A. apraxia
Your patient is demonstrating an inability to carry out a movement even though her sensory system, muscles and coordination are intact. This would be defined as:
A. apraxia
B. tactile agnosia
C. prosopagnosia
D. figure ground
D. form constancy
A patient is unable to distinguish a form, shape, or object despite its location, position, color or size. This would be defined as:
A. depth perception
B. autotopagnosia
C. asterognosis
D. form constancy
D. Color Agnosia
A patient is having difficulty naming a specific color of various objects. This would be defined as:
A. autopagnosia
B. impersistance
C. astereohnosis
D. color agnosia
C. finger agnosia
A patient is demonstrating an inability to recognize which finger is being touched or used even though her sensory system is intact. This would be defined as:
A. limb agnosia
B. soatognosia
C. finger agnosia
D. extinction
C. topographical orientation
A patient is having difficulty determining current location, goal location, and problem solving to implement a navigation action. This would be defined as:
A. prosopagnosia
B. autopagnosia
C. topographical orientation
D. Visual Inattention
A. spatial relations
A patient is having difficulty with his perception of his self compared to objects in the environment. This would be defined as:
A. spatial relations
B. apraxia
C. simultanagnosia
D. motor perception
C. unilateral neglect
A patient is demonstrating impaired awareness of one side of his body. This would be defined as:
A. apraxia
B. impersistance
C. unilateral neglect
D. limb akinesia
C. depth perception
Your patient is demonstrating difficulty with judging distances during a driving task. This would be defined as:
A. spatial relations
B. apraxia
C. depth perception
D. soatognosia
D. figure ground
A patient is unable to recognize the foreground from the background based on differences in color, luminance, depth, texture and motion. This would be defined as:
A. extinction
B. spatial relations
C. topographical orientation
D. figure ground
D. hypokinesia
patient demonstrates delayed movement of her RUE. This would be defined as:
A. motor perseveration
B. spatial relations
C. impersistance
D. hypokinesia
D. NDT
his sensorimotor approach is based on normal development and movement:
A. Rood
B. Brunnstrom
C. PNF
D. NDT
A. Task-Oriented
Use of functional tasks as the focus of treatment, with special attention to personal and environmental factors that influence occupational performance, are a part of this client-centered treatment approach:
A. Task-Oriented
B. Rood
C. Brunnstrom
D. PNF
D. NDT
The primary objectives in this approach are to normalize muscle tone, inhibit primitive reflexes, and facilitate normal postural reactions.
A. PNF
B. Rood
C. Brunnstrom
D. NDT
B. PNF
The major emphasis in this approach is on developmental sequencing of movement between agonist and antagonist muscles:
A. Brunnstrom
B. PNF
C. Rood
D. Task-Oriented Approach
D. Rood
key component to this sensorimotor technique is the use of sensory stimulation, such as tapping or deep pressure, to evoke a motor response.
A. Brunstrom
B. NDT
C. PNF
D. Rood
C. Task-Oriented Approach
In this approach, you can provide manual guidance if necessary but allow some elements to vary so that the client can experiment with movement patterns, while the task can be modified initially for success.
A. PNF
B. Rood
C. Task-Oriented Approach
D. NDT
B. NDT
This approach uses handling techniques such as weight-bearing over the affected limb as well as positions that use both sides of the body.
A. PNF
B. NDT
C. Brunnstrom
D. Rood
D. Brunnstrom
Promoting movement from reflexive to volitional is the emphasis of this sensorimotor approach.
A. Task-Oriented Approach
B. Rood
C. NDT
D. Brunnstrom
D. Rood
This approach involves cephalocaudal and proximal?distal sequence to promote motor responses.
A. NDT
B. PNF
C. Brunnstrom
D. Rood
A. Deep Pressure Over Tendon Insertion
An example of a Rood technique that will decrease muscle tone.
A. Deep Pressure Over Tendon Insertion
B. Task oriented activity
C. Generating a reflexive movement
D. Volitional control technique
D. PNF
Asking a client to reach up and across the body to complete an ADL is an example of a treatment session from this sensorimotor approach.
A. NDT
B. Brunnstrom
C. Rood
D. PNF
A. Task oriented approach
This treatment principle structures practice of the task to promote motor learning.
A. Task oriented approach
B. Tapping over the muscle belly
C. PNF
D. Rood
B. Brunnstrom
The concepts of flexor synergy and extensor synergy belong to this approach.
A. Task-Oriented Approach
B. Brunnstrom
C. PNF
D. NDT
A. PNF
Tactile, auditory, and visual inputs are incorporated into treatment sessions using this approach.
