Which two types of media are twisted-pair cable?
A. STP and UTP
B. MMF and SMF
C. RG-59 and RG-58
D. RJ-11 and RJ-45
STP and UTP
How fast can Category 5e cable transfer data?
1000 Mbps
What type of fiber optic cable connector uses a half-twist bayonet type of lock?
A. Straight Through (ST)
B. Square Connector (SC)
C. Multiple Thread Registered Jack (MT-RJ)
D. Lucent Connector (LC)
Straight Through (ST)
What type of fiber optic cable connector uses a push-pull connector similar to common audio and video plugs and sockets?
A. Straight Through (ST)
B. Square Connector (SC)
C. Multiple Thread Registered Jack (MT-RJ)
D. Lucent Connector (LC)
Square Connector (SC)
What type of fiber optic cable connector is a popular connector for two fibers in a very small form factor?
A. Straight Through (ST)
B. Square Connector (SC)
C. Multiple Thread Registered Jack (MT-RJ)
D. Lucent Connector (LC)
Multiple Thread Registered Jack (MT-RJ)
What type of fiber optic cable connector has a flange on top, similar to an RJ-45 connector, that aids secure connection?
A. Straight Through (ST)
B. Square Connector (SC)
C. Multiple Thread Registered Jack (MT-RJ)
D. Lucent Connector (LC)
Lucent Connector (LC)
How many collision domains are there in a bridged connection?
Two
How many broadcast domains are there in a bridged connection?
One per port
How many collision domains are there in a network connected by a layer 2 switch?
One per port
How many broadcast domains are there in a network connected by a layer 2 switch?
One per port
How many collision domains are there in a network connected by a hub?
One
How many broadcast domains are there in a network connected by a hub?
One
How many collision domains are there in a network connected by a multi-layer switch?
One per port
How many broadcast domains are there in a network connected by a multi-layer switch?
One per port
How many collision domains are there in a network connected by a router?
One per port
How many broadcast domains are there in a network connected by a router?
One per port
What is the purpose of a DNS Server?
Providing an IP address for a fully qualified domain name
What is the most common connector that is used with UTP cabling carrying Ethernet traffic?
A. RJ-48
B. RJ-45
C. RJ-11
D. RJ-14
RJ-45
What type of UTP cabling is used in buildings with open-air returns to reduce the amount of damage from fires?
A. XPS
B. Nonplenum
C. Plenum
D. PVC
Plenum
Which type of fiber optic cabling only allows an individual light path?
A. Unicast mode
B. Stream mode
C. Multimode
D. Single-mode
Single-mode
What is the acronym used to reference the central primary cable distribution point in a building?
A. MDF
B. IDF
C. LDF
D. PDF
MDF
What is the MAC address used to send a frame to every local Ethernet device?
A. FF00:0000:0000
B. FFFF:FFFF:FFFF
C. FFFF.0000.0000
D. 0000.0000.0000
FFFF:FFFF:FFFF
What is the name of the device that is used primarily to secure a network?
A. Switch
B. VPN concentrator
C. Firewall
D. Router
Firewall
What is a DNS MX record?
A. An address record
B. An IPv6 address record
C. A record for email servers
D. A pointer record that points to a cononical name
A record for email servers
What is the correct order of steps a DHCP client goes through when requesting an IP address? Make sure they are in the correct order.
A. DHCPDISCOVER
B. DHCPOFFER
C. DHCPREQUEST
D. DHCPACK
1. DHCPDISCOVER
2. DHCPOFFER
3. DHCPREQUEST
4. DHCPACK
What is the purpose of a virtual desktop?
A. To give useres access to their data from any device and location
B. To save money
C. To store users information in a data center
D. Better authetication and security
To give users access to their data from any device and location
What is the purpose of SIP in VoIP?
A. It carries the voice and data
B. It connects the VoIP phone to the analog phine
C. It sets up the VoIP phone calls
D. It works with a PBX
It sets up the VoIP phone calls
What is the purpose of RTP in VoIP?
A. It carries the voice and data
B. It connects the VoIP phone to the analog phine
C. It sets up the VoIP phone calls
D. It works with a PBX
It carries the voice and data
What category(ies) of UTP is/are used for 10 Gigabit Ethernet (Select all that apply)
A. Category 6a
B. Category 6
C. Category 10
D. Category 5e
Category 6a
What is the name if the technology that will soon change the landscape of modern networking by moving the control and functionality of a networking device to a central managed location?
