NATOPS 2022

The hot area sheet identifies restricted and airspace for a 48-hr period.

False

A report given to COD aircraft by Marshal providing off load information on passengers, mail, cargo, or any other pertinent information is called a ________?

Retro report

Which of the following is NOT a supplement of the Airplan?

Overhead Message

Without modification by the Air Officer, what is the maximum number of aircraft in the Case I/II landing pattern?

Six

________ is an order for a non-emergency aircraft to proceed and land at the field specified. Bearing, distance, and destination shall be provided.

Divert

The ________ is a circular airspace within a radius of 50 nm around the carrier, extending upward from the surface to infinity, under control of CATCC except for those aircraft operating under control of the air officer during Case I and II operations.

Carrier control Area

CATCC will obtain the Fox Corpen from the Bridge approx _________ prior to recovery.

30 mins

Unless otherwise specified by a higher authority, the _____ determines the Case launch and/or recovery to be utilized.

Air Officer

Aircraft provided positive control with designated air search radars that do not rotate in excess of 7 RPM shall be separated by a minimum of ____ miles.

Five

How many knots of recovery wind optimizes aircraft flying characteristics including engine response time, approach speed, rate of descent, wave off capability and arresting gear engagement?

25 knots

NATOPS change recommendations are submitted under what three categories?

ROUTINE, PRIORITY, and URGENT

Aircraft that are marshaled overhead hold at a fix located ____ miles from the carrier with the inbound leg of the holding pattern oriented in the ____ radial relative to the final bearing.

Four / 30*

An early or late commencement from marshal is generally considered how many seconds either side of the assigned EAT?

15 seconds

Who is responsible to the operations officer for the coordination of all matters pertaining to flight operations, the proper functioning of the CATCC and shall determine the type of approach and required degree of control?

AIR OPERATIONA OFFICER

Case I/II recoveries of fixed wind aircraft may be conducted concurrently with Case III departures.

FALSE

If a flight does not have the ship in sight at ___ NM, the flight may descend to not less than ____ feet.

10, 800

During Carrier Qualification landings, the number of fixed-wing aircraft in the Case I or II pattern should be limited to ___ and shall not exceed _____.

4, 6

The CATCC Watch Officer shall Las the five minute to push, one minute to push and commencing calls to what three onboard stations?

Bridge, PriFly and Air Operations

A bow-on recovery occurs when the marshal radial is located ahead of the carrier and the inbound heading places the arrival corridor with ____ degrees either side of the BRC.

60

The ________ shall submit a complete list of aircraft being deployed prior to deployment.

Squadron Commander

Normally the air plan will be distributed ____ scheduled operations.

The evening prior to

When directed to signal tank following a bolter, Approach Control shall immediately inform receiver aircraft of what minimum information?

Direction to tank, altitude assignment for rendezvous, instructions for frequency change

On final, what type of approach is conducted when ACLS, TACAN/JPALS precision and ICLS are not available?

Non-precision

When shall CATCC be manned prior to scheduled flight operations?

One and a half hours

During concurrent flight operations by two or more carriers, prelaunch procedures shall include exchange of air plans and prelaunch notification by aviation-capable ships and acknowledgment prior to any flight operations within ____ miles of the carrier.

10

The _______ is the carrier control zone clearing authority.

Air Officer

The _______, under supervision of the Air Officer is responsible for the visual control of aircraft in the terminal phase of the approach immediately prior to landing.

Landing Signal Officer

The ______ is responsible for the safe and orderly conduct of the flight.

Pilot

Which degree of control shall be utilized when flight operations are being conducted between one-half hour after sunset and one-half hour before sunrise except as modified by the OTC or the carrier Commanding Officer?

Positive

Which degree of control is normally limited to VMC and is recommended for all operations in or adjacent to oceanic control areas or routes.

Advisory

Which degree of control shall be utilized only when aircraft are operating VMC outside controlled airspace and the responsibility for separation from other traffic can be safely assumed by the pilot?

Monitor

Which degree of control shall be used when shipboard radar is inoperative or so degraded as to be inadequate to provide radar separation of air traffic under conditions normally requiring positive control?

Non-radar

Which of the following radio transmissions are NOT spoken in group form?

Time

What is the minimum lateral separation between aircraft established on final within 5 miles?

One and a half miles

Jet and turboprop aircraft operating at altitudes up to and including FL 290 outside of 12 NM from the ship shall be separated by ______ feet.

1,000

Receiver aircraft being provided positive control shall be separated by a minimum of ____ feet vertically from tanker aircraft until visual separation between the two aircraft can be maintained.

500

Which example below is the correct phraseology for a traffic call to a non-radar identified aircraft?

BOBCAT ONE ZERO ONE, TRAFFIC SIX MILES NORTH OF MOTHER, SOUTHEAST BOUND, F-18, ANGELS NINETEEN

Aircraft in a state of emergency within visual range of the ship will normally be controlled by the Operations Officer.

FALSE

After an emergency is declared, which of the following is NOT one of the minimum information items that shall be obtained from the pilot?

Last position report

Approximately 60 minutes before launch time flight crews will be ordered to man their aircraft.

FALSE

Aircraft shall be spotted on the catapult or in a position affording a clear route to the catapult. Unless otherwise directed by the ACHO, the aircraft shall be secured with initial four or six point tie downs.

Condition 1

Aircrew shall be in flight gear, briefed, and standing by in the ready room. No maintenance action allowed.

Condition 2

Aircrew shall be briefed and in the flight suits maintaining contact with their ready room. Starting equipment shall be immediately available, and the flight deck and catapult crews shall be standing by their stations. No maintenance action allowed.

Condition 3

Aircrew shall be briefed and in contact with their ready rooms. Starting equipment shall be immediately available, and the flight deck and catapult crews shall be standing by their stations. Maintenance may be performed on the aircraft if no delay in launch is involved.

Condition 4

The minimum standard separation of departure radials under instrument conditions is ___ degrees.

20

Condition and CAP launches will be on a frequency designated by ___ and monitored by the tower.

CDC

When in IMC, Popeye will be a mandatory report for departing aircraft passing ____ (or assigned departure altitude if lower) if not on top.

FL 180

For Case II departure, visual conditions at the ship may exist down to a ceiling of ___ feet and visibility of ____ miles with launch being on the departure control frequency.

1000 / 5

Case II/III aircraft shall rendezvous between ___ miles from the carrier on the left side of the departure radial at a pre-briefed altitude.

20 and 50

When conducting a JPALS approach, Final shall provide radar identification when observed but no glide path and course information shall be issued.

TRUE