# Clinical Chemistry Unit 1

1. Predictive value for a positive Qualitative Test is best describes as:
b. PPV = TP/(TP+FP) - the number of a true positive values divided by all observed positive values
c. NPV = TN/(TN+FN) - the number of true negative valu

b. PPV = TP/(TP+FP) - the number of a true positive values divided by all observed positive values

2. There are two kindergarten classes from different parts of a city in which five boys (5 years of age) were randomly selected to see how their weights compared to the national average of boys this age, which is 41 pounds. Below are the data for the sele

b. Class 2

3. For a Qualitative Test, sensitivity is determined by:
a. TP/(TP+FP) - the number of true positives divided by all positive results seen by the test
b. TP/(TP+FN) - the number of true positives divided by all results that should have been positive

b. TP/(TP+FN) - the number of true positives divided by all results that should have been positive

4. Precision is best represented by which of the following?
a. Variance
b. Standard deviation
c. Mean (average)
d. Gaussian distribution

b. Standard deviation

5. Predictive value for a negative Qualitative Test is best describes as:
b. PPV = TP/(TP+FP) - the number of a true positive values divided by all observed positive values
c. NPV = TN/(TN+FN) - the number of true negative valu

c. NPV = TN/(TN+FN) - the number of true negative values divided by all observed negative values

6. Accuracy is best represented by which of the following?
a. Standard deviation
b. Variance
c. Gaussian distribution
d. Mean (average)

d. Mean (average)

7. For a Qualitative Test, specificity is determined by:
a. TN/(TN+FP) - the number of true negatives divided by all results that should have been negative
b. TN/(FP+TN) - the number of true negatives divided by all the true positive and negative values

a. TN/(TN+FP) - the number of true negatives divided by all results that should have been negative

8. There are two kindergarten classes from different parts of a city in which five boys (5 years of age) were randomly selected to see how their weights compared to the national average of boys this age, which is 41 pounds. Below are the data for the sele

c. They are equally accurate

1. Which is the correct definition of international unit for enzyme activity?
a. Amount of enzyme that catalyzes the conversion of one kilogram of substrate in 1 h
b. Amount of enzyme that catalyzes the conversion of one micromole of substrate in 1 minute

b. Amount of enzyme that catalyzes the conversion of one micromole of substrate in 1 minute

2. What analytes are separated on agarose gel and SDS-PAGE, respectively?
a. Lipids and protein
b. Proteins and DNA
c. DNA and RNA
d. DNA and protein

d. DNA and protein

3. Enzyme-based clinical assays can be used to measure both endogenous enzymes and endogenous substrates.
a. True
b. False

a. True

4. Which type of patient information do clinical laboratory tests typically provide to physician?
a. Redundant and useful information
b. Critical and clinical information
c. Subjective and personalized information
d. Objective and personalized information

d. Objective and personalized information

5. Hospital/clinical laboratories tend to have higher degree automation to handle high volumes of samples, whereas point-of-care labs focus on convenience and immediate results
a. True
b. False

a. True

Fluorescence emission light wavelength is longer than excitation light wavelength.
a. True
b. False

a. True

7. Ion-selective electrodes (ISE) can be used to measure these analytes including:
a. Na, K, Cl, white blood cells
b. pH, Na, K, Cl, CO2
c. CO2, ammonia, glucose and blood pressure
d. pH, albumin, CO2

b. pH, Na, K, Cl, CO2

8. UV/Visible absorbance assays rely on ___ to determine the concentration of analyte in solution or samples
a. The Strokes-Einstein Equation
b. The Beer-Lambert Law
c. The Henderson-Hasselbalch equation
d. The Arrhenius equation

b. The Beer-Lambert Law

9. EMIT is a homogenous immunoassay that does not require separation of bound antigen from unbound antigen during the assay
a. True
b. False

a. True

1. Which of the following is most likely to interfere with a home pregnancy test?
a. Thyroxin
b. Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)
c. Albumin

Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)

2. Which over the counter test can be used to detect pregnancy?
b. Luteinizing Hormone (LH) test
c. Follicle stimulating (FSH) test

