Which network type is a specifically designed configuration of
computers and other devices located within a confined area?
A Peer-to-peer network
B Local area network
C Client/server network
D Wide area network
B Local area network
In which network type does each host on the LAN has the same
authority as other hosts?
A Peer-to-peer network
B Local area network
C Client/server network
D Wide area network
A Peer-to-peer network
Which network type requires a network operating system (NOS)?
A Peer-to-peer network
B Local area network
C Client/server network
D Wide area network
C Client/server network
Large networks are frequently broken down into manageable pieces
called _______________.
segments
Which network component is most vulnerable to performance problems
caused by poor installation practices?
A Clients
B Servers
C Wiring
D Network transmission devices
C Wiring
Which network medium carries light-based data through strands of
glass or plastic no thicker than a human hair?
A Coaxial
B Twisted pair
C Fiber optic
D Wireless
C Fiber optic
Which network medium is composed of four pairs of wires, where the
pairs are twisted together and bundled within a covering?
A Coaxial
B Twisted pair
C Fiber optic
D Wireless
B Twisted pair
Which network medium contains a layer of braided wire or foil between
the core and the outside insulating layer, plus another layer of plastic or
rubberized material that separates the central core from the shielding
layer?
A Coaxial
B Twisted pair
C Fibe
A Coaxial
Which network medium is a popular choice for outdoors or in an
historic building?
A Coaxial
B Twisted pair
C Fiber optic
D Wireless
D Wireless
Fiber optic cabling is often used as the ____________ for networks.
backbone
_____________ cable has the best wiring value and expansion
capability.
composite
Which type of coaxial cable is used for low-power video and RF signal
connections?
A RG-6
B RG-8
C RG-11
D RG-58
E RG-59
E RG-59
Thicknet cables are which type? (Choose all that apply.)
A RG-6
B RG-8
C RG-11
D RG-58
E RG-59
B RG-8
C RG-11
Security on a WLAN is accomplished by _______________ the MAC
addresses of wireless NICs that are allowed to use the access point and
by encrypting data sent over the wireless LAN.
filtering
Which wireless protocol is a short-range wireless technology limited to
transmission distances of about 100 meters or less?
A 802.11a
B Bluetooth
C Wi-Fi
D WiMAX
B Bluetooth
In which network topology is each node connected to a central network
transmission device such as a hub or a switch?
A Bus
B Mesh
C Ring
D Star
D Star
In which network topology is each node connected to the next by a
direct line so that a continuous line is formed?
A Bus
B Mesh
C Ring
D Star
A Bus
In which network topology is each node connected to a central device
by two wires?
A Bus
B Mesh
C Ring
D Star
C Ring
In which network topology do all nodes have independent connections
to all other nodes?
A Bus
B Mesh
C Ring
D Star
B Mesh
True or false? In a star topology, when a single connection fails, it
doesn't affect the communication ability of other computers.
True. In the star topology, when a single connection fails, it doesn't affect the
communication ability of other computers connected to the same network
transmission device.
The benefit of a ___________ topology is that it's simple and
inexpensive to set up.
bus
True or false? The star topology uses a central networking device called
a multistation access unit (MSAU).
False. Token Ring networks use a multistation access unit (MSAU).
The ___________ topology is extremely fault tolerant, but expensive to
implement.
mesh
An example of a ________________ connection is the dial-up
connection from a computer to an ISP.
point-to-point
In which type of network is data is broken up into packets before it's
sent over the network?
A Point-to-point
B Point-to-multipoint
C Packet-switching
D Circuit-switching
C Packet-switching
Which Ethernet standard is the fastest?
A Twisted Pair Ethernet
B Fast Ethernet
C Gigabyte Ethernet
D 10GbE
D 10GbE
Which Ethernet standard designates fiber optic cabling as its required
medium? (Choose all that apply.)
A BASE-CX
B BASE-R
C BASE-T
D BASE-W
E BASE-X
B BASE-R
E BASE-X
Ethernet _____________ combines the bandwidth of two network
interface cards as a cost-effective way to increase bandwidth available
for data transfers for critical servers, such as firewalls and production
servers.
bonding
True or false? A star Ethernet might be faster than a bus Ethernet,
especially if there are many nodes on the network.
False. A star Ethernet might be slower than a bus Ethernet, because the hub
generates a lot of data traffic that isn't used. It replicates all the data it receives
from any source and sends it to every node.
Which network topologies can you use with Ethernet networks?
(Choose all that apply.)
A Bus
B Mesh
C Ring
D Star
A Bus
D Star
______________ is an acronym for the channel access method that
avoids collisions rather than detecting them.
