should be conducted no longer than ________ hours following the incident.
72
A positive TB skin test indicates that:
you have been exposed to the disease.
The MOST serious consequence of drug or alcohol abuse among EMS personnel is:
substandard or inappropriate patient care.
The simplest yet most effective method of preventing the spread of an infectious disease is to:
wash your hands in between patient contacts.
The general adaptation syndrome is characterized by which of the following phases?
alarm response, reaction and resistance, and recovery
Your partner, a veteran EMT who you have worked with regularly for the past 4 years, seems unusually agitated during a call involving an elderly patient. Upon arrival back at your station, you note the obvious smell of alcohol on his breath. What should y
Discreetly report your suspicions to your supervisor.
The hepatitis B vaccine program, a component of the infection control plan, addresses all of the following issues, EXCEPT:
family history of hepatitis.
Which of the following signs would indicate that your partner is experiencing significant stress?
isolation from the rest of the crew
While providing care to a patient, blood got onto the ambulance stretcher. Because the stretcher was not properly cleaned afterward, a virus was transmitted to another emergency medical technician (EMT) several days later. What route of transmission does
indirect contact
Vector-borne transmission of an infectious organism occurs via:
animals or insects.
Which of the following is the MOST significant factor in determining if a person will become ill from certain germs?
immunity
What type of stress reaction occurs when an EMT is exposed to many insignificant stressors over a period of several months or years?
cumulative stress reaction
While on duty, your partner asks you out on a date and touches you in an inappropriate location without your consent. You should:
tell your partner to stop and report the incident to your supervisor.
You and your partner respond to the residence of a 66-year-old male with shortness of breath. As you are assessing the patient, his wife tells you that he was recently diagnosed with lung cancer. The patient is verbally abusive and tells you that failure
anger
You are summoned to a convalescent center for an 88-year-old female with an altered mental status. A staff nurse advises you that the patient has terminal cancer and her physician stated that she would probably die within the next few hours; a valid do no
make her comfortable and provide emotional support.
Upon arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle crash, you find a single patient still seated in his car. There are no scene hazards. As you approach the vehicle, you note that the patient is semiconscious and has a large laceration to his forehead. You sho
direct your partner to apply manual in-line support of the patient's head.
Which of the following conditions or situations presents the MOST unique challenge to the EMT when immobilizing an elderly patient on a long backboard?
abnormal spinal curvature
You have two patients who were involved in a motor vehicle crash when their SUV struck a tree�one with neck and back pain, and the other with a deformed left femur. The patient with the deformed femur states that he does not want to be placed on a hard bo
Immobilize the patient with neck and back pain on a long backboard and place him on the wheeled stretcher; place the patient with the deformed femur on a folding stretcher secured to the squad bench.
An 81-year-old female fell and struck her head. You find the patient lying on her left side. She is conscious and complains of neck and upper back pain. As you are assessing her, you note that she has a severely kyphotic spine. What is the MOST appropriat
Leave her on her side and use blanket rolls to immobilize her to the long backboard.
It is essential that you ____________ your equipment to prevent the spread of disease.
decontaminate
When moving a conscious, weak patient down a flight of stairs, you should:
place the wheeled stretcher at the bottom of the stairs and carry the patient down the stairs with a stair chair.
In order to facilitate a safe and coordinated move, the team leader should:
use preparatory commands to initiate any moves.
In which of the following situations is an emergency patient move indicated?
The EMT is unable to protect the patient from scene hazards.
What is the MOST appropriate method to use when moving a patient from his or her bed to the wheeled stretcher?
draw sheet method
The _________ is both the mechanical weight-bearing base of the spinal column and the fused central posterior section of the pelvic girdle.
sacrum
Which of the following statements regarding the neonatal isolette is correct?
The isolette serves to keep the neonate warm and protects from excess handling.
A critical aspect of the rapid extrication technique is to:
maintain stabilization of the spine at all times.
The extremity lift would NOT be appropriate to use on a patient:
with a deformed humerus
The FIRST rule of safe lifting is to:
keep your back in a straight, vertical position.
Which of the following statements regarding patient weight distribution is correct?
The majority of a horizontal patient's weight is in the torso.
When carrying a patient up or down stairs, you should avoid:
using a wheeled stretcher whenever possible.
When pulling a patient, you should extend your arms no more than ________ in front of your torso.
15? to 20?
