Figure 10.3
This figure shows the results of a gel electrophoresis separation of restriction
fragments of the DNA of different organisms.
In Figure 10.3, which two are most closely related?
1 and 3
2 and 4
3 and 5
2 and 5
4 and 5
1 and 3
Table 10.2
Use the dichotomous key in Table 10.2 to identify a gram-negative coccus.
Micrococcus
Staphylococcus
Neisseria
Pseudomonas
Streptococcus
Neisseria
Figure 11.1 What is group "c" in the key shown in figure 11.1?
Spirochaetes
Fusobacteria
Planctomycetes
Chlamydiae
Bacteroidetes
Spirochaetes
Which of the following statements about the causative agent of Rocky Mountain spotted fever is false?
It is an intracellular parasite.
It is in the genus Rickettsia.
It is gram-negative.
It is transmitted by ticks.
It is found in soil and water.
It is found in soil and water.
Which of the following lacks a cell wall?
Clostridium
Nocardia
Mycoplasma
Borrelia
Myobacterium
Mycoplasma
Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
Diatoms - petroleum
Green algae - prokaryotic
Dinoflagellates - paralytic shellfish poisoning
Brown algae - algin
Red algae - agar
Green algae - prokaryotic
In a food chain consisting of the following organisms, acts as a producer?
Slime molds
Fungi
Protozoa
Lichens
Lichens
Multinucleated amoebalike cells that produce funguslike spores.
Cellular slime mold
Euglenozoa
Plasmodial slime mold
Tapeworm
Ascomycete
Plasmodial slime mold
Which of the following is necessary for replication of a prion?
pSc
Lysozyme
DNA polymerase
DNA
RNA
pSc
Bacteriophages and animal viruses do NOT differ significantly in which one of the following steps?
Release
Penetration
Adsorption
Uncoating
Biosynthesis
Biosynthesis
Into which group would you place a multicellular heterotroph with chitin cell walls?
Animalia
Plantae
Archaea
Bacteria
Fungi
Fungi
Which of the following statements is NOT a reason for clarifying viruses in the three domains rather than in a fourth domain?
Viruses are obligate parasites.
Viruses are not composed of cells.
Viruses direct anabolic pathways of host cells.
Some viruses c
Viruses are not composed of cells.
Which of the following characterizes the Domain Bacteria.
Prokaryotic cells; ether linkages in phospholipids.
Multicellular
Prokaryotic cells; ester linkages in phospholipids.
Eukaryotic cells; ester linkages in phospholipids.
Complex cellular structures.
Prokaryotic cells; ester linkages in phospholipids
Protist is a diverse group of organisms that are similar in
rRNA sequences.
Metabolic type.
Motility.
Ecology.
None of the above.
None of the above
Into which group would you place a photosynthetic organism that lacks a nucleus and has a thin peptidoglycan wall surrounded by an outer membrane?
Animalia
Firmicutes (gram-positive bacteria)
Fungi
Plantae
Proteobacteria (gram-negative bacteria)
Proteobacteria (gram-negative bacteria)
Bacteria and archaea are similar in which of the following?
Sensitivity to antibiotics
Methionine as the start signal for protein synthesis.
Plasma membrane ester linkage.
Peptidoglycan cell walls.
Possessing prokaryotic cells.
Possessing prokaryotic cells.
One of the most popular taxonomic tools is DNA fingerprinting to develop profiles of organisms. These profiles provide direct information about
Protein composition
Enzymatic activities
The presence of specific genes
Nucleotide sequences
Antigenic composit
Nucleotide sequences
Figure 10.1
In Figure 10.1, the closest ancestor for both species "a." and species "b." would be
1
2
3
4
5
5
The phylogenetic classification of bacteria is based on
rRNA sequences
Habitat
Diseases
Gram reaction
Cell morphology
rRNA sequences
Serological testing is based on the fact that
The human body makes antibodies against bacteria.
Antibodies react specifically with an antigen.
Bacteria clump together when mixed with any antibodies.
Antibodies cause the formation of antigens.
All bacteria
Antibodies react specifically with an antigen.
Which of the following is the best evidence for a three-domain system?
There are three distinctly different Gram reactions.
There are three distinctly different types of ribosomes.
There are three distinctly different cellular chemical compositions.
There
There are three distinctly different cellular chemical compositions.
