1) Monocyte.
1) Answer: B
2) Lymphocyte.
2) Answer: D
3) Eosinophil.
3) Answer: C
4) Neutrophil.
4) Answer: A
5) Most common white blood cell found in whole blood.
5) Answer: A
6) Mounts an immune response by direct cell attack or via antibodies.
6) Answer: D
7) Kills parasitic worms.
7) Answer: C
8) Becomes a macrophage.
8) Answer: B
9) Main bacteria killer during acute infections.
9) Answer: A
10) Nucleus has two lobes; contains granules of lysosomal enzymes;
functions in attacking parasitic worms.
A) Basophil
B) Neutrophil
C) Monocyte
D) Eosinophil
E) Erythrocyte
D) Eosinophil
11) Nucleus is multilobed; functions as a phagocyte; contains fine
indistinct granules.
A) Basophil
B) Neutrophil
C) Monocyte
D) Eosinophil
E) Erythrocyte
B) Neutrophil
12) Transports CO2 and oxygen.
A) Basophil
B) Neutrophil
C) Monocyte
D) Eosinophil
E) Erythrocyte
E) Erythrocyte
13) Contains a U- or an S-shaped nucleus; granules stain very dark;
releases histamine and heparin.
A) Basophil
B) Neutrophil
C) Monocyte
D) Eosinophil
E) Erythrocyte
A) Basophil
14) Largest of the WBCs; crucial in defense against viruses;
associated with chronic infections.
A) Basophil
B) Neutrophil
C) Monocyte
D) Eosinophil
E) Erythrocyte
C) Monocyte
15) The major contributor to plasma osmotic pressure.
A) Fibrinogen
B) Albumin
B) Albumin
16) Thrombin catalyzes the activation of these molecules present in plasma.
A) Fibrinogen
B) Albumin
A) Fibrinogen
17) Forms the structural framework of a blood clot.
A) Fibrinogen
B) Albumin
A) Fibrinogen
18) Makes up most of plasma protein.
A) Fibrinogen
B) Albumin
B) Albumin
19) Main contributor to osmotic pressure.
A) Fibrinogen
B) Gamma globulins
C) Alpha and beta globulins
D) Albumin
D) Albumin
20) Antibodies released by plasma cells during immune response.
A) Fibrinogen
B) Gamma globulins
C) Alpha and beta globulins
D) Albumin
B) Gamma globulins
21) Necessary for coagulation
A) Fibrinogen
B) Gamma globulins
C) Alpha and beta globulins
D) Albumin
A) Fibrinogen
22) Transport proteins that bind to lipids, metal ions, and fat-
soluble vitamins.
A) Fibrinogen
B) Gamma globulins
C) Alpha and beta globulins
D) Albumin
C) Alpha and beta globulins
23) Polymorphonuclear leukocyte.
A) Monocyte
B) Agglutination
C) Hemoglobin
D) Neutrophil
E) Factor VIII
D) Neutrophil
24) White blood cell without cytoplasmic granules
A) Monocyte
B) Agglutination
C) Hemoglobin
D) Neutrophil
E) Factor VIII
A) Monocyte
25) Protein capable of changing shape and color in the presence of O2.
A) Monocyte
B) Agglutination
C) Hemoglobin
D) Neutrophil
E) Factor VIII
C) Hemoglobin
26) Adverse reaction of donor blood cells with recipient plasma.
A) Monocyte
B) Agglutination
C) Hemoglobin
D) Neutrophil
E) Factor VIII
B) Agglutination
27) Lacking in hemophilia type A.
A) Monocyte
B) Agglutination
C) Hemoglobin
D) Neutrophil
E) Factor VIII
E) Factor VIII
28) Produced by platelets.
A) Erythropoietin
B) Interleukins and CSFs
C) Heparin
D) Spectrin
E) Prostaglandin derivates such as Thromboxane A2
E) Prostaglandin derivates such as Thromboxane A2
29) A fibrous protein that gives shape to an RBC plasma membrane.