Which of the following statements regarding an emergency patient move is correct?
An emergency move is performed before the primary assessment and treatment.
You and your partner enter the residence of an elderly couple, both of whom are found unconscious in their bed. There is no evidence of trauma. As you begin your assessment, you and your partner notice the smell of natural gas in the residence. Which of t
Rapidly remove the patients from their residence using a blanket or clothes drag.
Which of the following statements regarding the power lift is correct?
It is the safest and most powerful method of lifting a patient.
Two EMTs witnessed a call in which a coworker gave adequate medical care but ignored the patient's emotional needs. The coworker was deliberately rude solely because the patient was thought to be infected with the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). The E
legal but unethical.
When caring for a 65-year-old male with respiratory distress, you place him in a comfortable position but do not apply oxygen. The patient's condition continues to deteriorate and he develops cardiac arrest and dies at the hospital. This scenario is an ex
negligence.
Which of the following situations requires you to notify the appropriate authorities?
attempted suicide
Which of the following types of consent allows treatment of a patient who is unconscious or mentally incapacitated?
implied
While transporting a stable patient with chest pain to the hospital, you come across a major motor vehicle crash involving several critically injured patients. Your MOST appropriate action should be to:
continue transporting your patient and notify the dispatcher of the crash.
At the scene of a mass-casualty incident, you identify a patient as an organ donor. When triaging the other patients, you:
may have to assign the donor patient a lower triage priority.
Which of the following scenarios MOST accurately depicts abandonment?
A paramedic transfers patient care to an EMT.
In many states, a minor may be treated as an adult for the purpose of consenting to or refusing medical treatment if the minor:
is self-supporting and lives by him- or herself.
To minimize the risk of litigation, the EMT should always:
provide competent care that meets current standards.
In which of the following circumstances can the EMT legally release confidential patient information?
the patient is competent and signs a release form
In order for a do not resuscitate (DNR) order to be valid, it must:
clearly state the patient's medical problem.
In the eyes of the court, an incomplete or untidy patient care form indicates:
that inadequate patient care was administered.
Shortly after loading your patient, a 50-year-old man with abdominal pain, into the ambulance, he tells you that he changed his mind and does not want to go to the hospital. He is conscious and alert and has no signs of mental incapacitation. You are susp
A mentally competent adult can withdraw his or her consent to treat at any time.
During your monthly internal quality improvement (QI) meeting, you review several patient care reports (PCRs) with the staff of your EMS system. You identify the patient's name, age, and sex, and then discuss the treatment that was provided by the EMTs in
are in violation of HIPAA because you did not remove the PHI from the PCR beforehand.
The manner in which the EMT must act or behave when caring for a patient is called the:
standard of care.
If an action or procedure that was performed on a patient is not recorded on the written report:
it was not performed in the eyes of the law.
When you and your partner arrive at the residence of a man in cardiac arrest, you immediately recognize the patient as the drunk driver who killed your brother several years earlier. A backup ambulance is en route to the scene. You should:
begin two-rescuer CPR and apply the automated external defibrillator (AED) as soon as possible.
Which of the following general statements regarding consent is MOST correct?
A patient can consent to transport but can legally refuse to be treated.
Which of the following scenarios MOST accurately depicts informed consent?
An EMT advises a patient of the risks of receiving treatment.
You suspect that a pregnant 16-year-old girl has a broken leg after she was hit by a car. You explain that you plan to splint her leg, and she agrees to treatment. What type of consent is her agreement considered?
expressed
Define anoxia
no oxygen in the blood
Define apnea
absence of breathing
Define Superior
toward the head
Define dyspnea
difficulty breathing
Define emia
blood
The elbow is an example of a ____________ joint.
hinge
In relation to the wrist, the elbow is:
proximal.
What set of nerves is responsible for carrying information from the body to the central nervous system?
sensory
Worn out blood cells, foreign substances, and bacteria are filtered from the blood by the:
spleen.
The bones of the forearm are called the:
radius and ulna.
Select the areas of the spinal column in descending order.
cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, coccyx
In relation to the chest, the back is:
Posterior
A by-product of involuntary muscle contraction and relaxation is:
Heat
A 5-year-old boy has fallen and has a severe deformity of the forearm near the wrist. He has possibly sustained a fracture of the:
distal forearm.