A. Multicast routing protocols
B. Virtual networks
C. Network-virtual
Software-defined networking (SDN)
What is the name of the VoIP component that maintains a network's dial plan (routes)?
A. Call agent
B. Policy server
C. Gateway
D. SIP
Call agent
Which of the following is NOT a layer of the Open Systems Interconnect (OSI) reference model?
A. Physical layer
B. Data link layer
C. Internet access layer
D. Presentation layer
Internet access layer
What is the layer that is between the Presentation and Transport layers?
Session layer
What is the layer that is between the Network and Physical layers?
Data link layer
(True or False) At upper layers of the OSI reference model, bits are grouped together into protocol data units (PDUs) or data service units.
False
What is the name of the PDU unit in the Physical layer of the OSI reference model?
A. Bits
B. Frames
C. Segment
D. Data
E. Packets
Bits
What is the name of the PDU unit in the Application layer of the OSI reference model?
A. Bits
B. Frames
C. Segment
D. Data
E. Packets
Data
What is the name of the PDU unit in the Transport layer of the OSI reference model?
A. Bits
B. Frames
C. Segment
D. Data
E. Packets
Segment
What is the name of the PDU unit in the Network layer of the OSI reference model?
A. Bits
B. Frames
C. Segment
D. Data
E. Packets
Packets
What is the name of the PDU unit in the Data link layer of the OSI reference model?
A. Bits
B. Frames
C. Segment
D. Data
E. Packets
Frames
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the Media Access Control (MAC) sublayer of the Data link layer of the OSI model?
A. The MAC sublayer uses a physical address called a MAC, which is a 48-bit (6 byte) address assigned to a device network in
The use of flow control on a network to prevent a receiver from being overwhelmed.
Which of the following layers of the OSI model is primarily concerned with forwarding data based on logical addresses?
A. Physical layer
B. Data link Layer
C. Network layer
D. Presentation layer
Network layer
(True or False) Switching is associated with Layer 2 (Data link layer) and Layer 3 (Network layer) of the OSI model.
True
Which of the following transport layer protocols of the OSI model is a connection-oriented protocol that provides reliable transport between two communicating hosts?
A. Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)
B. Transport Control Protocol (TCP)
C. User Datagr
Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)
Which OSI reference model layer is responsible for the following:
Setting up the session
Maintaining a session
Tearing down a session?
A. Presentation Layer (Layer 6)
B. Data link Layer (Layer 2)
C. Session Layer (Layer 5)
D. Transport Layer (Layer 4)
Session Layer (Layer 5)
What OSI model layer is responsible for data format such as encryption?
A. Presentation Layer (Layer 6)
B. Data link Layer (Layer 2)
C. Session Layer (Layer 5)
D. Traansport Layer (Layer 4)
Presentation Layer (Layer 6)
Which of the following layers is NOT part of the TCP/IP protocol stack?
A. Transport
B. Application
C. Presentation
D. Internet
Presentation
What is/are the TCP port(s) for FTP?
20 and 21
What is/are the TCP port(s) for SSH?
22
What is/are the TCP port(s) for Telnet?
23
What is/are the TCP port(s) for SMTP?
25
What is/are the TCP port(s) for DNS?
53
What is/are the TCP port(s) for HTTP?
80
What is/are the TCP port(s) for IMAP4?
143
What is/are the TCP port(s) for LDAP?
389
What is/are the TCP port(s) for HTTPS?
443
What is/are the TCP port(s) for RDP?
3389
Which wiring standard is used on modern Ethernet connectors and jacks?
A. TIA/EIA-568-A
B. TIA/EIA-568-B
C. IEEE 802.3
D. IEEE 802.2
TIA/EIA-568-B
(True or False) Broadband bandwidth usage divides bandwidth into channels for use with multiple communications streams.
True
Which type of transmission synchronization technique uses start and stop bits at the beginning and end of a data frame?
A. Synchronous
B. Isosynchronous
C. Asynchronous
D. Biochronous
Asynchronous
What is the name of the mechanism used by TCP to increase and decrease the number of segments that are sent between each other before an acknowledgment is required?