A) Erythropoietin
B) Interleukins and CSFs
C) Heparin
D) Spectrin
E) Prostaglandin derivates such as Thromboxane A2
D) Spectrin
30) Hormone that stimulates production of RBCs.
A) Erythropoietin
B) Interleukins and CSFs
C) Heparin
D) Spectrin
E) Prostaglandin derivates such as Thromboxane A2
A) Erythropoietin
31) Stimulates WBC production.
A) Erythropoietin
B) Interleukins and CSFs
C) Heparin
D) Spectrin
E) Prostaglandin derivates such as Thromboxane A2
B) Interleukins and CSFs
32) Natural anticoagulant found in basophils.
A) Erythropoietin
B) Interleukins and CSFs
C) Heparin
D) Spectrin
E) Prostaglandin derivates such as Thromboxane A2
C) Heparin
33) Type O.
33) Answer: D
34) Type A.
34) Answer: B
35) Type AB.
35) Answer: A
36) Type B.
36) Answer: C
37) Universal donor.
37) Answer: D
38) Universal recipient.
38) Answer: A
39) Cancerous condition involving white blood cells.
A) Polycythemia
B) Embolism
C) Leukemia
D) Thrombocytopenia
E) Anemia
C) Leukemia
40) Condition in which blood has abnormally low oxygen-carrying capacity.
A) Polycythemia
B) Embolism
C) Leukemia
D) Thrombocytopenia
E) Anemia
E) Anemia
41) Abnormal excess of erythrocytes resulting in an increase in blood viscosity.
A) Polycythemia
B) Embolism
C) Leukemia
D) Thrombocytopenia
E) Anemia
A) Polycythemia
42) Free-floating thrombus in the bloodstream.
A) Polycythemia
B) Embolism
C) Leukemia
D) Thrombocytopenia
E) Anemia
B) Embolism
43) Platelet deficiency resulting in spontaneous bleeding from small
blood vessels
A) Polycythemia
B) Embolism
C) Leukemia
D) Thrombocytopenia
E) Anemia
D) Thrombocytopenia
44) The primary source of RBCs in the adult human being is the bone
marrow in the shafts of the long bones.
FALSE
45) Leukemia refers to cancerous conditions involving white blood cells.
TRUE
46) The immediate response to blood vessel injury is clotting.
FALSE
47) The process of fibrinolysis disposes of bacteria when healing has occurred.
FALSE
48) The normal RBC "graveyard" is the liver.
FALSE
49) Hemorrhagic anemias result from blood loss.
TRUE
50) White blood cells are produced through the action of colony-
stimulating factors.
TRUE
51) Hemoglobin is made up of the protein heme and the red pigment globin.
FALSE
52) Myeloid stem cells give rise to all leukocytes.
FALSE
53) Each hemoglobin molecule can transport two molecules of oxygen.
FALSE
54) Diapedesis is the process by which red blood cells move into
tissue spaces from the interior of blood capillaries.
FALSE
55) Positive chemotaxis is a feedback system that signals leukocyte
migration into damaged areas.
TRUE
56) Clotting factor activation turns clotting factors into enzymes.
TRUE
57) Basophils increase in number when parasitic invasion occurs.
FALSE
58) Leukopenia is an abnormally low number of leukocytes.
TRUE
59) A person with type B blood could receive blood from a person with
either type B or type O blood.
TRUE
60) Leukocytes move through the circulatory system by amoeboid motion.
FALSE
61) Granulocytes called neutrophils are phagocytic and are the most
numerous of all white blood cell types.
TRUE
62) All lymphocytes are leukocytes, but not all leukocytes are lymphocytes.
TRUE
63) Myelocytic leukemia involves a cancerous condition of lymphocytes.
FALSE
64) Fetal hemoglobin has a higher affinity for oxygen than does adult hemoglobin.