CSMA/CD
In order to transmit data on a Token Ring network, a node must have
possession of the _____________.
token
In a WLAN, the wireless NIC allows nodes to communicate over
____________ distances using radio waves, which it sends to, and
receives, from the hub.
short
True or false? A LAN becomes a WAN when you expand the network
configuration beyond your own premises and must lease data
communication lines from a public carrier.
True
Which is WAN connection technology that uses encryption and security
protocols to create a private network over a public network?
A Cable
B Cellular
C DSL
D DUN
E Satellite
F VPN
G Wireless
F VPN
Which is WAN connection technology that uses high-speed
connections made over regular analog phone lines?
A Cable
B Cellular
C DSL
D DUN
E Satellite
F VPN
G Wireless
C DSL
Which WAN connection technology currently uses Enhanced Data
rates for GSM Evolution (EDGE), Evolution-Data Optimized (EV-DO),
or High-Speed Downlink Packet Access (HSDPA)?
A Cable
B Cellular
C DSL
D DUN
E Satellite
F VPN
G Wireless
B Cellular
Which WAN technology that's used to connect a small ISP or large
business to a regional ISP, and a regional ISP to an Internet backbone,
uses fixed-length packets, called cells, to transmit data, voice, video,
and frame relay traffic?
A ATM
B E1/E3
C Fram
A ATM
Which OSI layer provides security, encryption, and compression for the
data?
A Layer 1�Physical
B Layer 2�Data Link
C Layer 3�Network
D Layer 4�Transport
E Layer 5�Session
F Layer 6�Presentation
G Layer 7�Application
F Layer 6�Presentation
Which OSI layer divides long communications into smaller data
packages, handles error recognition and correction, and acknowledges
the correct receipt of data?
A Layer 1�Physical
B Layer 2�Data Link
C Layer 3�Network
D Layer 4�Transport
E Layer 5�Session
D Layer 4�Transport
Which OSI layer addresses data messages, translates logical addresses
into actual physical addresses, and routes data to addresses on the
network?
A Layer 1�Physical
B Layer 2�Data Link
C Layer 3�Network
D Layer 4�Transport
E Layer 5�Session
F Layer 6�Pre
C Layer 3�Network
Which OSI layer transmits bits from one computer to another and
regulates the transmission stream over a medium?
A Layer 1�Physical
B Layer 2�Data Link
C Layer 3�Network
D Layer 4�Transport
E Layer 5�Session
F Layer 6�Presentation
G Layer 7�Application
A Layer 1�Physical
Which type of network cable transmits digital signals in the form of
pulses of light?
A Coaxial
B Unshielded Twisted Pair (UTP)
C Shield Twisted Pair (STP)
D Fiber Optic
D Fiber Optic
Which occurs because alternating electrical current flowing through a
wire creates an electromagnetic field around the wire?
A Attenuation
B Crosstalk
C Interference
D Shorts
B Crosstalk
Which categories of UTP cabling can be used in Gigabit Ethernet
networks? (Select all that apply.)
A CAT 1
B CAT 2
C CAT 3
D CAT 4
E CAT 5
F CAT 5e
G CAT 6
H CAT 6e
I CAT 7
E CAT 5
F CAT 5e
G CAT 6
H CAT 6e
The diameter of fiber optic cable is expressed in which measurement?
A Centimeters
B Microns
C Millimeters
D Ohms
B Microns
_____________ fiber optic cable is used mostly for short distances (up
to 500 m).
Multi-mode
Which of the following Radio Guide cable categories is used for
Ethernet networking? (Select all that apply.)
A RG-6
B RG-8
C RG-9
D RG-11
E RG-58
F RG-59
B RG-8
D RG-11
E RG-58
Twisted pair network cable uses which RJ connector?
A RJ-11
B RJ-14
C RJ-25
D RJ-45
D RJ-45
An RJ-11 connector is which type?
A 6P2C
B 6P4C
C 6P6C
D 8P8C
A 6P2C
What is the pinout difference between the T568A and T568B
standards? (Select all that apply.)
A The wire color attached to pin 1
B The wire color attached to pin 2
C The wire color attached to pin 3
D The wire color attached to pin 4
E The wire color atta
A The wire color attached to pin 1
B The wire color attached to pin 2
C The wire color attached to pin 3
F The wire color attached to pin 6
The standard BNC barrel connector is considered a how-many-pin
connector?
A 1
B 2
C 3
D 4
B 2
Impedance is measured in which of the following?