A. Buffering
B. Synchronizing
C. Scaling
D. Windowing
Windowing
On which OSI layer is encryption performed?
A. Layer 6 The Presentation Layer
B. Layer 5 The Session Layer
C. Layer 7 The Application Layer
D. Layer 4 The Network Layer
Layer 6 The Presentation Layer
HTTP, FTP, WWW, SNAP, SMB, SMTP, Telnet, POP, and IMAP protocols are associated with what OSI Layer?
Layer 7
What type(s) of hardware is/are associated with OSI Layer 7?
Gateways
MPEG, WAV, MIDI, and Quicktime are protocols associated with what OSI Layer?
Layer 6
What type(s) of hardware is/are associated with OSI Layer 6?
Gateways
NFS, DNS, SQL, RPC, NetBios, X.25, and SMB are protocols associated with what OSI layer?
Layer 5
What type(s) of hardware is/are associated with OSI Layer 5?
Gateways
TCP, UDP, and SPX are protocols associated with what OSI layer?
Layer 4
What type(s) of hardware is/are associated with OSI Layer 4?
Gateways and Level 4 Switches
IP, IPX, AppleTalk, ICMP, RIP, RIPv2, ARP, OSPF, IGRP, RARP, BGP, NLSP, IS-IS, and EIRGP are protocols associated with what OSI layer?
Layer 3
What type(s) of hardware is/are associated with OSI Layer 3?
Routers and Layer 3 Switches
CSMA/CD, CSMA/CA, and LLDP are protocols associated with what OSI layer?
Layer 2
What type(s) of hardware is/are associated with OSI Layer 2?
Bridges, Switches, Wireless Access Points, and NIC cards
What protocols are associated with OSI Layer 1?
None
What type(s) of hardware is/are associated with OSI Layer 1?
Hubs, Cables, Repeaters, Transceivers, Amplifiers, and Transducers
Which OSI layer performs the user interface function?
Layer 7
Which OSI layer has the following functions:
Convert to common format
Data encryption
Compression?
Layer 6
Which OSI layer performs the following functions:
Establish and close communication between two nodes
Coordinate communication?
Layer 5
Which OSI layer performs the following functions:
Sequence packets
Ensure error free delivery
Take over after the session has been established?
Layer 4
Which OSI layer navigates outside of the LAN?
Layer 3
Which OSI layer performs the following functions:
Prepares data for media access
Defines frame format?
Layer 2
Which OSI layer's function is the physical aspect of the network?
Layer 1
Which OSI layer is associated with the following key words:
Browser
e-mail
network applications?
Layer 7
Which OSI layer is associated with the following key words:
ASCII
Unicode
EBCDIC
CODEC
Bit order?
Layer 6
Which OSI layer is associated with the following key words:
Establish and terminate communication session
Log on
User Name
Password
Authentication
Assign services through port numbers?
Layer 5
Which OSI layer is associated with the following key words:
Segments
Windowing,
Flow control,
Transport packets,
Error checking (if required)
Port numbers?
Layer 4
Which OSI layer is associated with the following key words:
IP Address
Routing
Packets
Datagrams
Network address
Packet switching
Logical address
Best and shortest route?
Layer 3
Which OSI layer is associated with the following key words:
MAC address
Hardware address
LLC
CRC
Frame types
Frames
Topologies
Contention?
Layer 2
Which OSI layer is associated with the following key words:
Bit
Byte
Cable
Media
Topology
Transmission
Voltage
Digital signals?
Layer 1
Identify the distance limitation of a 10BASE5 Ethernet network.
a. 100 m
b. 185 m
c. 500 m
d. 2 km
500 m
If two devices simultaneously transmit data on an Ethernet network and a collision
occurs, what does each station do in an attempt to resend the data and
avoid another collision?
a. Each device compares the other device's priority value (determined by
IP
Each device sets a random back off timer, and the device will attempt retransmission after the timer expires.
What kind of media is used by 100GBASE-SR10 Ethernet?
a. UTP
b. MMF
c. STP
d. SMF
MMF
Which of the following statements are true regarding VLANs? (Choose two.)
a. A VLAN has a single broadcast domain.
b. For traffic to pass between two VLANs, that traffic must be routed.
c. Because of a switch's MAC address table, traffic does not need to
A VLAN has a single broadcast domain.