Figure 10.2
A nucleic acid hybridization experiment produced the following results.
In Figure 10.2, which figure shows the most closely related organisms?
a
b
c
d
e
b
Which of the following bacteria are responsible for more infections and more different kinds of infections?
Neisseria
Salmonella
Streptococcus
Staphylococcus
Pseudomonas
Streptococcus
Which of the following form condiospores?
Endospore - forming gram-positive rods and cocci
Actinomycetes and related organisms
Anaerobic gram-negative cocci
Rickettsias
Spiral and curved bacteria
Actinomycetes and related organisms
You have isolated a bacterium that grows in a medium containing an organic substrate and nitrate in the absence of oxygen. The nitrate is reduced to nitrogen gas. You can be sure that this bacterium is
A chemoautotroph
A photoautotroph
A photoheterotroph
Using anaerobic respiration
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of spirochetes?
Helical shape
Easily observed with brightfield microscopy
Gram-negative
Possess an axial filament
Difficult to culture in vitro
Easily observed with brightfield microscopy
Actinomycetes differ from fungi in that actinomycetes
Are chemoheterotrophs
Cause disease
Lack a membrane-bounded nucleus
Are decomposers
Require light
Lack a membrane-bounded nucleus
Both Beggiatoa and the purple sulfur bacteria use H2S. These bacteria differ in that Beggiatoa
Belongs to the gammaproteobacteria
Uses light energy
Uses H2S for a carbon source
Uses H2S for an energy source
Is a heterotroph
Uses H2S for an energy source
Which of the following bacteria is gram-positive?
Rickettsia
Streptococcus
Bacteroides
Pseudomonas
Salmonella
Streptococcus
Salmonella, Shigella, Yersinia, and Serratia are all
Endospore-forming bacteria
Pathogens
Gram-negative facultatively anaerobic rods
Fermentative
Gram-positive aerobic cocci
Gram-negative facultatively anaerobic rods
Borrelia is classified as a spirochete because it
Is transmitted by ticks
Is aerobic
Possesses an axial filament
Is a rod
Is a pathogen
Possesses an axial filament
You have isolated a prokaryotic cell. The first step in identification is a(n)
Endospore stain
Flagella stain
Lactose fermentation test
DNA fingerprint
Gram stain
Gram stain
Escherichia coli belongs to
Green sulfur bacteria
Spirochetes
Gram-positive bacteria
Actinomycetes
Proteobacteria
Proteobacteria
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the non-endospore-forming gram-positive rods?
Lack cell walls
Don't produce endospores
Are nonpathogenic
Carry out fermentative metabolism
Are aerotolerant
Are nonpathogenic
Which of the following is NOT an enteric?
Salmonella
Escherichia
Shigella
Enterobacter
Campylobacter
Campylobacter
Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
Plasmogamy - union of two haploid cells
Deuteromycota - a phylum of fungi
Karyogamy - fusion of nucleus
Meiosis - cell division resulting in haploid cells
Anamorph - produces asexual spores
Deuteromycota - a phylum of fungi
Amoebalike vegetative structures that produce sporangia.
Euglenozoa
Ascomycete
Cellular slime mold
Plasmodial slime mold
Tapeworm
Cellular slime mold
What do tapeworms eat?
Intestinal contents
Intestinal bacteria
Plant matter
Host tissues
Red blood cells
Intestinal contents
In Table 12.1, which of these spores are characteristic of Rhizopus?
1 and 2
7 and 8
6 and 7
1 and 4
2 and 8
7 and 8
In Table 12.1, which of the spores are asexual spores?
2,4,6,7,8
1,4,5,6,7
2,3,6,8
1,3,5,8
All
1,4,5,6,7
Which of the following groups of algae does NOT produce compounds that are toxic to humans?
Red algae
Dinoflagellates
Green algae
Diatoms
All of the above produce compounds toxic to humans.
Green algae
Which of the following is the most effective control for malaria?
...
Which of the following statements is false?
Fungal spores are resting spores to protect the fungus from adverse environmental conditions.
Fungi spores are used in identification of fungi.
Fungi produce asexual spores.
Fungal spores are for reproduction.
Fungal spores are resting spores to protect the fungus from adverse environmental conditions.
