The purpose of an infrared lamp that emits energy at frequencies between 700 and 50,000 nanometers is to provide _____________?
Topical heating
Luminous infrared lamps are often known by what AKA
Baker's Lamp
True / False: Non-luminous infrared lamps feel warmer than luminous?
True
Electric heating pads, hydrocollator, paraffin, fluidotherapy, whirlpools and contrast baths are all types of FAR infrared, what 2 types of near infrared did we study?
Luminous and non-luminous IR lamps
In terms of Infrared Radiation physics which law states that "what is not absorbed, goes deeper?
Grotthus Draper Law
In terms of Infrared Radiation physics which law states that triggering a response is an "all or none" proposition?
Arndt Shultz Principle
What is the reddened skin response to an overexposure to infrared?
Erythema ab igne
In terms of Infrared Radiation physics which law states that the most energy will be transmitted when the source is perpendicular, i.e. Riddle calls it the "suntan rule"?
Cosine Law
In terms of Infrared Radiation physics which law stipulates that intensity increases as you decrease distance of the skin to the energy source?
Inverse Square Law
To reduce the intensity of Infrared, the Cosine Law says you should ___________ the angle at which the radiation strikes the treatment area?
Increase
To reduce the intensity of Infrared, the Inverse Square Law says you should increase the ___________ of the source to the skin surface?
Distance
With infrared we expect the heat effects of vasodilation, sweating, muscle relaxation, increased metabolic activity, etc but we have to watch for what detractor?
Dehydration
Protective equipment needed for Infrared use includes: goggles, dry towels for non treatment area and moist towels for treatment area plus (1)?
Ground fault interrupter
Which type of infrared lamp is more common?
Non-luminous
Which type of infrared lamp uses incandescent light and provides better penetration?
Luminous
Prototypical contraindications (HIMS and DEAD A) apply for Infrared treatments plus new scar tissue, rashes plus (2) more?
Systemic lupus and coronary artery disease
Infrared is a good treatment protocol in the case of sprains, strains, backache, bursitis, seeping wounds, Raynaud's, neuritis, sinusitis and what other common skin condition?
Furuncles / folliculitis
There are 3 basic rules for infrared application (D, BP, 3-5) which include making sure skin is dry and checking area every 3-5 min during treatment, what is the 3rd?
Drape or pad bony prominences
Infrared treatments are specifically oriented toward THERMAL change while UV treatments are oriented toward __________ change?
Chemical (mutagenic)
The 2 disadvantages to Infrared that we discussed were that it's hard to focus the ray and?
Drying effect can impede healing
There are 3 ranges of UV rays: UVA at 3200-4000A causes no effect, UVB at 2900-3200A causes a sunburn and UVC causes what type of effect?
Germicidal
Ultraviolet therapies are also called ______________ because of the photochemical and slight thermal effect?
Actinic
In terms of UV wavelengths SHORTER penetrates FURTHER but depends on two factors which are?
Melanin, thickness of epidermis
UV treatment goals can include redness (erythema) within 12 hours of treatment, pigmentation change plus (1)?
Destruction of bacteria in wounds
The metabolic effects of Ultraviolet (UV) therapy include increased metabolism, increased reticulocytosis and (2) more?
Vit D synthesis, release of vasodilators
UVA rays are melanogenic and cause a histamine response, UVB rays are erythemagenic and cause a burn while UVC rays are ______, germicidal and bactericidal?
Cold
UV applications are indicated for folliculitis (like IR), pityriasis rosea, osteomalacia, herpes zoster, fungal infectionas, decubitus ulcers and what common child condition?
Impetigo
Prototypical contraindications (HIMS and DEAD A) apply for therapeutic UV treatments plus ACUTE psoriasis, sarcoidosis, lupus, herpes simplex, CAD plus (3)?
Diabetes, photosensitive drugs, pellagra
What is the name of the skin test to determine the Minimal Effective Dose (MED) of Ultraviolet?
Sleeve / patch test
The Sleeve or Patch test tests for?
UV tolerance
In the Sleeve or Patch test, the MED is defined as?
First exposure with slight reddening
With ultraviolet therapy technician starts at the MED, increases dosage by 15 seconds each time but never exceeds ____ minutes?
Three
Factors affecting MED include the angle of the application (which is ____________) intensity of lamp, distance from lamp, duration of exposure and melanin content of skin?
Cosine Law
What is the clinical definition of suberythemal dosage (SED)?
No reddening at 24 hours
A 2nd degree UV burn or "common sunburn" involves redness and slight peeling persisting ____________ hours?
48-72
A 3rd degree UV burn involves considerable reddening, itching, peeling, blisters all of which persist past ______ hours?
72
Process by which a person becomes overly sensitive to UV as a result of excitation by other chemical or UV exposures?
Photosensitization
Eye inflammation due to UV exposure usually within 6-12 hours after treatment, feels like foreign body in eye with redness and exudate, "snow blindness"?