Anterior to the knee is a specialized bone called the:
Patella
An intoxicated 40-year-old male is found lying face down. How would you document his body's position?
Prone
The left side of the heart receives oxygenated blood from the lungs through the:
pulmonary veins.
Together, the right and left lungs contain how many lobes?
5
The brain connects to the spinal cord through a large opening at the base of the skull called the:
foramen magnum.
Breathing occurs as the result of a(n):
increase in carbon dioxide, which decreases the pH of the CSF.
Negative pressure breathing involves:
a drop in pressure within the chest cavity.
The descending aorta branches into the:
common iliac arteries.
Urine is transported from the kidneys to the urinary bladder via the:
ureters
How does respiration differ from ventilation?
Respiration is the process of gas exchange, whereas ventilation is the simple movement of air between the lungs and the environment.
The part of the brain that controls the left side of the body is the:
right side cerebrum.
If an average-sized patient's chest barely moves during inhalation, even if his or her respiratory rate is normal, you should suspect that:
minute volume is decreased.
The diaphragm and intercostal muscles contract during:
inhalation.
The inferior cartilaginous tip of the sternum is called the:
xiphoid process
The largest portion of the brain, which is commonly referred to as the "gray matter," is called the
cerebrum.
The ___________ is made up of the maxilla and zygoma, as well as the frontal bone of the cranium.
orbit
The leaf-shaped flap of tissue that prevents food and liquid from entering the trachea during swallowing is called the:
epiglottis
Which of the following anatomic terms is synonymous with the word "dorsal"?
posterior
The ___________ portion of the spinal column is joined to the iliac bones of the pelvis.
sacrum
The primary function of the right atrium is to:
receive blood from the vena cava
The primary organ responsible for absorption of products of digestion is the:
small intestine.
Which of the following are central pulses?
femoral and carotid
Which of the following organs or structures lies within the retroperitoneal space?
kidneys
Which of the following statements regarding the medulla oblongata is correct?
The medulla is sensitive to pH changes and sends messages via the phrenic nerve to contract the diaphragm.
What happens when blood volume is lost from the body?
The arteries contract to increase the blood pressure.
What is the function of platelets?
initial formation of a blood clot
Which of the following statements regarding smooth muscle is correct?
A person has no voluntary control over smooth muscle.
Which of the following statements regarding the heart is correct?
It is under control of the autonomic nervous system.
Which of the following statements regarding the kidneys is correct?
The kidneys eliminate toxic waste products from the body and control its balance of water and salt.
Which organ lies in the lateral and posterior portion of the left upper quadrant (LUQ) of the abdomen?
spleen
Your ability to remain awake is a function of the:
reticular activating system.
Which of the following statements regarding an infant's vital signs is correct?
An infant's normal body temperature is typically higher than a preschooler's.
An infant's blood pressure typically increases with age because:
blood pressure directly corresponds to body weight.
You are dispatched to a call for a 4-month-old infant with respiratory distress. While you prepare to take care of this child, you must remember that:
small infants are nose breathers and require clear nasal passages at all times.
infants are often referred to as "belly breathers" because:
their rib cage is less rigid and the ribs sit horizontally.
Which of the following is an anatomic difference between children and adults?
An infant's tongue is proportionately larger than an adult's.
An infant or small child's airway can be occluded if it is overextended or overflexed because:
the occiput is proportionately large and the trachea is flexible.
Which of the following describes the Moro reflex?
The neonate opens his or her arms wide, spreads his or her fingers, and seems to grasp at something after being startled.
The anterior fontanelle fuses together between the ages of:
9 and 18 months.
In contrast to secure attachment, anxious-avoidant attachment occurs when a child:
shows little emotional response to a parent or caregiver following repeated rejection.
At what age does separation anxiety typically peak in infants and small children?
10 to 18 months
An infant or small toddler would MOST likely gain trust in an individual who:
provides an organized, routine environment.
Which of the following statements regarding toddlers and preschoolers is correct?
Toddlers and preschoolers commonly experience upper respiratory infections because of a loss of passive immunity.
The pulse rate of a child from ages 6 to 12 years is approximately:
70 to 120 beats/min.
In preconventional reasoning, children:
act almost purely to avoid punishment and to get what they want.
Which of the following is a physical change that typically occurs in the adolescent age group?
Secondary sexual development begins.
Which of the following statements regarding psychosocial development in the adolescent age group is correct?