The microspora and archaezoa are unusual eukaryotes because they
Are motile
Lack nuclei
Do produce cysts
Lack mitochondria
Don't produce cysts
Lack mitochondria
An organism that can grow photoautotrophically in the light and chemoheterotrophically in the dark.
Phytophthora
Cellular slime mold
Plasmodial slime mold
Oomycote
Euglena
Euglena
Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
Mosquito - Pneumocystis
Mosquito - malaria
Tick - Lyme disease
Tick - Rocky Mountain spotted fever
Mosquito - encephalitis
Mosquito - Pneumocystis
Seventeen patients in ten hospitals had cutaneous infections caused by Rhizopus. In all seventeen patients, Elastoplast bandages were placed over sterile gauze pads to cover wounds. Fourteen of the patients had surgical wounds, two had venous line inserti
They can tolerate low-moisture conditions
Assume you have isolated a multicellular heterotrophic organism that produces coenocytic hyphae, motile zoospores, and cellulose cell walls. It is most likely a(n)
Green algae
Tapeworm
Zygomycete fungus
Ascomyceye fungus
Oomycote alga
Oomycote alga
Which one of the following steps does NOT occur during multiplication of a picornavirus?
Synthesis of + strands of RNA
Synthesis of DNA
Synthesis of - strands of RNA
Synthesis of viral proteins
None of the above
Synthesis of DNA
An infectious protein is a
Prion
Bacteriophage
Papovavirus
Viroid
Retrovirus
prion
Viruses that have reverse transcriptase are in the
Retroviridae and Picornaviridae
Hepadnaviridae and Retroviridae
Bacteriophage families
Influenzavirus
Herpesviridae and Retroviridae
Hepadnaviridae and Retroviridae.
Bacteriophages derive all of the following from the host cell EXCEPT
Lysozyme
Nucleotides
A.T.P.
Amino acids
tRNA
Lysozyme
The following steps occur during multiplication of herpesviruses. Which is the third step?
Release
Penetration
Biosynthesis
Uncoating
Attachment
Uncoating
The most conclusive evidence that viruses cause cancers is provided by
Treating cancer with antibodies
The presence of antibodies against viruses in cancer patients.
Finding oncogenes in viruses
Cancer following injection of cell-free filtrates.
Some live
Cancer following injection of cell-free filtrates
Approximately how many virus particles could fit along a 1-millimeter line?
20
20,000
2,000,000
2
200
20,000
Which of the following statements about viruses is false?
Viruses use the anabolic machinery of the cell.
Viruses use their own catabolic enzymes.
Viruses contain a protein coat.
Viruses have genes.
Viruses contain DNA or RNA but never both.
Viruses use their own catabolic enzymes.
Which of the following statements about spikes is false?
They may cause hemagglutination.
They are found only on nonenveloped viruses.
They are found only on enveloped viruses.
They are used for penetration.
They are used for absorption.
...
The most common route of accidental AIDS transmission to health care worker is
Fecal - oral
Needlestick
Environmental surface contact
Mouth to mouth
Aerosol
Needlestick
Figure 13.2
Assume a patient has influenza. During which time (on the graph in Figure 13.2) would the patient show the symptoms of the illness?
a
b
c
d
e
c
An envelope is acquired during which of the following steps?
Adsorption
Biosynthesis
Penetration
Uncoating
Release
Release
The yeast Candida albicans does not normally cause disease because of
Parasitic bacteria
Commensal bacteria
Antagonistic bacteria
Other fungi
Symbiotic bacteria
Antagonistic bacteria
A commensal bacterium
Does not infect its host
Is beneficial to its host
May be an opportunistic pathogen
Does not receive any benefit from its host
B and D only
May be an opportunistic pathogen
Which of the following diseases is NOT usually contracted by the respiratory route?
Whooping cough
Pneumonia
Tuberculosis
Infectious hepatitis
All of the above are usually contracted by the respiratory route.
Infectious hepatitis
Which of the following choices shows the order in which white blood cells migrate to infected tissues?
Lymphocytes - macrophages
Macrophages - neutrophils
Neutrophils - macrophages
Macrophages - monocytes
Neutrophils - monocytes
Neutrophils - monocytes
The swelling associated with inflammation decreases when the fluid
Is excreted in urine
Returns to the blood
Goes into lymph capillaries
Is lost as perspiration
None of the above
Goes into lymph capillaries
Which one of the following causes transmembrane channels in target cells?