Photokeratitis
UVA rays are absorbed in the lens of the eye and can cause?
Cataracts
UVB and UVC rays are absorbed in what structure of the eye?
Cornea
In terms of different types of UV lamps, there are carbon arc, xenon arc and fluorescent "black lamps" but the most common type is what?
Mercury arc
The "Kromayer lamp" used for sleeve testing is a __________ / ____________ mercury arc lamp?
High pressure "hot quartz
With a "hot quartz" lamp pre-warm it for 5 minutes, hold it 30" from skin and if patient misses a treatment you should?
Reduce treatment time or start over at MED
The "hot quartz" lamp emits what UV rays?
UVA and UVB
The "cold quartz" lamp emits what UV rays?
UVC
The "cold quartz" lamp is mainly for ___________ and you hold it 1" off skin and increase treatment times by 1second increments?
Open wounds
Special "black light" for detecting diseases and conditions of the skin, especially fungus and bacteria but also ethylene glycol poisoning?
Woods' lamp
LASER is an acronym that stands for?
Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation
Crystal lasers have a synthetic _______ that produces laser light?
Ruby
Gas lasers use a blend of?
Helium and neon (HeNe)
High powered lasers allow for shorter treatment times and (1)?
Enhanced depth of penetration
What class of lasers are rapidly becoming the standard in the rehab field?
Class 3B
The FDA has cleared LLLT for treatment of minor muscle and joint aches, spasms, arthritis and (1)?
Increase of circulation
Most therapeutic lasers operate in what light spectrum?
Infrared
What wavelengths are usually used in LLLT (visible is 600-700 nm)?
600-1000 nm
We don't use Lasers with photosensitivities, directly over thyroid or fetus or uterus during pregnancy, or (plus 2)?
Cancer or directly in eyes
Cut dosage on a Low Level (Cold) Laser when treating over dark tattoo or over dark pigmented skin by what %?
50-75
What is the unit of measurement for the intensity of the laser light energy over the treatment area?
Joules/cm2
Current maximum daily dose of Low Level Laser therapy is?
100 mW/cm2
What is the primary mechanism of change with vibration tools?
Kinetic
What treatment modality is helpful for the following: trigger points, adhesions, muscle spasm, fibromyalgia, stasis, sinus congestion, sciatica, edema and depression?
Vibration
Vibration therapies are contraindicated for persons with TB, cervical spondylosis, thrombophlebitis, anxiety states, pneumothorax, acute LBP, acute inflammation and (3 more)?
Malignancy, advanced heart disease and hemorrhage
High velocity vibration has analgesic effects, will relax spasticity, decrease trigger points, good for pre exercise warming up and superficial circulatory stimulation - what Hz?
30-50
Low velocity vibration is good for chest congestion, edema, drainage, hyperesthesia and stasis and operates at less than 5 hz, what negative effect can be associated with?
Ligamentous creep
If using vibration therapy for a general body massage how much time is recommended for treatment?
3-5 min
If using vibration therapy for trigger points how much time is recommended?
6-8 min
If patient complains of persistent ITCHING (vasomotor response) during a vibration treatment what should you do?
Stop
With a vibration tool where would you contact to increase the parasympathetic Vagus reponses such as increased peristalsis, increased mucosal secretions etc?
C1-C2
With a vibration tool where would you contact to increase the depth of diaphragmatic excursion?
C3
With a vibration tool where would you contact to relax the stomach, inhibit the heart?
T1-T3
With a vibration tool where would you contact to cause pyloric and duodenal dilation (when done on the right)?
T5
With a vibration tool where would you contact to increase PANCREATIC secretions and relax the intestines/colon?
T10-T11
With a vibration tool where would you contact to stimulate the uterus, round ligament and/or bladder?
L1-2-3
Absolute contraindications to massage are: Surgery, mono, ringworms, flu, HTN, hepatitis (very communicable), gout, german measles and (plus 4)?
Fever, diarrhea, chicken pox, shingles
A local contraindication to massage means it's ok to massage just stay away from these areas: blisters, bruises, decubitus ulcers, carpal tunnel, colitis, Crohns plus (3)?
Acne, acute inflammation, any vascular problems
Type of massage: superficial stroking to the heart?
Effleurage
Type of massage: deep kneading, grasping, wringing?
Petrissage
Type of massage: tapping or hacking with ulnar borders of hands?
Tapotement
Pressing deeply in a part and moving the hand in a circular direction across the muscle fiber?
Transverse or cross friction massage
AKA for trigger points?
Myofascial pain syndrome
Type of trigger point that does not yet refer pain actively, but may when pressure or strain is applied; can influence muscle activation patterns.
Latent
Trigger points can develop due to a deficiency of which essential vitamin?
B-6
Treatments for trigger points may include: LLLT, reciprocal inhibition stretching, injection with Novocain or Botox, electric stim, pulsed ultrasound and the most common 2?
Massage or tapotment, vibration
Trigger points can be causually linked to: bad posture, bad mechanics, repetitive motion or (plus 2)?