Antisocial behavior and peer pressure peak around 14 to 16 years of age.
The human body should be functioning at its optimal level between the ages of:
19 and 25 years.
The low normal systolic blood pressure for a 30-year-old is:
90 mm Hg.
Physical changes that typically occur in early adults include an:
increase in fatty tissue, which leads to weight gain.
Which of the following statements regarding middle adults is correct?
Cardiovascular health becomes an issue in this age group, as does the greater incidence of cancer.
Which of the following statements regarding normal gas exchange in the lungs is correct?
Oxygen and carbon dioxide diffuse across the alveolar walls and capillaries.
Which of the following structures is NOT found in the upper airway?
bronchus
The leaf-shaped structure located superior to the larynx is called the:
epiglottis.
The __________ cartilage is a firm ring that forms the inferior part of the larynx.
cricoid
Structures of the lower airway include all of the following, EXCEPT the:
epiglottis.
The actual exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide occurs in the:
alveolar sacs.
Which of the following structures is contained within the mediastinum?
esophagus
The physical act of moving air into and out of the lungs is called:
ventilation.
Inhalation occurs when the:
diaphragm and intercostal muscles contract and cause a decrease in intrathoracic pressure.
The diaphragm functions as an involuntary muscle when a person:
sleeps
The partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli is _______ mm Hg, while the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the alveoli is _______ mm Hg.
104, 40
Tidal volume is defined as the volume of air that:
moves into or out of the lungs in a single breath.
What is the minute volume of a patient with a tidal volume of 500 mL, a dead space volume of 150 mL, and a respiratory rate of 16 breaths/min?
5,600 mL
Which of the following factors will cause a decreased minute volume in an adult?
shallow breathing
In contrast to inhalation, exhalation:
is a passive process caused by increased intrathoracic pressure.
Hypoxia is MOST accurately defined as:
inadequate oxygen to the tissues and cells.
The hypoxic drive�the primary stimulus to breathe for patients with certain chronic respiratory diseases�is influenced by:
low blood oxygen levels.
Which of the following is a late sign of hypoxia?
cyanosis
Which of the following statements regarding oxygenation and ventilation is correct?
In mines or confined places, where oxygen levels are low, ventilation may continue despite adequate oxygenation.
Each cell of the body combines nutrients and oxygen and produces energy and waste products through a process called:
metabolism.
The process of exchanging oxygen and carbon dioxide between the alveoli and the blood of the capillaries is called:
external respiration
Gas exchange in the lungs is facilitated by:
adequate amounts of surfactant.
In the presence of oxygen, the mitochondria of the cells convert glucose into energy through a process called:
aerobic metabolism.
Without adequate oxygen, the body's cells:
incompletely convert glucose into energy, and lactic acid accumulates in the blood.
The primary waste product of aerobic metabolism is:
carbon dioxide.
Central chemoreceptors located in the medulla provide feedback to increase the rate and depth of breathing when they sense:
slight elevations in carbon dioxide or a decrease in the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid.
A ventilation/perfusion (V/Q ratio) mismatch occurs when:
a disruption in blood flow inhibits the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the lungs, even though the alveoli are filled with fresh oxygen.
If ventilation is impaired, carbon dioxide levels in the bloodstream will increase. This condition is called:
hypercarbia.
Intrapulmonary shunting occurs when:
blood coming from the right side of the heart bypasses nonfunctional alveoli and returns to the left side of the heart in an unoxygenated state.
An adult at rest should have a respiratory rate that ranges between:
12 and 20 breaths/min.
Which of the following patients is breathing adequately?
a conscious male with respirations of 19 breaths/min and pink skin
Which of the following statements regarding breathing adequacy is correct?
Patients breathing shallowly may require assisted ventilation despite a normal respiratory rate.
Which of the following would NOT cause a decrease in tidal volume?
deep respirations
Irregular respirations characterized by an increasing rate and depth of breathing followed by periods of apnea are called:
Cheyne-Stokes respirations.
An unconscious patient found in a prone position must be placed in a supine position in case he or she:
requires cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR).
You are dispatched to a residence where a middle-aged man was found unconscious in his front yard. There are no witnesses who can tell you what happened. You find him in a prone position; his eyes are closed and he is not moving. Your FIRST action should
log roll him as a unit to a supine position.