Antigen
Hapten
IL-1
Perforin
IL-2
Perforin
What type of immunity results from transfer of antibodies from one individual to a susceptible individual by means of injection?
Innate immunity
Naturally acquired active immunity
Naturally acquired passive immunity
Artificially acquired active immunity
A
Artificially acquired passive immunity
In an agglutination test, eight serial dilutions to determine antibody titer were set up. Tube #1 contained a 1:2 dilution; tube #2, a 1:4, etc. If tube #6 is the last tube showing agglutination, what is the antibody titer?
32
64
1:6
1:32
6
64
Autoimmunity is die to
IgG and IgM antibodies
CTLs
IgA antibodies
IgD antibodies
IgE antibodies
IgG and IgM antibodies
In Table 20.1, the minimal inhibitory concentration of antibiotic X is
25 ug/ml
10 ug/ml
2 ug/ml
15 ug/ml
Can't tell
10 ug/ml
A cold transmitted by a facial tissue is an example of
Direct contact
Vector
Droplet transmission
Fomite
Vehicle transmission
Vehicle transmission
Gastroenteritis acquired from roast beef is an example of
Fomite
Vehicle transmission
Droplet transmission
Direct contact
Vector
Vehicle transmission
One effect of washing regularly with antibacterial agents is the removal of normal microbiota. This can result in
No bacterial growth because washing removes their food source.
Increased susceptibility to disease.
Body odor.
Normal microbiota returning im
Increased susceptibility to disease.
Which of the following definitions is incorrect?
Epidemic - fraction of the population having a disease at a specified time
Sporadic - a disease that affects a population occasionally
Pandemic - a disease that affects a large number of people in the world
Epidemic - fraction of the population having a disease at a specified time
Which of the following is NOT a communicable diseases?
Malaria
Typhoid fever
Tetanus
Tuberculosis
AIDS
Tetanus
Situation 14.1
During a 6-month period, 239 cases of pneumonia occurred in a town of 300 people. A clinical case was defined as fever >39�C lasting >2 days with three or more symptoms (i.e., chills, sweats, severe headache, cough, aching muscles/joints, f
A zoonosis
Which of the following statements is true?
-A parasite is not in symbiosis with its host.
-Members of a symbiotic relationship cannot live without each other.
-Symbiosis refers to different organisms living together and benefiting from each other.
-Symbio
Symbiosis refers to different organisms living together.
A nosocomial infection is
Acquired during the course of hospitalization.
Only a result of surgery.
Always caused by medical personnel.
Always present but is inapparent at the time of hospitalization.
Always caused by pathogenic bacteria.
Acquired during the course of hospitalization.
Mechanical transmission differs from biological transmission in that mechanical transmission
Requires direct contact
Doesn't require an arthropod
Doesn't involve specific diseases
Involves fomites
Doesn't work with noncommunicable diseases.
Doesn't involve specific diseases.
Which of these infections can cause septicemia?
Bacteremia
Focal infection
Local infection
Septicemia
Systemic infection
Focal infection
Antibiotics can lead to septic shock if used to treat
Viral infections
Helminth infestations
Gram-negative bacterial infections
Protozoan infections
Gram-positive bacterial infections
Gram-negative bacterial infections
Which of the following statements about staphylococcal enterotoxin is false?
It causes vomiting.
It is a superantigen.
It is produced by Staphylococcus aureus growing in the host's intestines.
It causes diarrhea.
It is an exotoxin
It is produced by staphylococcus aureus growing in the host's intestines.
The mechanism by which gram-negative bacteria can cross the blood-brain barrier?
Producing fimbriae
Inducing endocytosis
Inducing TNF
Producing toxins
All of the above
Inducing TNF
Nonpathogenic Vibrio cholerae can acquire the cholera toxin gene by
Infecting a pathogenic Vibrio cholerae
Transduction
Phagocytosis
Transformation
Conjugation
Transduction
Which of the following does NOT contribute to a pathogen's invasiveness?
Ligands
Cell wall
Toxins
Hyaluronidase
Capsule
Toxins
Which of the following organisms causes the most severe disease?
Treponema pallidum ID50=57
E.coli O157:H7 ID 50=20
Shigella ID50=10
Rhinovirus ID50=200
Can't tell
Can't tell
Cholera toxin polypeptide A binds to surface gangliosides on target cells. If the gangliosides were removed,
Polypeptide A would enter the cells.