AND
For traffic to pass between two VLANs, that traffic must be routed.
What name is given to a VLAN on an IEEE 802.1Q trunk whose frames are NOT tagged?
a. Native VLAN
b. Default VLAN
c. Management VLAN
d. VLAN 0
Native VLAN
In a topology running STP, every network segment has a single ______________ port, which is the port on that segment that is closest to the root bridge, in terms of cost.
a. Root
b. Designated
c. Nondesignated
d. Nonroot
Designated
What is the IEEE standard for link aggregation?
a. 802.1Q
b. 802.3ad
c. 802.1d
d. 802.3af
802.3ad
What is the maximum amount of power a switch is allowed to provide per port
according to the IEEE 802.3af standard?
a. 7.7 W
b. 15.4 W
c. 26.4 W
d. 32.4 W
15.4 W
What switch feature allows you to connect a network sniffer to a switch port and tells the switch to send a copy of frames seen on one port out the port to which your network sniffer is connected?
a. Port interception
b. Port duplexing
c. Port mirroring
d
Port mirroring
Which IEEE 802.1X component checks the credentials of a device wanting to gain access to the network?
a. Supplicant
b. Authentication server
c. Access point
d. Authenticator
Authentication server
Which of the following is a VoIP signaling protocol used to set up, maintain,
and tear down VoIP phone calls?
a. MX
b. RJ-45
c. SIP
d. IMAP
SIP
Which of the following categories of UTP cabling are commonly used for
1000BASE-T networks? (Choose two.)
a. Cat 5
b. Cat 5e
c. Cat 6
d. Cat 6f
Cat 5e
Cat 6
Which type of cable might be required for installation in a drop ceiling, which
is used as an open-air return duct?
a. Riser
b. Plenum
c. Multimode
d. Twin-axial
Plenum
Which network infrastructure device primarily makes forwarding decisions based on Layer 2 MAC addresses?
a. Router
b. Switch
c. Hub
d. Multilayer switch
Switch
A router operating at Layer 3 primarily makes its forwarding decisions based on what address?
a. Destination MAC address
b. Source IP address
c. Source MAC address
d. Destination IP address
Destination IP address
Identify two differences between an Ethernet bridge and an Ethernet switch.
a. Switches use ASICs to make forwarding decisions, whereas bridges make
their forwarding decisions in software.
b. Bridges typically operate faster than switches.
c. Switches usu
Switches use ASICs to make forwarding decisions, whereas bridges make
their forwarding decisions in software.
AND
Switches usually have higher port densities than bridges.
A router has 12 ports. How many broadcast domains does the router have?
a. None
b. 1
c. 2
d. 12
12
A switch has 12 ports. How many collision domains does the switch have?
a. None
b. 1
c. 2
d. 12
12
What is the first DHCP message sent by a client attempting to obtain IP address
information from a DHCP server?
a. DHCPOFFER
b. DHCPACK
c. DHCPDISCOVER
d. DHCPREQUEST
DHCPDISCOVER
What specialized network device is commonly used to load balance traffic across multiple servers in a group?
a. Content switch
b. Firewall
c. DNS server
d. Content engine
Content switch
Which layer of the OSI reference model contains the MAC and LLC sublayers?
a. Network layer
b. Transport layer
c. Physical layer
d. Data link layer
Data link layer
Which approach to bandwidth usage consumes all the available frequencies on a medium to transmit data?
a. Broadband
b. Baseband
c. Time-division multiplexing
d. Simplex
Baseband
Windowing is provided at what layer of the OSI reference model?
a. Data link layer
b. Network layer
c. Transport layer
d. Physical layer
Transport layer
IP addresses reside at which layer of the OSI reference model?
a. Network layer
b. Session layer
c. Data link layer
d. Transport layer
Network layer
Which of the following is a connectionless transport layer protocol?
a. IP
b. TCP
c. UDP
d. H.323
UDP
Identify the four layers of the TCP/IP stack.