What is the MOST common cause of airway obstruction in an unconscious patient?
the tongue
In which of the following patients would the head tilt-chin lift maneuver be the MOST appropriate method of opening the airway?
a 37-year-old female who is found unconscious in her bed
The jaw-thrust maneuver is used to open the airway of patients with suspected:
cervical spine injuries
Which of the following patients would MOST likely require insertion of an oropharyngeal airway?
a 40-year-old unconscious patient with slow, shallow respirations
A 19-year-old female is found unconscious by her roommate. Your primary assessment reveals that her breathing is inadequate. As you insert an oropharyngeal airway, she begins to gag violently. You should:
remove the airway and be prepared to suction her oropharynx.
To select the proper size oropharyngeal airway, you should measure from the:
corner of the mouth to the earlobe.
The nasopharyngeal airway is MOST beneficial because it:
can maintain a patent airway in a semiconscious patient with a gag reflex.
The MOST serious complication associated with using a nasopharyngeal airway in a patient with trauma to the head or face is:
penetrating the cranium.
A nasopharyngeal airway is inserted:
with the bevel facing the septum if inserted into the right nare.
A 71-year-old male is semiconscious following a sudden, severe headache. There is vomitus on his face and his respirations are slow and shallow. The EMT must immediately:
perform oropharyngeal suctioning
When testing a mechanical suctioning unit, you should turn on the device, clamp the tubing, and ensure that it generates a vacuum pressure of more than:
300 mm Hg
The MOST significant complication associated with oropharyngeal suctioning is:
hypoxia due to prolonged suction attempts.
Proper technique for suctioning the oropharynx of an adult patient includes:
suctioning while withdrawing the catheter from the oropharynx.
You have inserted an oral airway and are ventilating an apneic woman with a bag-mask device. She suddenly begins regurgitating large amounts of vomit. You should:
roll her onto her side and remove the oral airway.
A 23-year-old male experienced severe head trauma after his motorcycle collided with an oncoming truck. He is unconscious, has rapid and shallow breathing, and has copious bloody secretions in his mouth. How should you manage his airway?
Alternate 15 seconds of oral suctioning with 2 minutes of assisted ventilation.
Which of the following patients should you place in the recovery position?
a 31-year-old semiconscious male with low blood sugar and adequate breathing
Which of the following organs or tissues can survive the longest without oxygen?
muscle
The purpose of the pin-indexing system that has been established for compressed gas cylinders is to:
ensure that the correct regulator is used for the cylinder.
The pressure of gas in a full cylinder of oxygen is approximately _______ pounds per square inch (psi)
2000
Which of the following oxygen flowmeters is NOT affected by gravity and can be used in any position when attached to an oxygen cylinder?
Bourdon-gauge flowmeter
An oxygen cylinder should be taken out of service and refilled when the pressure inside it is less than:
500 psi.
Which of the following statements regarding oxygen is correct?
Oxygen supports the combustion process and may cause a fire.
A patient who is suspected of being hypoxic and is breathing adequately should be given supplemental oxygen with a:
nonrebreathing mask.
With a good mask-to-face seal and an oxygen flow rate of 15 L/min, the nonrebreathing mask is capable of delivering up to ______% inspired oxygen.
90
Prior to applying a nonrebreathing mask on a patient, you must ensure that the:
reservoir bag is fully inflated.
At a flow rate of 6 L/min, a nasal cannula can deliver an approximate oxygen concentration of up to:
44%.
The nasal cannula is MOST appropriately used in the prehospital setting:
when the patient cannot tolerate a nonrebreathing mask.
The main advantage of the Venturi mask is:
the use of its fine adjustment capabilities in the long-term management of physiologically stable patients.
A 51-year-old female presents with a sudden onset of difficulty breathing. She is conscious and alert and able to speak in complete sentences. Her respirations are 22 breaths/min and regular. You should:
administer 100% oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask.
What occurs when a patient is breathing very rapidly and shallowly?
Air moves primarily in the anatomic dead space and does not participate in pulmonary gas exchange.
As the single EMT managing an apneic patient's airway, the preferred initial method of providing ventilations is the:
mouth-to-mask technique with a one-way valve
You and your partner are treating a 66-year-old man who experienced a sudden onset of respiratory distress. He is conscious but is unable to follow simple verbal commands. Further assessment reveals that his breathing is severely labored and his oxygen sa
assist his ventilations with a bag-mask device.