Vibrio would bind to target cells.
Polypeptide A would bind to target cells.
Vibrio would not produce cholera
Polypeptide B would not be able to enter the cells.
Which of the following statements about M protein is false?
It is found on Streptococcus pyogenes.
It is a protein.
It is found on fimbriae.
It is heat and acid-resistant.
It is readily digested by phagocytes.
It is readily digested by phagocytes.
Thirty-two people in San Francisco who ate jackfish caught at Midway Island developed malaise, nausea, blurred vision, breathing difficulty, and numbness from 3-6 hours after eating The most likely cause of this food intoxication is
A mycotoxin
Cholera to
Ciguatera
Which of the statements is true?
There are at least 30 complement proteins.
Complement activity is antigen specific.
All of the complement proteins are always active in serum.
Complement increases after immunization.
Factors B, D, and P cause cytolysis.
There are at least 30 complement proteins.
After ingesting a pathogen, lysosomal enzymes produce all of the following EXCEPT
H202
Complement
OH
HOCl
O2-
Complement
Defensive cells such as T cells identify pathogens by binding which of the following?
Complement
Toll-like receptors
Lysozyme
Cytokines
Lectins
Toll-like receptors
Which of the following does NOT provide protection from phagocytic digestion?
Ability to grow at a low pH
Biofilms
Killing white blood cells
Causing formation of phagolysosomes
Preventing formation of phagolysosomes
Causing formation of phagolysosomes
Which of the following is NOT a function of inflammation?
To repair damaged tissues
To destroy an injurious agent
To wall off an injurious agent
To produce antibodies
To remove an injurious agent
To produce antibodies
Which of the following is NOT used by phagocytes to adhere to a microorganism?
Lysozyme
Trapping a bacterium against a rough surface
Chemotaxis
Opsonization
Complement
Lysozyme
The alternative pathway for complement activation is initiated by
Factors released from damaged tissues
Antigen - antibody reactions
C5-C9
Factors released from phagocytes
Polysaccharides and C3b
Polysaccharides and C3b
Activation of C3a results in
acute inflammation.
increased blood vessel permeability.
fever
attraction of phagocytes.
cell lysis.
Fever
Which of the following is NOT a result of complement fixation?
Opsonization
Immune adherence
Acute local inflammation
Activation of C3b
Cell lysis
Acute local inflammation
Bacterial enzymes such as catalase and superoxide dismutase can protect bacteria from
Phagocytic digestion
Phagocytosis
Histamine
Complement
Gamma interferon
Phagocytic digestion
Large antibodies that agglutinate antigens are
IgG.
IgM.
IgA.
IgD.
IgE.
IgM
Which of the following recognizes antigens displayed on host cells with MHC II?
Basophil
TC cell
B cell
TH cell
Natural killer cell
TH cell
In Figure 17.2, which areas are different for all IgM antibodies?
a and b
a and c
b and c
c and d
a and b
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of cellular immunity?
T cells react with antigens
B cells make antibodies
The cells originate in bone marrow
Cells are processed in the thymus gland
It can inhibit the immune system
B cells make antibodies.
The presence of which of the following indicates a current infection rather than a previous infection or vaccination?
IgA
IgG
IgM
IgE
IgD
IgM
Which of the following causes transmembrane channels in target cells?
Antigen
Hapten
IL-1
Perforin
IL-2
Perforin
In Figure 17.2, which areas are similar for all IgG antibodies?
a and b
a and c
b and c
c and d
b and d
c and d
Cytokines released by TH1 cells
Convert TH2 cells to TH1 cells
Kill parasites
Convert B cells to T cells
Activate CD8+ cells to CTLs
Convert TH1 cells to TH2 cells.
Activate CD8+ cells to CTLs
Newborns' immunity due to the transfer of antibodies across the placenta is an example of
Innate immunity
Naturally acquired active immunity
Naturally acquired passive immunity
Artificially acquired active immunity
Artificially acquired passive immunity
Naturally acquired passive immunity
Plasma cells are activated by a(n)
B cell
Memory cell
Antigen
APC
T cell
Antigen
Which of the following uses red blood cells as the indicator?