A Nanoseconds
B Ohms
C Millimeters
D Volts
B Ohms
Cables that run in _______________ must meet applicable fire
protection and environmental requirements.
plenums
The device on a NIC card that converts the data that it receives from the
system into a signal that's appropriate to the network is called a
______________.
A Port
B PROM chip
C Receiver
D Transceiver
D Transceiver
True or false? On the majority of today's laptop computers, the network
adapters are PC Cards.
False. Network adapters are standard equipment on notebook computers now.
The built-in identifying address coded into the NIC by the
manufacturers is called which of the following?
A IPv4 address
B IPv6 address
C MAC address
D Port address
C MAC address
A 16-byte address displayed in hexadecimal is called which of the
following?
A IPv4 address
B IPv6 address
C MAC address
D Port address
B IPv6 address
_______________ servers match host names to IP addresses.
DNS
A ___________________ name is a 16-character name, with the first
15 characters available for the name and the 16th character reserved to
describe a particular service or functionality.
NetBIOS
True or false? The purpose of a modem is to convert digital data signals
from the computer into analog signals for transmission over the phone
line.
True. It also converts analog signals received from the phone line back into digital
signals for the computer.
Modems use which RJ connector?
A RJ-11
B RJ-14
C RJ-25
D RJ-45
A RJ-11
True or false? PCI-based modems are less expensive to purchase
because the CPU must handle all the processing, making them cheaper
to produce.
False. The CPU handles all the processing for an AMR, CNR, or ACR modem,
sound card, or network card.
True or false? In Windows Vista, you use the software that comes with
your modem to create dial-up connections to remote servers.
False. Once you've installed a modem on your computer, you establish a
connection to an ISP's dial-up server or a company's remote access server by
using Windows Vista's "Set up a connection or network" wizard.
Which of the following cities hosts one of the four original NAPs?
(Choose all that apply.)
A San Francisco, CA
B Washington, DC
C New York, NY
D Seattle, WA
E Chicago, IL
B Washington, DC
E Chicago, IL
The original four NAPs are called what?
A Public Internet exchange points
B Private Internet exchange points
C Commercial Internet Exchange (CIX) points
D Federal Internet Exchange (FIX) points
A Public Internet exchange points
Smaller companies and individuals use a(n) ____________ to make the
connection to a commercial backbone.
ISP
Before data gets onto a T1 line, it must be cleaned and formatted by a
device called what?
A CSU/DSU
B Router
C Hub
D Demarc device
A CSU/DSU
The point at which the communications network owned by one
company connects to the communications network owned by another
company is called what?
A Cross-connect
B Demarc
C Entrance facility
D Main distribution frame
B Demarc
Network backbone cabling run from floor to floor connecting the main
cross-connect to intermediate cross-connects on each floor is referred to
as ___________ cabling.
vertical
Which standard addresses the entrance facility, equipment room,
backbone pathways, telecommunications room, and horizontal
pathways?
A TIA/EIA-568-C
B TIA/EIA-569-A
C TIA/EIA-606
D There is no standard for these components.
B TIA/EIA-569-A
Which standard specifies UTP standards for workstation runs?
A TIA/EIA-568-C
B TIA/EIA-569-A
C TIA/EIA-606
D There is no standard for these components.
A TIA/EIA-568-C
What are the two choices you have for terminating network wiring in
the telecommunications room? (Choose two.)
A Cross-connect
B LAN router
C Patch panel
D Punchdown terminal
C Patch panel
D Punchdown terminal
True or false? You terminate both workstation drops and backbone
wiring using the same device.
True. You can use the same patch panel or punchdown to terminate both
workstation drops and backbone wiring.
The patch panel is then connected to the multiport hub by __________
cables.
patch
Backbones, workstation runs, and cross connects are part of what type
of wiring?
A Horizontal runs
B Movable wiring
C Permanent wiring
D Vertical cabling
C Permanent wiring
If you're using copper cable, what type of cable do you use for user
and patch cords?
A Solid
B Stranded
A Solid
Many companies run what type of cabling as their backbone media?
A Fiber optic
B Solid twisted pair
C Stranded twisted pair
D Coaxial
A Fiber optic
Minimize sharp bends in the cable, which can distort the
_____________ characteristics of the cable.
electrical
In a UTP installation, you don't want to exceed what distance from the
user's equipment to the final termination point in the
telecommunications room?
A 10 meters
B 90 meters
C 100 meters
D 1000 meters
C 100 meters
What are two popular options for horizontal runs to modular office
systems? (Select two.)
A Cable trays
B Consolidation points
C Multiuser outlets
D Straight runs
E Splices
B Consolidation points
C Multiuser outlets
What AWG gauge is most common for cross-connect jumpers?
A 20
B 22
C 24
D 26
C 24
For LAN cross-connects, how many pairs of wires are in the cable?