Structural (limb length difference) or nutritional deficiency
Common causes of trigger points in the glutes include: Prolonged standing, uphill walking, side sleeping and acute overload plus (1)?
Sitting on wallet
Common cause of trigger points in the occipitals is whiplash, reading, watching TV on couch and (2 paired neck movements)?
Prolonged flexion and excessive extension
Movement based muscle lengthening technique that removes and breaks up adhesions, most popular form is ART?
Dynamic pin and stretch
Goal of ART is to __________ and improve ___________ of painful tissues related to activity intolerance or mechanical sensitivities?
Unload, gliding
Manipulation of soft tissue and fascia in a cause and effect pattern to produce balance, and regain structural alignment to area of dysfunction?
Rolfing
AKA for trigger point therapy or receptor-tonus technique, named for doctor that developed in the 1950s?
Nimmo
The application of a force or a system of forces to the spine that separates or attempts to separate the vertebra and elongate the surrounding tissue?
Traction
The goals of traction are to: Decompress, Mobilize, reduce inflammation and _____________ circulation?
Increase
Decompression and traction treatments are good for DJD, subacute pain, hyperlordosis and (main 3)?
Nerve root impingement, joint hypomobility, healed compression fx
Decompression and traction treatments are contraindicated in the event of pregnancy, hiatal hernia, peptic ulcer, aortic aneursym, acute sprains, unstable fractures and (plus 2)?
Diabetes mellitus, structural disease w/ RA, osteoporosis, infection
True / False: Centralization of the pain after a trial of manual traction is an indicator of favorable outcomes?
True
If you pull too hard in traction, you'll invoke?
Myotatic stretch reflex
Continuous spinal traction is a light weight for prolonged periods of time, ineffective at producing separation but aligns and stabilizations with fracture or dislocation; name one?
Halo device
What type of spinal traction is helpful in early phases of traction when there is muscle guarding?
Sustained
Type of traction that alternates applies traction force and releases, good for imbibing or pumping the disc?
Intermittent
Contraindications to inversion tables include: Coronary artery disease (CAD), history of aneurysm, pregnancy and 2 more?
Cataracts, glaucoma
Intersegmental traction is more correctly called a passive modality but its primary benefit is?
Relaxation
In terms of LUMBAR traction, begin with ____ of patients body weight and increase _____ each treatment; max force is 150 pounds or patient tolerance?
25%, 5 lbs
The table used for lumbar traction does not do any work per se, for traction of LOWER LUMBARS what angle of pull?
30-50 degrees
For traction of patient with LUMBAR HYPERLORDOSIS what angle of pull?
30-50 degrees
Lumbar traction is typically applied in sessions of ___ minutes?
20
First lumbar traction of a herniated disc should only be about __________ minutes; never exceed 20 with this type patient?
3-5
Treatment frequency for BOTH cervical and lumbar traction patients is?
Daily for 3 days, then 3x week for 2-3 weeks
In terms of CERVICAL traction, begin with ____ of patients body weight and increase _____ each treatment; max force is 50 pounds or patient tolerance?
5%, 2 lbs
For UPPER CERVICAL traction of patient, what angle of pull?
0-15 degrees
For MIDDLE CERVICAL traction, what angle of pull?
10-20 degrees
For cervical traction the harness is placed where?
Under occipital ridge
Devices that support or correct musculoskeletal deformities or abnormalities of the human body?
Orthoses
Spinal orthotics may be appropriate in the event of joint instability, DJD, postural backache, scoliosis, compression fractures and (2 more)?
Hyperkyphosis or hyperlordosis
Type of brace that prevents spinal flexion?
Jewett
Type of brace one wears post spinal fusion surgery?
Knight Taylor
Type of brace for scoliosis?
Milwaukee
Brace that extends from the neck to the pelvis, consisting of plastic pelvic girdle and neck ring connected by metal bards in the front and back of the brace?
Milwaukee
Plastic form fitting brace for thoracic scoliosis?
Boston
Type of brace that limits lateral flexion and rotation, similar to corset?
Chairback
Type of support that limits SI ROM, used for piriformis syndrome and LBP?
Trochanteric belt
Brace used often with carpal tunnel?
Cock up splint
Brace used often with inverse ankle sprains?
Louisiana (figure 8)
De-rotational brace used often with ACL and PCL stability needs?
Lennox Hill
CASTING for foot orthotics is done in ____________ position and is ____ weightbearing?
Neutral, non
FOOT IMPRESSIONS are done standing and semi weightbearing based on MASS (maximum arch subtalar supination); this model of correction has a goal of?
Restoring optimal arch height
What type of orthotics are used to control foot drop?
Rigid
What type of orthotics are most often used for diabetics?
Soft
What types of orthotics are most often used to treat athletes?
Semi-rigid
Type of orthotic that calculates in the individuals weight, foot flexibility and activity level to deliver a custom level of support with functional control?
Calibrated