Flow cytometry
Agglutination
Complement fixation
Neutralization
Precipitation
Complement fixation
Which of the following is a test to determine the presence of soluble antigens in patient's saliva?
Neutralization reaction
Precipitation reaction
Passive agglutination reaction
Immunofluorescence
Direct agglutination reaction
Precipitation reaction
Haemophilus influenzae b capsular polysaccharide with a protein is a(n)
Nucleic acid vaccine
Toxoid vaccine
Inactivated whole-agent vaccine
Subunit vaccine
Conjugated vaccine
Conjugated vaccine
Purified protein from Bordetella pertussis is a(n)
Nucleic acid vaccine
Attenuated whole-agent vaccine
Conjugated vaccine
Toxoid vaccine
subunit vaccine
Subunit vaccine
To detect botulinum toxic in food, suspect food is injected into two guinea pigs. The guinea pig that was vaccinated against botulism survives, but the one that was not vaccinated dies. This is an example of
Hemagglutination
Fluorescent antibodies
Neutral
Neutralization
Figure 19.1 In the immune complex reaction shown in Figure 19.1, what is the structure labeled a?
Mast cell
Complement
Neutrophil
Antibody
Antigen
Antigen
Figure 19.1 In the immune complex reaction shown in Figure 19.1, what is the structure labeled b?
Antibody
Antigen
Complement
Mast cell
Neutrophil
Neutrophil
Which of the following blood transfusions are incompatible?
1 and 2
3 and 4
1,2, and 3
2,3, and 5
2 and 5
2,3, and 5
Which of the following antibiotics are used to treat fungal infections?
1. Aminoglycosides
2. Cephalosporins
3. Griseofulvin
4. Polyenes
5. Bacitracin
3, 4, and 5
1, 2, and 3
4 and 5
3 and 4
All of the antibiotics
3 and 4
Which of the following organisms would most likely be sensitive to natural penicillin?
Penicillium
L forms
Streptococcus pyogenes
Penecillinase-producing Neisseria gonorrhoea
Mycoplasma
Streptococcus pyogenes
Which of the following statements about exotoxins is generally false?
They are composed of proteins
They are more potent than endotoxins
They are not destroyed by heat
They have specific methods of action
They are produced by gram positive bacteria
They are not destroyed by heat
A commensal bacterium
Is beneficial to its host
Does not receive any benefit from its host
Does not infect its host
May be an opportunistic pathogen
B and D only
May be an opportunistic pathogen
Which of the following is NOT spread by droplet infection?
Diphtheria
Botulism
Common cold
Measles
Tuberculosis
Botulism
What type of immunity results from recovery from mumps?
Innate immunity
Naturally acquired active immunity
Naturally acquired passive immunity
Artificially acquired active immunity
Artificially acquired passive immunity
Naturally acquired active immunity
Helminthic diseases are usually transmitted to humans by
Vectors
Aerosols
Respiratory route
Gastrointestinal route
Genitourinary route
Gastrointestinal route
Amoebalike vegetative structures that produce sporangia
Euglenozoa
Tapeworm
Plasmodial slime mold
Ascomycete
Cellular slime mold
Cellular slime mold
A reaction between an antibody and soluble antigen- forming lattices is called a(n)
Precipitation reaction.
Neutralization reaction.
Immunofluorescence.
Agglutination reaction.
Complement fixation
Precipitation reaction
Plague transmitted by a flea is an example of
Vector.
Vehicle transmission.
Droplet transmission.
Fomite.
Direct contact.
Vector
Which of the following is NOT normally used in a vaccine?
Parts of bacterial cells
Inactivated viruses
Antibodies
Toxoid
Live, attenuated bacteria
Antibodies
What type of vaccine is Streptococcus pyogenes capsule?
Attenuated whole-agent vaccine Toxoid vaccine
Conjugated vaccine
Nucleic acid vaccine
Subunit vaccine
subunit vaccine
Which of the following statements about type I hypersensitivities is false?
The symptoms are due to histamine.
They are cell-mediated.
They involve IgE antibodies.
The symptoms occur soon after exposure to an
antigen.
Antibodies are bound to host cells.
They are cell-mediated.
Cercariae, metacercaria, miracidia, and rediae are stages in the life cycle of
Sporozoans.
Sarcodina.
Cestodes.
Trematodes.
Nematodes.