A One
B Two
C Three
D Four
D Four
Which terminating device has the following advantages?
� It's a permanent link.
� Channel testing is easier.
� It's a solid connection.
� Moves easily.
A Connecting block
B Patch panel
B Patch panel
A wire map test checks for wiring errors and __________ faults.
cable
When the signal from one pair of wires interferes with the signal on
another pair of wires, it's called what?
A Attenuation
B Impedance
C Near End Crosstalk
D Signal degradation
C Near End Crosstalk
___________ combine the characteristics of bridges and routers.
Brouters
Repeaters operate at which OSI layer?
A Layer 1 - Physical
B Layer 2 - Data link.
C Layer 3 - Network
D Layer 4 - Transport
A Layer 1 - Physical
Repeaters are typically used on what type of network?
A Bus
B Star
C Ring
D Hybrid
A Bus
Bridges operate at which OSI layer?
A Layer 1 - Physical
B Layer 2 - Data link.
C Layer 3 - Network
D Layer 4 - Transport
B Layer 2 - Data link.
Bridges filter based on which of the following?
A Host name
B Domain
C Physical address
D Signal quality
C Physical address
What type of bridge can package frames of one format into the format
of another?
A Encapsulating
B Heterogeneous
C Translating
D Transparent
A Encapsulating
When a bridge has a LAN link directly attached on each side, it's
known as a ___________ bridge.
local
Routers operate at which OSI layer?
A Layer 1 - Physical
B Layer 2 - Data link.
C Layer 3 - Network
D Layer 4 - Transport
C Layer 3 - Network
Which internetworking device makes computers that are connected to
separate segments appear and behave as if they're on the same
segment?
A Bridge
B Hub
C Router
D Switch
D Switch
With VLAN trunking, a single network adapter can virtualize "n"
number of network adapters. "n" has a theoretical limit of what?
A 90
B 1000
C 4096
D 5012
C 4096
True or false? Routers were designed to prevent unnecessary broadcasts
in bridged networks
True
True or false? Routers have a lower throughput than bridges.
True. A router activity needs more processor time, more memory, and multiple
network connections.
Which of the following are router protocols? (Choose all that apply.)
A ATM
B Frame relay
C IPX
D RIP
E OSPF
F TCP/IP
G X-25
D RIP
E OSPF
Which TCP/IP-based management protocol implemented on routers
provides for security?
A CMIP over TCP/IP (CMOT)
B Common Management Information Protocol (CMIP)
C Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)
D SNMPv3
A CMIP over TCP/IP (CMOT)
The two most common Interior Gateway protocols are:
A NAT
B OSPF
C RIP
D SNMP
B OSPF
C RIP
When wiring Ethernet in a star topology, the internetworking device
you use to take the signal transmitted from one computer and propagate
it to all the other computers on the network is which of the following?
A Bridge
B Hub
C Repeater
D Switch
B Hub
True or false? Brouters operate at both the network layer for routable
protocols and at the data link layer for non-routable protocols.
True
Which type of hubs repairs weak signals by actually retransmitting the
data with proper transmission voltage and current?
A Active
B Intelligent
C Passive
D Switching
A Active
Which type of hub is yet to be defined, but might include management
features and support the TCP/IP Simple Network Management Protocol
(SNMP)?
A Active
B Intelligent
C Passive
D Switching
B Intelligent
True or false? The internetworking device used to connect computers
on a Token Ring network is called a Token Ring hub.
False. Token Ring networks use Multistation Access Units (MSAUs).
Physically, Token Ring networks look like a star, but they operate like
which topology?
A Bus
B Hybrid
C Ring
C Ring
True or false? Firewalls are hardware devices.
False. Firewalls can be implemented as hardware or software.
When a router also acts as a firewall, it's called a _____________
router.
screening
Multilayer switches combine Layer 2 data switching with Layer 3
routing using which of the following?
A Application-specific integrated circuit (ASIC)
B MPLS
C Round robin
D Specialized software
A Application-specific integrated circuit (ASIC)
Which content switch load balancing method indirectly accounts for
differences in server processor speeds?
A Least connections
B Round robin
C Weighting
A Least connections
You install a(n) ____________ device on the perimeter of your network
to monitor for and stop threats before they are passed on your network.
IPS
A(n) _________ device can terminate a network connection or user
session.
IPS
True or false? A traffic shaper can limit the amount of bandwidth a
certain type of traffic is allowed to use.
True
Data information is sent onto the network cable using which of the
following?
A Communication protocol
B Data packet
C Media access method
D Packages
C Media access method
To which TCP/IP architecture layer do the media access methods
belong?