3. Which sample (specimen) has the longest window for being able to detect drug use?
a. Hair
b. Saliva
c. Blood
d. Urine

a. Hair

4. Which of the following is most likely to interfere with a home pregnancy test?
b. Thyroxin
c. Albumin
d. Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH)

d. Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH)

5. When does luteinizing hormone (LH) surge occur relative to ovulation?
a. 30-36 hours before ovulation
b. Seven days before ovulation
c. Right after ovulation

a. 30-36 hours before ovulation

6. What is typically the soonest pregnancy be detected using the human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) test?
a. One month after missed mensis
b. Next day after intercourse
c. Seven to 10 days after missed mensis
d. Seven to 10 days after conception

d. Seven to 10 days after conception

7. Which of the following stimulates promotes fertility in both men and women?
a. Luteinizing hormone (LH) test
c. Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)

c. Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)

8. What type of test is most often available over the counter for a home pregnancy test?
a. Gas chromatography assay
b. Immunochromatographic assay
c. Fluorometric assay
d. Indirect ELISA

b. Immunochromatographic assay

9. Waiver of a test by Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA) indicates that the test:
a. Is approved only for use in a clinical diagnostic lab
b. Is so simple and accurate to render the likelihood of error negligible and can be cleared by the

b. Is so simple and accurate to render the likelihood of error negligible and can be cleared by the FDA for home use

1. Which of the following conditions could lead to depletional hyponatremia?
a. Diarrhea
b. Vomiting
c. Excessive sweating
d. All of these

d. All of these

2. Which of the following is the most abundant anion found in extracellular fluids?
a. Sodium
b. Potassium
c. Chloride
d. Calcium

c. Chloride

3. Which of the following is NOT used to measure electrolytes in a clinical laboratory?
a. Flame photometry
b. Immunochtomatographic method
c. Ion selective electrodes

b. Immunochtomatographic method

4. A decrease in blood pH is called ___ and this can result in an intracellular shift of potassium to cause ___.
a. Acidosis/Hypokalemia
b. Alkalosis/Hypokalemia
c. Alkalosis/Hyperkalemia
d. Acidosis/Hyperkalemia

d. Acidosis/Hyperkalemia

5. The major intracellular electrolyte is?
a. Potassium
b. Calcium
c. Chloride
d. Sodium

a. Potassium

6. Fractional Excretion of Sodium us a measure of sodium present in urine and it is calculated based on the relative levels of what else in urine?
a. Creatinine
b. Cocaine
c. Glucose
d. Urea

a. Creatinine

7. The major extracellular fluid electrolyte is?
a. Chloride
b. Potassium
c. Sodium
d. Calcium

c. Sodium

Calcium levels must be corrected in blood samples because of what feature?
a. Binding to serum creatinie
b. Binding by serum to albumin
c. Binding by vitamin D
d. Absorption into bond

b. Binding by serum to albumin

9. Which of the following is NOT one of the homeostatic (normal) mechanisms involved in establishing the Na+/water balance?
a. Renin/Angiotensin
d. Aldosterone

10. Hypernatremia is which of the following?
a. Elevated blood sodium levels
b. Elevated intracellular sodium levels
c. Decreased intracellular sodium levels
d. Decreased blood sodium levels

a. Elevated blood sodium levels

1. Anemia includes
a. A decrease in hemoglobin, hematocrit, and/or WBC levels
b. A decrease in hemoglobin, hematocrit, and/or RBC levels
c. An increase in influenza particles in the body
d. An increase in hemoglobin, WBCs and platelets

b. A decrease in hemoglobin, hematocrit, and/or RBC levels

2. Red Blood Cells
a. Carry carbon dioxide bound to hemoglobin to the lungs.
b. Carry oxygen bound to hemoglobin to the lungs.
c. Carry oxygen bound to hemoglobin to the lymph nodes.
d. Carry oxygen bound to hemoglobin to the tissues.

d. Carry oxygen bound to hemoglobin to the tissues.