A. PNF
B. NDT
C. Brunnstrom
D. Task-Oriented Approach
B. Tapping over the muscle belly
This is an example of a Rood technique that will increase muscle tone.
A. Diagonal movement patterns
B. Tapping over the muscle belly
C. Task oriented activiity
D. Deep pressure
B. Middle cerebral artery
Which artery is the largest branch of the internal carotid artery, responsible for contralateral hemiplegia and sensory loss (upper extremity involvement greater than lower extremity, face, and tongue), executive dysfunction, cognitive impairments, homony
D. All of the above
Which of the following therapeutic interventions represent consideration of ADLs and IADLs?
A. Standing at the sink to perform grooming
B. Visual perceptual training to locate clothing items in drawer or closet
C. Trialing use of a pillbox to address medi
D. All of the above
Which of the following therapeutic interventions represent motor control techniques in the context of IADLs?
A. Handling coins using in-hand manipulation
B. Using functional reach and gross grasp to open lever-handled doors
C. Incorporating gross grasp to
D. All of the above
Motor control techniques used to improve vision and perception and strengthen extraocular muscle strengthening may include the following:
A. Pen and cap exercises
B. Block string exercises
C. Intermittent partial occlusion
D. All of the above
A. Left CVA/Right Hemiplegia
Processing of verbal auditory information is a main sign or symptom of the following:
A. Left CVA/Right Hemiplegia
B. Right CVA/Left Hemiplegia
B. Right CVA/Left Hemiplegia
Homonymous Hemianopsia is a main sign or symptom of the following:
A. Left CVA/Right Hemiplegia
B. Right CVA/Left Hemiplegia
B. Right CVA/Left Hemiplegia
Emotional lability is a main sign or symptom of the following:
A. Left CVA/Right Hemiplegia
B. Right CVA/Left Hemiplegia
A. Left CVA/Right Hemiplegia
Wernicke is a main sign or symptom of the following:
A. Left CVA/Right Hemiplegia
B. Right CVA/Left Hemiplegia
B. Right CVA/Left Hemiplegia
Impaired movement of left side of body is a main sign or symptom of the following:
A. Left CVA/Right Hemiplegia
B. Right CVA/Left Hemiplegia
A. Left CVA/Right Hemiplegia
Impaired movement on right side of body is a main sign or symptom of the following:
A. Left CVA/Right Hemiplegia
B. Right CVA/Left Hemiplegia
B. aphasia
Which of the following is characterized as either expressive or receptive aphasic and refers to a diminished ability to verbally express or understand speech?
A. Subluxation
B. aphasia
C. dysgraphia
D. dysarthria
B. Fugl-Meyer Assessment of Motor Function
Which of the following assessments measure a person's ability to move in and out of synergistic gross and fine motor control patterns:
A. Arm Motor Ability Test
B. Fugl-Meyer Assessment of Motor Function
C. Jebsen Hand Function
D. Functional Reach Test
A. Glasgow Coma Scale
A patient presents with decreased consciousness at the scene of an accident. Which of the following assessments would be used:
A. Glasgow Coma Scale
B. Mini-Mental State Examination
C. Montreal Cognitive Assessment
D. Wolf Motor Function Test
C. Hemorrhagic
This type of stroke causes pooling of blood in the brain, interrupting normal blood flow:
A. Aortic
B. Ischemia
C. Hemorrhagic
D. None of the above
Level III
Ranchos Los Amigos - Localized response: Response directly related to types of stimuli, yet still inconsistent and delayed.
Level X
Ranchos Los Amigos - Purposeful-appropriate (mod I) responds adequately to multiple tasks, may need more breaks. Independently applies cognitive compensatory strategies and adjusts tasks as needed.
Level X
Level VIII
Ranchos Los Amigos - Purposeful-appropriate (with SBA) response adequate to familiar tasks, subtle impairments.
Level I
Ranchos Los Amigos - No response. Unresponsive to stimuli.
Level V
Ranchos Los Amigos - Confused-inappropriate: some response to simple commands, but confusion with more complex commands; high level of distractibility.
Level II
Ranchos Los Amigos - Generalized response: Nonspecific, inconsistent, and nonpurposeful reaction to stimuli.
Level VII
Ranchos Los Amigos - Automatic-appropriate: response robot like, judgment and problem-solving ability lacking.
Level VI
Ranchos Los Amigos - Confused-appropriate: response more goal directed but cues necessary.
Level IX
Ranchos Los Amigos - Purposeful-appropriate (with SBA) responds effectively to familiar situations, but generally needs cues to anticipate problems, low frustration tolerance.
Level IV
Ranchos Los Amigos - Confused - agitated: response heightened, severely confused, and may be bizarre.
D. occipital lobe
Blurred vision would indicate damage to which part of the brain?