a. Session layer
b. Transport layer
c. Internet layer
d. Data link layer
e. Network layer
f. Application layer
g. Network interface layer
Transport layer
Internet layer
Application layer
Network interface layer
What is the range of well-known TCP and UDP ports?
a. Below 2048
b. Below 1024
c. 16,384-32,768
d. Above 8192
Below 1024
Which protocol supports a secure connection to a remote host via terminal emulation software?
a. Telnet
b. SSH
c. FTP
d. SFTP
SSH
Identify the well-known UDP port number for NTP.
a. 53
b. 69
c. 123
d. 143
123
Identify three e-mail protocols.
a. SNMP
b. SMTP
c. POP3
d. IMAP4
SMTP, POP3, and IMAP4
Which of the following is a device directly used by an end user to access a network?
a. Server
b. LAN
c. Client
d. Router
Client
Which device makes traffic-forwarding decisions based on MAC addresses?
a. Hub
b. Router
c. Switch
d. Multiplexer
Switch
A company has various locations in a city interconnected using Metro Ethernet connections. This is an example of what type of network?
a. WAN
b. CAN
c. PAN
d. MAN
MAN
A network formed by interconnecting a PC to a digital camera via a USB cable
is considered what type of network?
a. WAN
b. CAN
c. PAN
d. MAN
PAN
Which of the following physical LAN topologies requires the most cabling?
a. Bus
b. Ring
c. Star
d. WLAN
Star
Which of the following topologies offers the highest level of redundancy?
a. Full mesh
b. Hub and spoke
c. Bus
d. Partial mesh
Full mesh
How many WAN links are required to create a full mesh of connections between
five remote sites?
a. 5
b. 10
c. 15
d. 20
10
n(n-1)/2
Identify two advantages of a hub-and-spoke WAN topology as compared to a
full-mesh WAN topology.
a. Lower cost
b. Optimal routes
c. More scalable
d. More redundancy
Lower cost
AND
More scalable
Which type of network is based on network clients sharing resources with one another?
a. Client/server
b. Client-peer
c. Peer-to-peer
d. Peer-to-server
Peer-to-peer
Which of the following is an advantage of a peer-to-peer network, as compared with a client/server network?
a. More scalable
b. Less expensive
c. Better performance
d. Simplified administration
Less expensive
Define the acronym IEEE
Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers
What is the difference between an Ethernet frame and an 802.3 frame?
Ethernet frame is a fixed-length frame, whereas an 802.3 frame length can vary
What was a popular early implementation of Ethernet?
10BASE5
What is the meaning of 10 in 10BASE5?
10 million [mega] bits per second
What is the meaning of BASE in 10BASE5?
Baseband
What is the meaning of 5 in 10BASE5?
500 meter distance limitation
What is the distance limitation in 10BASE2?
185 meters
What are other names for 10BASE2 cables?
Thinnet or cheapernet
What is another name for 10BASE5 cables?
Thicknet
What kind of cable is used in 10BASE-T?
Twisted pair cable
What is the definition of the acronym CSMA/CD?
Carrier Sense Multiple Access Collision Detect
What are the components if CSMA/CD?
Carrier sense
Multiple access
Collision detect
What is the definition of the acronym CSMA/CA?
Carrier Sense Multiple Access Collision Avoidance
What is the definition of the acronym GBIC?
Gigabit interface converter
What is the name used to describe a small form factor GBIC?
mini-GBIC
What is the purpose of a GBIC?
They are interfaces that have a bandwidth capacity of 1 Gbps and are available with MMF, SMF, or UTP connectors. This allows you to have flexibility in the uplink technology you use in an Ethernet switch.
What is fast ethernet?
100Mbps
What is the Ethernet standard for fast Ethernet that uses twisted pair cables?
100BASE-TX
What is the Ethernet standard for fast Ethernet that uses fiber optic cables?
100BASE-FX
What Ethernet standards have a bandwidth capacity of 10 Gbps and a 40 km distance limitation?
10GBASE-ER and
10GBASE-EW
What types of media are used for 10GBASE standards?
Fiber optic MMF and SMF cables
What is the standard bandwidth of 100BASE networks?
100 Mbps
What is the standard bandwidth of 1000BASE networks?
1 Gbps
What is the standard bandwidth of 10GBASE networks?
10 Gbps
What is the standard bandwidth of 100GBASE networks?