TRUE
65) Which of the following is not a functional characteristic of WBCs?
A) granulosis
B) positive chemotaxis
C) ameboid motion
D) diapedesis
A) granulosis
66) What is the average normal pH range of blood? 66)
A) 8.35- 8.45
B) 7.35- 7.45
C) 7.75- 7.85
D) 4.65- 4.75
B) 7.35- 7.45
67) The special type of hemoglobin present in fetal red blood cells
is ________.
A) hemoglobin F
B) hemoglobin A
C) hemoglobin S
D) hemoglobin B
A) hemoglobin F
68) Which of the choices below is the parent cell for all formed
elements of blood?
A) normoblast
B) hemocytoblast
C) megakaryocyte
D) polymorphonuclear cell
B) hemocytoblast
69) Which blood type is generally called the universal donor?
A) AB
B) B
C) O
D) A
C) O
70) Which of the following is not a distribution function of blood?
A) delivery of oxygen to body cells
B) transport of hormones to their target organs
C) transport of metabolic wastes from cells
D) transport of salts to maintain blood volume
D) transport of salts to maintain blood volume
71) Which of the following is a protective function of blood?
A) maintenance of adequate fluid volume
B) maintenance of normal pH in body tissue
C) maintenance of body temperature
D) prevention of blood loss
D) prevention of blood loss
72) Which of the statements below is an incorrect or false statement?
A) Transfusion of incompatible blood can be fatal.
B) Blood typing for the Kell, Lewis, and Duffy factors is always
done before a blood transfusion.
C) When a transfusion reaction occurs, the oxygen- carrying
capacity of the transfused blood
cells is disrupted and the clumping of RBCs in small vessels
hinders blood flow to tissues beyond those points.
D) Unique to the ABO blood group is the presence in the plasma of
preformed antibodies.
B) Blood typing for the Kell, Lewis, and Duffy factors is always done
before a blood transfusion.
73) Which of the following might trigger erythropoiesis?
A) an increased number of RBCs
B) moving to a lower altitude
C) decreased tissue demand for oxygen
D) hypoxia of EPO- producing cells
D) hypoxia of EPO- producing cells
74) Blood reticulocyte counts provide information regarding _______.
A) clotting ability of the blood
B) rate of platelet formation
C) WBC ability to defend the body against disease
D) rate of erythrocyte formation
D) rate of erythrocyte formation
75) An individual who is blood type AB negative can ________.
A) donate to all blood types in moderate amounts
B) receive types A, B, and AB, but not type O
C) receive any blood type in moderate amounts except that with the
Rh antigen
D) donate to types A, B, and AB, but not to type O
C) receive any blood type in moderate amounts except that with the Rh antigen
76) Which of the following statements does not describe blood?
A) Blood carriers body cells to injured areas for repair
B) Blood pH is normally between 7.34 � 7.45.
C) Blood varies from bright red to a dark red color.
D) Blood is denser and more viscous than water.
A) Blood carriers body cells to injured areas for repair
77) When neither anti-A serum nor anti-B serum clot on a blood plate
with donor blood, the blood is type ________.
A) B
B) O
C) AB
D) A
B) O
78) Select the incorrect statement regarding blood cell formation.
A) Lymphocytes are formed from lymphoblasts.
B) Eosinophils are formed from myeloblasts,
C) Erythrocytes are formed from normoblasts.
D) Platelets are formed from myeloblasts.
D) Platelets are formed from myeloblasts.
79) Blood volume restorers include all of the following except ________.
A) dextran
B) albumin
C) saline solutions
D) packed cells
D) packed cells
80) James has a hemoglobin measurement of 16 g/100 ml blood. This is ________.
A) abnormally low
B) above normal
C) normal only if James is an infant
D) within the normal range
D) within the normal range
81) The plasma protein that is the major contributor to osmotic
pressure is ________.