A. frontal lobe
B. parietal lobe
C. temporal lobe
D. occipital lobe
E. cerebellum
F. brain stem
B. moderate
A score of 9 on the Glasgow Coma Scale would indicate what type of brain injury?
A. mild
B. moderate
C. severe
C. aphasia
Refers to a diminished ability to verbally express or understand speech
A. ataxia
B. apraxia
C. aphasia
D. perception
C. acceleration and deceleration
Coup-contrecoup injuries are the result of sudden:
A. acceleration
B. deceleration
C. acceleration and deceleration
B. as soon as possible
Family education begins at which stage with a TBI patient:
A. discharge
B. as soon as possible
C. after the patient is awake
A. AIS A Level
No motor or sensory function in preservation below the level of spinal injury:
A. AIS A Level
B. AIS C Level
C. AIS AD Level
D. AIS B Level
D. AIS C Level
Both motor and sensory are preserved below the level of injury. More than half of the key muscles below injury level present with a muscle grade less than 3/5 or fair muscle grade
A. AIS A Level
B. AIS B Level
C. AIS D Level
D. AIS C Level
C. paraplegia
Motor and/or sensory impairment of the lower extremities and/or trunk:
A. central cord syndrome
B. brown-sequard syndrome
C. paraplegia
D. tetraplegia
D. Central-cord syndrome
Greater weakness of the upper extremities than the lower extremities:
A. Brown-sequard syndrome
B. Cauda equina syndrome
C. tetraplegia
D. Central-cord syndrome
C. C6
The primary key muscles of this level is wrist extensors:
A. C5
B. C4
C. C6
D. C1-C3
B. C1-C3
This SCI level requires respiratory support and is dependent with all ADL tasks.
A. C5
B. C1-C3
C. C4
D. C6
C. C7
The primary key muscles of this level is triceps:
A. C5
B. C8
C. C7
D. C6
B. C6
The focus of intervention is on tenodesis training at what level :
A. C7
B. C6
C. C5
D. C8
D. complete
Absence of sensory and motor function in the lowest sacral segments of the spinal cord:
A. central cord
B. incomplete
C. Cauda equina
D. complete
D. C1-C3
The focus of intervention is on use of environmental controls, adaptive devices and computer controls, orthotics and direction of care:
A. C5
B. C6
C. C4
D. C1-C3
True
During acute exacerbations, clients with MS should be on complete bed rest and avoid all exertion.
True or False
False
For clients with MS, muscles do not recover from fatigue as readily as normal muscles, so if these clients overexert themselves, heat treatments are indicated to assist in relieving their pain. True or False
True
For clients with Guillain-Barr� syndrome, the OT should slowly and gently introduce exercise and not exercise the client beyond the point of muscle fatigue. True or False
True
The small hand muscles (intrinsics) should be protected (especially for clients with Guillain-Barr� syndrome) when they are a 3+/5. True or False
False
Clients with ALS should be involved strictly with remediation treatment interventions rather than compensation treatment interventions. True or False
D. all of the above
An effective intervention strategy for increasing oral and facial motor skills includes:
A. increasing voluntary movements of the lips
B. passive and resistive tongue movements.
C. encouraging use of the sip and puff technique
D. all of the above
A. GBS
An acute, rapidly progressive form of polyneuropathy
A. GBS
B. MS
C. ALS
A. ALS
A rapidly progressive, noninflammatory, upper and lower motor neuron disease
A. ALS
B. MS
C. GBS
A. MS
A slowly progressive disorder of the CNS in which patches of the brain and spinal cord become demyelinated
A. MS
B. ALS
C. GBS
C. GBS
Weakness is generally abrupt, with muscle weakness usually beginning in the hands and feet. Weakness is often symmetrical and often progresses to the neck and facial muscles.
A. MS
B. ALS
C. GBS
A. MS
Symptoms include incoordination, muscle weakness, spasticity, hypotonia, decreased visual acuity, and cognitive impairments.
A. MS
B. ALS
C. GBS
A. ALS
Consists of three stages: stage 1 (decreased endurance), stage 2 (loss of hand function and lower extremity weakness), and stage 3 (total dependence in ADLs).
A. ALS
B. GBS
C. MS
D. all of the above
When used with clients having neurologic conditions, splinting interventions should:
A. support the palmar arches
B. increase hand function
C. provide proper positioning for rest.
D. all of the above
D. all of the above
Which of the following are physical agent modalities?
A. moist heat
B. ulrasound
C. electrotherapy
D. all of the above
A. C5
Which of the following nerve roots is associated with the
Proximal lateral shoulder sensation, biceps brachii, supraspinatus, and infraspinatus
A. C5
B. C6
C. C7
D. C8
E. T1
False
Most rotator cuff injuries require surgery secondary to a tendon's inablity to spontaneously repair? True or False
D. all of the above
Which of the following cause labral tears?