100 Gbps
What Ethernet standard has a bandwidth capacity of 100 Gbps and a 40 km distance limitation?
100GBASE-ER4
What media provides the widest bandwidth over the greatest distance?
SMF
What allows multiple subnets to connect to the same switch?
virtual LANs (VLANs)
What approach allows multiple VLANs to travel over a single connection?
Trunking
What is the most popular trunking standard?
IEEE 802.1Q
What is meant by five nines of availability?
The system is functioning 99.999 percent of the time, which translates to only about 5 minutes of downtime per year.
What is IEEE 802.1D?
Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)
What does a Layer 3 packet have that a Layer 2 packet does NOT have that prevents looping?
Time-to-Live (TTL) field
What is used to allow Layer 2 Loops and strategically block data from flowing over one or more switch ports to prevent looping of traffic?
Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)
What is IEEE 802.1w?
Rapid Spanning Tree
What protocol is more scalable in larger environments than STP?
Shortest Path Bridging (IEEE 802.1aq/SPB)
What is a broadcast storm?
A broadcast frame that endlessly circulates through the Layer 2 topology, consuming resources on both switches and attached devices.
How are switches in an STP topology classified?
Root bridge
OR
Nonroot bridge
What is a root bridge?
A switch elected to act as a reference point for a spanning tree.
The switch with the lowest bridge ID (BID) is elected as the root bridge. The BID is made up of a priority value and a MAC address.
What is a nonroot bridge?
All other switches in the STP topology are considered to be nonroot bridges.
What are the STP Port Types?
Root port
Designated port
AND
Nondesignated port
Describe a root port.
Every nonroot bridge has a single root port, which is the port on that switch that is closest to the root bridge, in terms of cost.
Describe a designated port.
The port on a network segment that is closest to the root bridge, in terms of cost. Therefore, all ports on a root bridge are designated ports.
Describe a nondesignated port
A port that blocks traffic to create a loop-free topology.
What type of port does NOT forward traffic during normal operation but does receive
bridge protocol data units (BPDUs).
Nondesignated port
What is the STP Port Cost for 10 Mbps (Ethernet)?
100
What is the STP Port Cost for 100 Mbps (Fast Ethernet)?
19
What is the STP Port Cost for 1 Gbps (Gigabit Ethernet)?
4
What is the STP Port Cost for 10 Gbps (10-Gigabit Ethernet)?
2
What states does a nondesignated port go through to transition to a forwarding state?
Blocking
Listening
Learning
Forwarding
What happens in the blocking state?
The port remains in the blocking state for 20 seconds by default. During this time, the nondesignated port evaluates BPDUs in an attempt to determine its role in the spanning tree.
What happens in the listening state?
The port moves from the blocking state to the listening state and remains in this state for 15 seconds by default. During this time, the port sources BPDUs, which inform adjacent switches of the port's intent to forward data.
What happens in the learning state?
The port moves from the listening state to the learning state and remains in this state for 15 seconds by default. During this time, the port begins to add entries to its MAC address table.
What happens in the forwarding state?
The port moves from the learning state to the forwarding state and begins to forward frames.
What is IEEE standard 802.3ad?
Link aggregation
What is the purpose of aggregation?
Alleviate congested links between switches
What is aggregation?
Logically combining multiple physical connections into a single logical connection,
over which traffic can be sent.
What protocol is supported by the IEEE 802.3ad standard?
Link Aggregation Control Protocol (LACP)
What is supported by LACP?
Automatic switch configuration and prevention of a link becoming a single point of failure. Specifically, if a link fails, that link's traffic is forwarded over a different link.
What is defined by the acronym LAG?
Link Aggregate Group
What is a Link Aggregate Group?
Groups of interfaces that make up an EtherChannel bundle.
How does Cicso implement IEEE 802.3ad?
EtherChannel
How does an EtherChannel work?
An EtherChannel group can be configured to act as a Layer 2 access port, and only support a single VLAN, or it can be configured to act as a Layer 2 802.1Q trunk to support multiple VLANs of the LAG.
What is port bonding?
Grouping multiple ports and using them as a single logical interface.
What is PoE?
Power over Ethernet
How does PoE work?