A) gamma globulin
B) albumin
C) fibrinogen
D) alpha globulin Answer: B
B) albumin
82) All of the following can be expected with polycythemia except ________.
A) low blood viscosity
B) high blood pressure
C) increased blood volume
D) high hematocrit
A) low blood viscosity
83) No visible cytoplasmic granules are present in ________.
A) monocytes
B) eosinophils
C) basophils
D) neutrophils
A) monocytes
84) Which of the following is not a phase of hemostasis?
A) coagulation
B) vascular spasm
C) platelet plug formation
D) fibrinolysis
D) fibrinolysis
85) Which of the following is not a structural characteristic that
contributes to erythrocyte gas transport functions?
A) produces energy anaerobically
B) mitotically active
C) biconcave shape
D) hemoglobin containing-sack
B) mitotically active
86) A lack of intrinsic factor, leading to a deficiency of vitamin
B12 and causing an appearance of large pale cells called macrocytes,
is characteristic of ________.
A) pernicious anemia
B) sickle-cell anemia
C) aplastic anemia
D) polycythemia
A) pernicious anemia
87) The slowest step in the clotting process is ________.
A) release of PF3
B) production of fibrin strands
C) binding fibrin strands
D) formation of prothrombin activator
D) formation of prothrombin activator
88) Thromboembolic disorders ________.
A) include thrombus formation, a clot in a broken blood vessel
B) include embolus formation, a clot moving within the circulatory system
C) are caused by vitamin K deficiency
D) result in uncontrolled bleeding
B) include embolus formation, a clot moving within the circulatory system
89) Which of the following is not a cause of bleeding disorders?
A) excess secretion of platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF)
B) a defect in the clotting cascade
C) vitamin K deficiency
D) thrombocytopenia, a condition of decreased circulating platelets
A) excess secretion of platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF)
90) Which of the following is characteristic of all leukocytes?
A) They have cytoplasmic granules.
B) They are nucleated.
C) They are the most numerous of the formed elements in blood.
D) They are phagocytic.
B) They are nucleated.
91) Which of the following is true about blood plasma?
A) It contains about 20 dissolved components.
B) The main protein component is hemoglobin.
C) It is the same as serum but without the clotting proteins.
D) It is about 90% water.
D) It is about 90% water.
92) Platelets ________.
A) are the precursors of leukocytes
B) have a life span of about 120 days
C) stick to the damaged area of a blood vessel and help seal the break
D) have multiple nuclei
C) stick to the damaged area of a blood vessel and help seal the break
93) Which sequence is correct for the following events?
1. fibrinogen ---> fibrin
2. clot retraction
3. formation of thromboplastin
4. prothrombin
C) 3, 4, 1, 2
94) Fred's blood was determined to be AB positive. What does this mean?
A) His blood lacks Rh factor.
B) There are no antibodies to A, to B, or to Rh antigens in the plasma.
C) He can only receive blood from a donor who is AB positive.
D) Antibodies to A and B are present in the red cells.
B) There are no antibodies to A, to B, or to Rh antigens in the plasma.
95) Which of the following would not be a possible cause of sickling
of red blood cells in someone with sickle-cell anemia?
A) malaria and travel at high altitude
B) vigorous exercise
C) sleeping in a well-ventilated room
D) travel at high altitude
C) sleeping in a well-ventilated room
96) All of the following conditions impair coagulation except ________.
A) severe hypocalcemia
B) vitamin K deficiency
C) vascular spasm
D) liver disease
C) vascular spasm
97) When can erythroblastosis fetalis not possibly happen in the
child of an Rh negative mother?
A) if the child is Rh+
B) if the father is Rh-
C) if the child is type O positive
D) if the father is Rh+
B) if the father is Rh-
98) Blood is a ________.
A) homogeneous compound
B) suspension
C) colloid
D) heterogeneous compound
B) suspension
99) What organ in the body regulates erythrocyte production?
A) pancreas
B) kidney
C) liver
D) brain
B) kidney