A Application
B Internet
C Network Interface
D Transport
C Network Interface
To which TCP/IP architecture layer do TCP and UDP belong?
A Application
B Internet
C Network Interface
D Transport
D Transport
To which TCP/IP architecture layer do routing protocols belong?
A Application
B Internet
C Network Interface
D Transport
B Internet
To which TCP/IP architecture layer do e-mail and Web browser
protocols belong?
A Application
B Internet
C Network Interface
D Transport
A Application
Which IEEE standard defines the communication protocol for Ethernet?
A 802.3
B 802.5
C 802.11
D 802.15
A 802.3
Which protocol is used to convert logical IP addresses to physical MAC
addresses?
A ARP
B DNS
C IMAP4
D RIP
A ARP
You can use the command-line utility _______________ to retrieve a
computer's IP configuration.
IPCONFIG
Which protocol is responsible for the logical addressing of each packet
created by the transport layer?
A IP
B RIP
C TCP
D UDP
A IP
The ping utility is the most common use of which protocol?
A ARP
B ICMP/ICMPv6
C IGMP
D RIP
B ICMP/ICMPv6
SSH was designed as a replacement for ________________ and other
insecure remote shells, which sent data (including passwords) in
plaintext.
Telnet
Which TCP/IP architecture layer makes use of ports?
A Application
B Internet
C Network Interface
D Transport
D Transport
True or false? TCP is a connection-oriented protocol that creates and
verifies a connection with a remote host before sending information.
True. UDP is connectionless.
Which is a simple software-based protocol analyzer?
A The command-line utility ARP
B The command-line utility IPCONFIG
C The Windows Network Monitor utility
D The Windows Network Control Panel utility
C The Windows Network Monitor utility
Which protocol do Web browsers and Web servers use most often?
A FTP
B HTTP
C HTTP(S)
D TFTP
B HTTP
Which e-mail protocol is used to send and receive e-mail messages
between e-mail servers and used by e-mail client software to send
messages to the server, but never used to retrieve e-mail from a server?
A IMAP4
B POP3
C SMTP
C SMTP
The Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA) implemented
_____________ IPv4 addresses in order to differentiate between the
portion of the IP address that identifies a particular network and the
portion that identifies a specific host on that network.
classful
What is the default subnet mask for a Class C IP address?
A 255.0.0.0
B 255.255.0.0
C 255.255.255.0
D 0.255.255.255
C 255.255.255.0
Which is not a valid subnet mask?
A 255.255.0.0
B 255.247.0.0
C 255.255.255.0
D 255.0.255.0
D 255.0.255.0
IP address 227.43.76.109 is an example of which of the following
classes of IP addresses?
A Class A
B Class B
C Class C
D Class D
D Class D
How many octets are part of the network ID when using the subnet
mask 255.255.255.0?
A 1
B 2
C 3
D 4
C 3
True or false? The IP address 169.254.226.4 can be routed on the
Internet.
False
What was introduced to make IPv4 Internet routing more efficient?
A Subnet masks
B Switches
C DHCP
D CIDR
D CIDR
An IPv4 packet sent to all workstations on the network is called a
__________.
A Directed packet
B Unicast
C Multicast
D Broadcast
D Broadcast
True or false? A computer will use a default gateway if the destination
IP address is on a different network.
True
Which of the following is another name for default gateway?
A Host
B Hub
C Router
D Switch
C Router
How many octets are in an IPv4 address?
A 2
B 4
C 8
D 16
B 4
How many bits are in an octet?
A 2
B 4
C 8
D 16
C 8
How many bits is an IPv6 address?
A 8
B 32
C 64
D 128
D 128
Which type of address is written in the standard 4-part dotted decimal
address, followed by /N where N is a number from 0 to 32?
A APIPA
B CIDR
C IPv4
D IPv6
B CIDR
An IPv6 subnet ID is how many bits long?
A 8
B 16
C 32
D 64
B 16
True or false? A WINS server is necessary for address translation
between IP addresses and network nodes' FQDNs.
False. WINS is used for NetBIOS names.
After installing the DHCP Server service on a domain member server,
what must be done in Active Directory before it begins delivering
leased IP addresses?
A Authorize it.
B Reinstall Active Directory.
C Activate it.
D Modify the firewall rules.
A Authorize it.
What is the default lease length used by a wired scope created in the
Windows Server 2008 DHCP Service?
A Three hours
B Three days
C Six days
D Eight days
E 30 days
C Six days
Which of the following are client options that can be set at the scope
level? (Choose all that apply.)