Which of the following statements regarding positive-pressure ventilation is correct?
With positive-pressure ventilation, more volume is required to have the same effects as normal breathing.
How does positive-pressure ventilation affect cardiac output?
It increases intrathoracic pressure, which decreases venous return to the heart and causes a decrease in cardiac output.
You are ventilating a 40-year-old uninjured man who is apneic but has a pulse. When your partner reassesses his blood pressure, he notes that it has decreased significantly from previous readings. You elevate the patient's legs, but this action has no eff
reevaluate the rate and volume of your ventilations.
You are performing mouth-to-mask ventilations with oxygen connected and set at a flow rate of 15 L/min. What percentage of oxygen is your patient receiving?
0.55
You and your partner are caring for a critically injured patient. Your partner is controlling severe bleeding from the patient's lower extremities as you attempt ventilations with a bag-mask device. After repositioning the mask several times, you are unab
begin ventilations using the mouth-to-mask technique.
Which of the following statements regarding the one-person bag-mask device technique is correct?
Adequate tidal volume is often difficult to achieve when one EMT is operating the bag-mask device.
Despite your attempts to coach a conscious young female's respirations, she continues to hyperventilate with a marked reduction in tidal volume. You should:
explain to her that you will assist her ventilations.
When ventilating an apneic adult with a simple barrier device, you should deliver each breath:
while watching for adequate chest rise.
After establishing that an adult patient is unresponsive, you should:
open the airway.
CPR will NOT be effective if the patient is:
prone
In MOST cases, cardiopulmonary arrest in infants and children is caused by:
respiratory arrest.
Several attempts to adequately open a trauma patient's airway with the jaw-thrust maneuver have been unsuccessful. You should:
carefully perform the head tilt-chin lift maneuver.
Signs of a sudden severe upper airway obstruction include all of the following, EXCEPT:
forceful coughing.
Which of the following techniques should you use to dislodge a foreign body airway obstruction in a patient who is in an advanced stage of pregnancy or who is very obese?
chest thrusts
After ________ minutes without oxygen, brain damage is likely.
6
The proper depth of chest compressions on a 9-month-old infant is:
one third to one half the diameter of the chest.
Complications associated with chest compressions include all of the following, EXCEPT:
gastric distention.
During two-rescuer CPR, the compressor and ventilator switch positions. While rescuer one is finishing his or her cycle of 30 compressions, rescuer two should:
move to the opposite side of the patient's chest.
The impedance threshold device (ITD) may improve circulation during CPR by:
limiting the amount of air that enters the lungs during the recoil phase between chest compressions, which results in negative intrathoracic pressure and improved cardiac filling.
The MOST appropriate treatment for a patient with a mild upper airway obstruction includes:
administering oxygen and transporting immediately.
CPR should be initiated when:
a valid living will is unavailable.
Which of the following is NOT a BLS intervention?
cardiac monitoring
Initial treatment to dislodge a severe foreign body airway obstruction in a responsive infant involves:
back slaps.
Most prehospital cardiac arrests occur as the result of:
a cardiac arrhythmia.
You should deliver chest compressions to an unconscious adult patient in cardiac arrest by:
compressing the sternum between the nipples.
Which of the following is considered an obvious sign of death and would not require the initiation of CPR?
dependent blood pooling
Which of the following is NOT an indication to stop CPR once you have started?
Care is transferred to a bystander.
Which of the following is an example of a symptom?
headache
Which of the following scenarios does NOT involve the presence of any symptoms?
a 61-year-old female who is unconscious with facial cyanosis
Which of the following actions would NOT be performed during the scene size-up?
rapidly assessing a patient's respiratory status
While en route to the scene of a shooting, the dispatcher advises you that the caller states that the perpetrator has fled the scene. You should:
confirm this information with law enforcement personnel at the scene.
Upon arriving at a potentially unsafe scene, you should:
ensure that you are safe.
You are assessing a 72-year-old man with abdominal pain. The patient is sitting in a chair; he is conscious, alert, and calm. As you are talking to the patient, your partner discreetly directs your attention to a handgun, which is located on a nearby tabl
position yourself in between the patient and the gun and ask your partner to request law enforcement assistance.
Which of the following statements regarding the mechanism of injury (MOI) is correct?
The MOI may allow you to predict the severity of a patient's injuries.
The MOST effective way to determine whether your patient's problem is medical or traumatic in origin is to:
perform a careful and thorough assessment.