A switch checks for 25k ohms (25,000 ohms) of resistance in the attached device. To check the resistance, the switch applies as much as 10V of direct current (DC) across specific pairs of wires (that is, pins 1 and 2 combine to form one side of the circui
How does the switch know how much power to provide a PoE device?
The switch makes this determination by applying 15.5-20.5V DC (making sure that the current never exceeds 100 mA) to the attached device, for a brief period of time (less than one-tenth of a second). The amount of current flowing to the attached device te
What IEEE standards cover PoE?
IEEE 802.3af
IEEE 802.3at
What is the maximum power that can be supplied to a PoE device per IEEE 802.3af?
15.4W (Watts) of power.
What is the maximum power that can be provided to a PoE device per IEEE 802.3at?
32.4W
How can you analyze packets flowing over a network?
Attach a packet sniffer to a hub
What is a low cost way to perform packet capture and analysis
Use Wireshark software attached to a hub port
How can you capture packets without a hub installed on the network?
Port mirroring
How does port mirroring work?
A switch that supports port mirroring makes a copy of traffic seen on one port and sends that duplicated traffic out another port (to which a network sniffer could be attached). This allows a network sniffer to capture the packets that need to be analyzed
What IEEE standard provides guidance for enforcing user authentication?
IEEE 802.1X
How does a switch perform user authentication?
A switch requires a client to authenticate before communicating on the network. After the authentication occurs, a key is generated that is shared between the client and the device to which it attaches (for example, a wireless LAN controller or a Layer 2
What are the three primary components of an 802.1X network?
Supplicant
Authenticator
Authentication server
What is a supplicant?
The device that wants to gain access to the network
What actions are performed by an authenticator?
Forwarding the supplicant's authentication request on to an authentication server. After the authentication server authenticates the supplicant, the authenticator receives a key that is used to communicate securely during a session with the supplicant.
What is performed by an authentication server?
Checks a supplicant's credentials. If the credentials are acceptable, the authentication server notifies the authenticator that the supplicant is allowed to communicate on the network. The authentication server also gives the authenticator a key that can
What is the definition of the acronym NAC?
Network Admission
Control
What is Network Admission
Control?
A sophisticated approach to admission control feature offered by some authentication servers. Beyond just checking credentials, NAC can check characteristics of the device seeking admission to the network. The client's operating system (OS) and version of
How should you manage a switch?
Use Secure Shell (SSH) or connect directly to the console port of the switch
What is an unmanaged switch?
A switch that does not support the use of an IP address or a console port to connect to for management purposes.
What is the desired method of managing network acccess?
Using a separate network for management of a managed switch is desired. This is referred to as out-of-band (OOB) management when the management traffic is kept on a separate network than the user traffic.
What is required to use remote SSH?
SSH must be enabled on the switch and the switch must have an IP address and default gateway configured so it can reply to the SSH requests when the administrator using SSH is not on the same local network as the switch.
What are some technologies available for providing first-hop redundancy?
Hot Standby Router Protocol (HSRP)
Gateway Load Balancing Protocol (GLBP)
Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP)
Common Address Redundancy Protocol (CARP)
What is the definition of the acronym HSRP?
Hot Standby Router Protocol
What is the definition of the acronym GLBP?
Gateway Load Balancing Protocol
What is the definition of the acronym VRRP?
Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol
What is the definition of the acronym CARP?
Common Address Redundancy
Protocol
What are some examples of errors that can be found with interface diagnostics?
Late collisions
Cyclic Redundancy Check errors
What is the definition of the acronym CRC?
Cyclic Redundancy Check
What might be indicated by a CRC error?
A duplex mismatch
Why do you need first-hop redundancy?
The default gateway parameter identifies the IP address of a next-hop router. As a result, if that router were to become unavailable, devices that relied on the default gateway's IP address would be unable to send traffic off their local subnet.
How does HSRP work?
By using virtual IP and MAC addresses. One router, known as the active router, services requests destined for the virtual IP and MAC addresses. Another router, known as the standby router , can service such requests in the event the active router becomes
What is MAC filtering?
A feature that allows traffic to be permitted or denied based on a device's MAC address.
What is the definition of the acronym QoS?
Quality of Service
How does QoS work?
Forwards traffic
based on the traffic's priority markings.