A. overuse
B. trauma
C. degenerative conditions
D. all of the above
True
Glenohumeral osteoarthritis is the most common degenerative condition affecting the shoulder joint. True or False
B. adhesive capsulitis
Which of the following is also known as "frozen shoulder"?
A. labral tear
B. adhesive capsulitis
C. rotator cuff tear
D. shoulder dislocation
C. Proximal humeral fractures
Which of the following result from a fall on an outstretched arm or from a direct fall on the shoulder itself?
A. Shoulder dislocation
B. Clavicle fracture
C. Proximal humeral fractures
D. Acromioclavicular separation
D. Rotator cuff tear
Which of the following degenerate with age resulting in progressive degeneration and often tearing of the tendon from the tuberosity?
A. Clavicle fractures
B. Acromioclavicular seperation
C. Shoulder dislocation
D. Rotator cuff tear
B. Shoulder dislocation
Which of the following occur in an anterior, inferior direction due to anteriorly directed trauma to a shoulder in an abducted and externally rotated position?
A. Labral tear
B. Shoulder dislocation
C. Shoulder arthritis
D. Proximal Humeral Fractures
C. Total shoulder arthroplasty
Which of the following utilize a cobalt chrome or titanium head on polyethylene glenoid; offers consistent pain relief, elevation to approximately 130-140 degrees and complications rates are low?
A. Acromioclavicular separation
B. Adhesive capsulitis
C. T
D. orthosis
An external orthopedic device used to prevent, control or correct deformities or to improve function
A. contraction
B. arthroplasty
C. arthroscopy
D. orthosis
B. radial head fracture
Often occur from a fall on the outstretched hand where radial head is compressed against the capitellum
A. olecranon fracture
B. radial head fracture
C. distal humeral fracture
D. elbow dislocation
C. lateral epicondylitis
This is also known as tennis elbow
A. medial epicondylitis
B. bicep rupture
C. lateral epicondylitis
D. radial head fracture
A. stretching
All of the following are compensatory strategies except:
A. stretching
B. button-hook
C. long handle tools
D. energy conservation strategies
D. medial epicondylitis
Which of the following is known as "golfer's elbow?
A. distal humeral fracture
B. radial head fracture
C. lateral epicondylitis
D. medial epicondylitis
B. arthroplasty
A surgical replacement or reconstruction of a joint
A. arthroscopy
B. arthroplasty
C. fibrosis
D. orthosis
Tinel's Test
The examiner taps over the radial nerve in a proximal to distal direction
Mill's Test
With the client's shoulder in neutral, the examiner palpates the tender area near the lateral epicondyle, then pronates the forearm and flexes the wrist
Cozen's Test
The client's elbow is stabilized by the thumb of the examiner at the lateral epicondyle. With the elbow pronated, the client makes a fist and then extends and radially deviates the wrist, while the examiner resists the wrist motion
Maudsley's Test
With the client's wrist positioned in neutral, the examiner resists extension of the middle finger distal to the proximal IP joint
B. wrist cock-up
Which of the following common splints are used to treat carpal tunnel?
A. short thumb spica
B. wrist cock-up
C. long thumb spica
D. resting hand splint
C. short thumb spica
Which of the following common splints are used to treat Gamekeeper's thumb?
A. wrist cock-up
B. resting hand splint
C. short thumb spica
D. long thumb spica
C
Which of the following common splints are used to treat De Quervains tendonitis?
A. resting hand splint
B. short thumb spica
C. long thumb spica
D. wrist cock-up
E. all of the above
Which of the following is a common test to assess Cubital Tunnel Syndrome?
A. froment's paper sign
B. monofilament testing
C. tinel's sign
D. elbow flexion test
E. all of the above
OK Sign
Unable to bring tip to tip pinch of thumb and second finger
Tinel's Test
tingling and paraesthesia in the median nerve distribution
Finkelstein's Test
Pain with ulnar deviation of the wrist while the client grasps the thumb in the palm
D. all of the above
Complex Regional Pain Syndrome is also referred to as which of the following:
A. reflex sympathetic dsystrophy
B. causalgia
C. reflex neurovascular dystrophy
D. all of the above
B. Gamekeeper's thumb
Which of the following is common in sport's injuries and is an injury to the ulnar collateral ligament of the thumb:
A. PIP/DIP Injury
B. Gamekeeper's thumb
C. Trigger Finger
D. CMC arthritis of the thumb
True
The scaphoid bone is the most commonly fractured carpal bone. True or False