A DNS
B WINS
C ROUTER
D MAC address
A DNS
B WINS
C ROUTER
Which wireless technology is used to create a connection between two
devices? (Select all that apply.)
A Bluetooth
B Infrared
C Radio
D Wi-Fi
E WiMAX
A Bluetooth
B Infrared
Which connection type uses two directional antennas to make the
wireless link?
A Indoor point-to-multipoint LANs
B Outdoor point-to-point links
C Outdoor point-to-multipoint links
D Wi-Fi
E WiMAX
B Outdoor point-to-point links
The interface on the access point used to connect to the existing wired
network is typically called what?
A Antenna
B Transmitter
C WAN port
D Wireless NIC
C WAN port
You should place your wireless LAN access points within how many
meters of the wireless clients?
A 40 to 125
B 55 to 200
C 60 to 90
D 90 to 400
E 115 to 550
D 90 to 400
To obtain the IEEE speed designated as high, clients are within how
many meters of the AP?
A 40 to 125
B 55 to 200
C 60 to 90
D 90 to 400
E 115 to 550
A 40 to 125
In a(n) ______________ site survey, you temporarily set up your
WAPs at the locations you're considering for permanent placement.
informal
The 802.1x standard requires which roles in the authentication process?
(Select all that apply.)
A Authentication server
B Authenticator
D Requesting access device
Which of the following is the most widely used wireless technology at
present?
A 802.11a
B Bluetooth
C Wi-Fi
D WiMAX
C Wi-Fi
True or false? 802.11b, 802.11a, and 802.11g are all considered Wi-Fi.
True
Ratified in 2003, which standard is a combination of 802.11a and
802.11b?
A 802.11c
B 802.11g
C 802.11h
D 802.11n
B 802.11g
Of the four components to security on a wireless network, to which one
does a RADIUS server belong?
A Access control
B Authentication
C Encryption
D Isolation
B Authentication
War _____________ is the process of marking buildings, curbs, and
other landmarks indicating the presence of an available access point and
its connection details by utilizing a set of symbols and shorthand.
chalking
Which encryption method uses Advanced Encryption System (AES)
cipher for stronger encryption?
A 802.11i
B WEP
C WPA Personal
D WPA2
D WPA2
An AP typically broadcasts its _____________ so clients can discover
its presence.
SSID
True or false? Wireless Zero Configuration enables Windows Vista and
Windows XP computers to automatically connect to available wireless
networks.
True
True or false? Windows 2000 Professional clients have no way of
supporting IEEE 802.1x authentication.
False. Microsoft provides an 802.1x Authentication Client download that allows
Windows 2000 computers to use the 802.1x standard.
Rather than destroying or stealing data, a ____________ attack is
designed to disrupt daily standard operation.
DoS
____________ attacks flood a server with half open TCP connections
which prevent users from being able to access the server.
SYN flood
A smurf attack overwhelms a host by flooding it with ____________
packets.
ICMP
The target systems in a DDoS attack use ____________ which are later
woken up to launch the attack.
zombies or agents
Man-in-the-middle attacks can be used for what types of attacks?
DoS, Web spoofing, information theft, and TCP session hijacking
_____________ policies address the use of computer equipment and
network resources for personal use or use that doesn't benefit the
organization.
Acceptable use
_____________ means that reasonable precautions are being taken
which indicates that the organization is being responsible.
Due care
Least privilege refers to employees having only information that they
_____________.
need to know
Why is it necessary to have a disposal and destruction of computer
equipment policy?
You should have a disposal and destruction policy for computer equipment so that
when equipment is decommissioned that the information on the components
cannot compromise the security of the network and the organization.
How does the code of ethics in a human resources policy relate to
computer security?
It defines the stance of the organization on information security and demands that
users act honestly, responsibly, and legally to protect the organization's
information.
_____________ policies detail how a security break or disaster is dealt
with.
Incident response
_____________ policies describe the set of procedures followed
whenever a network change is made.
Change management
True or false? It is important when training users to alert them to ways
that attackers attempt to gather personally identifiable information and
information about the organization's network.
True
List some of the items a dumpster diver seeks.
Internal phone directories, organizational charts, policy manuals, calendars,
outdated hardware, systems manuals, network diagrams, other technical
information sources.
A __________ is a program that poses as something else, causing the
user to 'willingly' inflict the attack on himself or herself.
Trojan horse
List at least three primary causes for compromised security.
Technology weaknesses, configuration weaknesses, policy weaknesses, human
error or malice.
Why can't computer equipment just be thrown in with the regular trash?
Many pieces of computer equipment contain hazardous materials and heavy
metals. Also, you want to make sure that any information stored on the equipment
is not able to be retrieved.