3. Normocytic anemia is caused by
a. Disappointments of KU football.
b. Vitamin B12 deficiency.
c. Acute blood loss.
d. Iron deficiency

c. Acute blood loss.

4. Which coagulation pathways does aPTT assay monitor?
aThe extrinsic pathway and is important to warfarin therapy
b.The intrinsic pathway and is important to heparin therapy
c.The intrinsic pathway and is important to warfarin therapy
d.The extrinsic pat

b. The intrinsic pathway and is important to heparin therapy

5. What is the role of monocytes and macrophages?
a. They are involved in the innate immune system response to protect against infection
b. They are the largest blood cell
c. They are involved in control of clotting
d. They are involved in the adaptive im

b. They are the largest blood cell

6. What is the role of platelets
a. They are involved in the innate immune system response to protect against infection
b. They are the largest blood cell
c. They are involved in control of clotting
d. They are involved in the adaptive immune response com

c. They are involved in control of clotting

7. What are the three major classes of blood cells and where are they formed?
a. White blood cells, cytotoxic T cells, platelets and bone marrow
b. White blood cells, red blood cells, platelets and spleen body
c. White blood cells, red blood cells, platel

c. White blood cells, red blood cells, platelets, and bone marrow

8. What is the role of lymphocytes?
a. They are involved in the innate immune system response to protect against infection
b. They are the largest blood cell
c. They are involved in control of clotting
d. They are involved in the adaptive immune response

d. They are involved in the adaptive immune response comprised of B and T cells among others

9. Which coagulation pathway does PT assay monitor?
a. The external pathway and is important to warfarin therapy
b. The internal pathway and is important to heparin therapy
c. The internal pathway and is important to warfarin therapy
d. The external pathw

a. The external pathway and is important to warfarin therapy

10. MCV, MCH, MCHC are defines as
a. Hct/RBC, Hgh/RBC and Hgh/Hct.
b. Hgh/RBC, Hct/RBC and Hgh/Hct.
c. Hct/RBC, Hgh/RBC and Hct/Hgh.
d. Hct/RBC, Hch/RBC and Hct/Hgh.

a. Hct/RBC, Hgh/RBC and Hgh/Hct

11.The buffy coat contains
a. RBC and MCV.
b. WBcs and RBCs.
c. Platelets and RBC.
d. WBCs and platelets.

d. WBCs and platelets.

Hemoglobin : abbreviation & action

Hgb & binds oxygen to RBCs

Hematocrit : abbreviation (2) & what it is

Hct & Packed Cell Volume (PCV)
It refers to the proportion of RBCs in the total blood volume.

MCV : what it stands for & what it measures

Mean Corpuscular Volume
Hematocrit/RBC
Average volume of RBC

MCH : what it stands for & what it measures

Mean Corpuscular Hemoglobin
Hemoglobin/ RBC count
Amount of Hemoglobin per RBC

MCHC : what it stands for & what it means

Mean Corpuscular Hemoglobin Concentration
Hemoglobin/Hematocrit
Concentration of Hemoglobin in volume of packed RBC

RDW : what does it stand for?

RBC distribution width

What does aPTT stand for?

Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time

What does PT stand for?

Prothrombin Time

Hyponatremia is which of the following?
a. Elevated blood sodium levels
b. Decreased intracellular sodium levels
c. Decreased blood sodium levels
d. Elevated intracellular sodium levels

c. Decreased blood sodium levels

Which of the following is considered to be a normal value for Fractional Excretion of Sodium?
a. 1-2%
b. >20%
c. <1%
d. 2-5%

a. 1-2%

An increase in blood pH is called ___________ and this can result in an intracellular shift of potassium to cause__________.
a. Alkalosis/Hyperkalemia
b. Alkalosis/Hypokalemia
c. Acidosis/Hypokalemia
d. Acidosis/Hyperkalemia

b. Alkalosis/Hypokalemia

What's the relationship of signal response and endogenous antigen concentration in noncompetitive sandwich ELISA?
a. Logarithmic
b. Directly proportional
c. Michaelis-Menten hyperbolic
d. Inversely proportional

b. Directly proportional