During an EMS call, you should take standard precautions:
upon exiting the ambulance, but before actual patient contact.
Treatment and transport priorities at the scene of a mass-casualty incident should be determined after:
all the patients have been triaged
When is it MOST appropriate to consider requesting additional ambulances at an accident scene?
when you determine there are multiple patients
The goal of the primary assessment is to:
identify and rapidly treat all life-threatening conditions.
Observations made when forming a general impression of a patient would include all of the following, EXCEPT:
pulse strength.
When approaching a 32-year-old male who is complaining of traumatic neck pain, you should:
ensure that the patient can see you approaching him.
Which of the following conditions would be LEAST likely to cause an altered level of consciousness?
acute anxiety
You are called to a motor vehicle collision where the car is on fire. You should ensure safety by:
remaining a safe distance from the car until the fire is out
You and your partner are en route to a motor vehicle crash involving a tanker truck on a rural road. Dispatch informs you that fluid is leaking from the truck and that there are several bystanders passed out on the ground near the cab of the truck. You sh
consult the Emergency Response Guidebook.
You and your partner respond to a residence for a fall. You arrive to find a group of approximately 30 adults surrounding a middle-aged man who appears to be unconscious. A police car pulls in behind you. You should:
wait for the police officer to assess the safety of the scene.
Your patient fell out of a tree while putting the roof on a tree house. A 15-foot ladder is required to enter the tree house and there is enough room for an adult to stand up inside. Your patient should be transported to:
a trauma center.
While transporting a patient to the hospital you should:
continue assessing your surroundings for danger
Which of the following is the correct manner for checking for responsiveness in an apparently unresponsive infant?
Flicking the soles of the feet
Which of the following is the most reliable means of determining whether a patient has any immediately life-threatening conditions?
A systematic approach to assessment
A patient whose mental status can be described as "verbal" is able to:
respond to speaking or shouting by opening the eyes.
Which of the following indicates a possible circulatory problem?
All of the above
Which of the following is a significant mechanism of injury?
Gunshot wound of the forearm
Your patient is a 27-year-old female who was ejected from a vehicle that then rolled over her. She is complaining of pain in her pelvic region. Which of the following techniques should be used to assess the injury?
Do not palpate the pelvis
What term describes a permanent surgical opening in the neck through which a patient breathes?
Stoma
You are performing a rapid trauma assessment on an unresponsive 30-year-old male. As you evaluate his head, which of the following should you check for?
Crepitus
Your 35-year-old male patient was involved in a high-speed vehicle collision. The patient is not entrapped, but he is a high priority for transport due to suspected internal bleeding. The trauma center is 15 minutes away, and an ALS response unit is 10 mi
Transport the patient to the hospital.
When the heart contracts and forces blood into the arteries, the pressure created is known as the:
systolic blood pressure.
When pupils are dilated they are:
larger than normal.
Where do baseline vital signs fit into the sequence of patient assessment?
At secondary assessment
You are assessing a 55-year-old male complaining of chest pain and have determined that his radial pulse is barely palpable. You also determine that there were 20 pulsations over a span of 30 seconds. Based on this, how would you report this patient's pul
Pulse 40 and weak
Your patient is in late stages of liver failure and has requested to be transported to the emergency department. You take your body substance isolation and move him to your cot and notice his skin is warm and dry with a yellow color. Your radio report to
jaundiced.
You are called for a patient who is complaining of being weak and dizzy. He reports that he doesn't have enough money to pay for his medications so he hasn't gotten them refilled. Your service has an automatic blood pressure machine and you use it to meas
Take a manual blood pressure.
Your patient has fallen in her kitchen and has a possible sprained ankle. As you proceed through your history and physical exam, you notice that she has an altered mental status and is not answering your questions appropriately. She is alone in the house
checking her pupils.
You are caring for a teenager who is having a severe allergic reaction. He has hives all over his stomach, is having respiratory distress, and is wheezing. After you administer oxygen, you get a set of vital signs. Medical direction has ordered you to ass
reassessment.
You are on the scene of a patient who is the victim of an assault. The scene is safe. You find a 22-year-old male patient responsive to painful stimuli only. His blood pressure is 180/80, pulse is 60, respirations are 12, and his oxygen saturation is 95 p
Unstable. The patient is responsive to painful stimuli only.