What is meant by operating system hardening?
It is the process of modifying an operating system's default configuration to make it
more secure from outside threats.
__________ are designed to fix security vulnerabilities.
A Hotfixes
B Patches
C Updates
D BIOS updates
B Patches
How can you remove an update from Windows Vista?
From the Windows Update window, click View update history. Click the Installed
Updates link on the Review your update history page. If the update can be
removed, Uninstall is displayed in the toolbar. Click Uninstall to remove the update.
Where do you need to look to determine whether a service pack has
been installed?
View Computer Properties, and in the Windows edition portion of the page it will
indicate if a Service Pack has been installed.
Why might you filter outgoing traffic between your DMZ and the
Internet?
Filtering outgoing traffic that is initiated by a DMZ computer would prevent your
systems from being used to take part in distributed denial-of-service attacks.
Define bastion host.
A bastion host is a computer that is located between the Internet and your intranet.
It has two network cards, one for each network. Communications between the
networks is typically blocked to prevent inbound access to intranet systems.
The three main zones into which you can divide a network are the
_________, _________, and _________.
Intranet, perimeter network (or DMZ), and extranet (or Internet)
Name at least two actions you should take to limit risk of attacks on
your network devices (switches, routers, and so forth).
Answers should include:
� Changing default passwords
� Disabling features, protocols, and options you do not need
� Applying firmware and software updates regularly
� Monitoring physical and virtual access to your network and devices
You're configuring your network switch to improve its security. You
have changed the default password for the unit's Web interface. What
else should you configure to be sure all management interfaces have
been locked down?
Make sure to secure TELNET and SNMP interfaces. Also, if available, block
access to management interfaces from all external network locations. In the case of
wireless devices, block access to management interfaces over wireless
connections (allow wired co
How does antivirus software recognize new viruses and worms?
Updated virus definitions are downloaded.
What is the Windows Vista built-in spyware protection function called?
Windows Defender
What are the three steps of the AAA model?
Authentication, authorization, and accounting
Compare one-, two-, and three-factor authentication.
� One-factor authentication typically uses just something you know-a username
and password.
� Two-factor authentication adds something you have or something you are�the
username and password are combined with a token or a biometric reading.
� Three-factor
Which is more secure, an LM hash or an NTLM hash? Why?
NTLM hashes are more secure. LM hashes start by converting all characters to
uppercase then storing the hash in two 7-byte strings; longer passwords are
truncated and shorter passwords are padded with null characters.
Why would an administrator use password cracking tools?
Administrators often use them as well to test how vulnerable their network is to
attacks. They might also use the tools to access systems or devices where the
password has been lost.
True or false? Kerberos authenticates users and servers over an open
multi-platform network using a single login procedure.
True
Which of the following is a reason to revoke a certificate?
A A newer certificate has been issued to the user or computer.
B The private key has become known to someone other than the
holder.
C The user or computer is no longer employed by the company.
D
D All of the above.
According to the 802.11 standard, an access point is _____________.
A device that acts as a transparent bridge between wireless clients and a wired
network.
What are the four components of wireless security?
� Access control
� Encryption
� Authentication
� Isolation
True or false? To enable remote access to your network, you must
provide services for authentication, authorization, and accounting.
False. Accounting functions are optional.
In RADIUS terminology, what is the name given to the system that
provides authentication services for remote computers?
The RADIUS server
In RADIUS terminology, what is the name given to the system that
provides connectivity services for remote computers?
The RADIUS client
What is a RADIUS realm?
A realm defines a namespace.
Diameter provides better security than RADIUS by providing end-toend
security using __________ or __________.
IPsec or TLS
What are the three LDAP Bind methods?
Simple Bind, SASL (Simple Authentication and Security Layer), and Anonymous
BIND
True or false? TACACS+ is backward compatible with TACACS and
XTACACS.
False
TACACS+ uses __________ rather than UDP for messages.
TCP
TACACS+ provides better message security than RADIUS because it
encrypts __________.
The entire message and not just the message body.
For Windows Server 2008, Microsoft's RADIUS server is called
__________.
Network Policy Services (NPS)
VPNs generally use __________, __________, and __________ to
enable secure remote connections across insecure networks.
Authentication, tunneling, and encryption
What are the three VPN security models?
Authentication before connection, trusted delivery network, and Secure VPN
Name two VPN protocols.
PPTP and L2TP are the most common. IPsec can be used with VPNs, though it is
a general network protocol.
What are the two IPsec encryption modes?
Transport and tunnel
True or false? You can safely distribute your public key to others.
True
CHAP is an authentication scheme used by _________ servers to
validate the identity of the remote user.
PPP
True or false? Events are collected in event reports.
False. Events are collect in event logs.
Which of the following are default Windows Logs? (Choose all that
apply.)
A Application
B Hardware
C Media Player
D Security
A Application
D Security
Which of the following are types of events reported in Event Viewer?
(Choose all that apply.)
A Critical
B Error
C Logon
D Logoff
A Critical
B Error
True or false? Event Viewer is a Computer Management component.
True
Analytical and __________ logs are hidden by default and generally
used only by developers.
Debug
Which of the following is the local group you can use to grant
permissions to view event logs on a remote computer?
A Event Log Managers
B Event Log Admins
C Event Log Readers
D Event Log Browsers
C Event Log Readers
You use the winrm __________ command to enable and configure the
Windows Remote Management service on a source computer.
quickconfig
True or false? You must enable the Windows Event Collector service
on the source computer when configuring event forwarding.
False. You must configure it on the collecting computer.
For which port must you create a Windows Firewall exception when
using HTTP in event forwarding?
A 45
B 80
C 180
D 443
B 80
For which port must you create a Windows Firewall exception when
using HTTPS in event forwarding?
A 45
B 80
C 180
D 443
D 443
You use the wecutil __________ command to enable and configure
the Windows Event Collector service on a collecting computer.
qc
To collect events on the collecting computer, you must create a
__________.
subscription
In event forwarding, under normal settings, the collecting computer
uses a __________ method to obtain events from a source computer.
pull
Which of the following event delivery optimization settings might you
use when collecting events from a branch office that's connected over a
slow WAN link?
A Minimize Latency
B Minimize Bandwidth
C Maximize Bandwidth
D Maximize Latency
B Minimize Bandwidth
When monitoring a computer using Performance Monitor, you must
add __________ to display real-time data on the line graph.
counters
You'd use the LAN __________ Data Collector Set to troubleshoot
network performance.
Diagnostics
Which of the following display types can you use to display data in
Performance Monitor?
A Line graph
B Pie chart
C Histogram
D Pictogram
A Line graph
C Histogram
True or false? The System Diagnostics Data Collector Set runs for
exactly 5 minutes.
False. It runs for 1 minute.
At a minimum, which IPv4 address components must you configure in
order to communicate on your local subnet?
A IP address
B Subnet mask
C Default gateway
D DNS server address
A IP address
B Subnet mask
Which utility enables you to reset a computer's network adapter?
A Network Map
B Windows Network Diagnostics
C IPConfig
D Local Area Connection
B Windows Network Diagnostics
True or false? Network Map is enabled by default in Windows Vista
computers within an Active Directory domain.
False
What steps can you take to minimize electrical interference on your
wired LAN?
Install cables in separate conduits away from items such as electric motors (like
those found in lifts/elevators), fluorescent lights, and air conditioners. In areas
where there's an abundance of electrical noise, use shielded cables or other
technologies
What might be the cause if you are unable to connect to radio wireless
device?
Answers include:
� Out of range
� Interference from electrical motors or equipment
� Drivers not installed
� Wireless router turned off
� Security settings preventing connections
Which command displays the IP address of the host and other
configuration information?
A Getmac
B Ipconfig
C Nslookup
D Ping
B Ipconfig
Which type of crosstalk is a calculated value of the crosstalk between
pairs measured at the far end of the cable?
A Near End Crosstalk (NEXT)
B Far End Crosstalk (FEXT)
C Equal Level Far End Crosstalk (ELFEXT)
D Pair to Pair Crosstalk
C Equal Level Far End Crosstalk (ELFEXT)
List four physical cable tests you can perform using a cable testing
device.
� Locating miswired cables
� Locating missing cables
� Locating cables that don't support your network type (for example, 100 Base-T)
� Testing hub connections
� Testing PC connections
� Testing installed cables
� Testing patch cables
� Locating and traci
List four network function tests you can perform with a cable testing
device.
Answers include:
� Verifying if PC is ON, if it appears as a PC and maximum speed
� Verifying if hub is ON, if it appears as a hub and maximum speed
� Verifying PC to hub speed and data transmission
� Verifying hub to hub data transmission
� Determining i
A network analyzer can detect problems with what four pieces of
hardware?
� Cabling
� Jacks
� Network cards
� Hubs
What information does the command ipconfig report?
� Connection-specific DNS Suffix
� IP Address
� Subnet Mask
� Default Gateway
What command should you enter to view the Host Name and DNS
Server address?
ipconfig /all
Which command would you use to verify name resolution (DNS)
settings?
A ipconfig
B ping
C nslookup
D tracert
C nslookup