Trematodes
Which of the following do you expect to be most resistant to high temperatures?
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Eschericia coli
Streptococcocus pyogenes
Staphylococcus aureus
Bacillus subtilis
Bacillus subtilis
The best definition antibody is
A protein made in response to an antigen that can
combine with that antigen.
A protein that inactivates or kills an antigen.
A protein that combines with a protein or
carbohydrate.
A serum protein.
An immunoglobulin
A protein made in response to an antigen that can
combine with that antigen.
What type of immunity is NOT due to antibodies?
Innate immunity
Naturally acquired active immunity
Naturally acquired passive immunity
Artificially acquired active immunity
Artificially acquired passive immunity
Innate immunity
Poliovirus is ingested and gains access to tissues by which portal of entry?
Mucous membranes
Skin
Parenteral
All of the above
None of the above
Mucous membranes
Innate immunity is
The body's ability to ward off diseases.
Increased susceptibility to disease.
The body's defenses against any kind of pathogen.
The body's defense against a particular pathogen.
The lack of resistance.
The body's defenses against any kind of pathogen.
A viroid is
A provirus. ?????
An infectious protein
A complete, infectious virus particle. ?
A nonenveloped, infectious piece of RNA
A capsid without a nucleic acid. ??
A nonenveloped, infectious piece of RNA
A definitive host harbors which stage of a parasite?
Cyst
Miracidium
Larva
Adult
All of the above
Adult
An infectious protein is a
Viroid.
Papovavirus.
Prion.
Bacteriophage.
Retrovirus.
Prion
Which of the following is NOT a method of culturing viruses?
In laboratory animals
In embryonated?? eggs
Mucous membranes of the respiratory tract.
In cell culture
None of the above
Mucous membranes of the respiratory tract.
The most frequently used portal of entry for pathogens is the
Skin.
Mucous membranes of the respiratory tract.
Parenteral route
Mucous membranes of the gastrointestinal tract
All are used equally
Mucous membranes of the respiratory tract
Allergic contact dermatitis is due to
Activated macrophages.
IgG antibodies
Sensitized T cells.
IgE antibodies.
IgM antibodies.
Sensitized T cells.
Which of the following is NOT an effect of complement activation?
Interference with viral replication Increased phagocytic activity
Bacterial cell lysis
Increased blood vessel permeability
Opsonization
Interference with viral replication
Hypersensitivity is due to
Immunity.
The presence of an antigen.
The presence of antibodies.
Allergies.
An altered immune response.
An altered immune response.
You discovered a unicellular organism that lacks a nucleus and peptidoglycan. You suspect the organism is in the group
Bacteria.
Fungi.
Animalia.
Plantae.
Archaea.
Archaea.
Macrophages arise from which of the following?
Lymphocyte
Neutrophil
Eosinophil
Basophil
Monocyte
Monocyte
Use of antibiotics in animal feed leads to antibiotic- resistant bacteria because
A) The antibiotics kill susceptible bacteria, but the few that are naturally resistant live and reproduce, and their progeny repopulate the host animal.
B) The antibiotics c
A) The antibiotics kill susceptible bacteria, but the few that are naturally resistant live and reproduce, and their progeny repopulate the host animal.
The function of the "ciliary escalator" is to
Kill microorganisms.
Remove microorganisms from the upper respiratory
tract.
Remove microorganisms from body cavities.
Remove microorganisms from the lower respiratory
tract.
All of the above.
Remove microorganisms from the lower respiratory
tract.
What is the outstanding characteristic of the Kingdom Fungi?
A) Members absorb dissolved inorganic matter.
B) All members are microscopic.
C) All members are macroscopic.
D) All members are photosynthetic.
E) Members absorb dissolved organic matter.
E) Members absorb dissolved organic matter.
Which of the following statements about the members of the Kingdom Plantae is false?
A) They use organic carbon sources. B) They are multicellular.
C) They have eukaryotic cells.
D) They use inorganic energy sources.
E) They can photosynthesize.
A) They use organic carbon sources
Symptoms of disease differ from signs of disease in that symptoms
A) Always occur as part of a syndrome.
B) Are changes felt by the patient.
C) Are specific for a particular disease.
D) Are changes observed by the physician.
E) None of the above.
B) Are changes felt by the patient.
Which of the following arthropodsdoes NOT transmit diseases by sucking blood from a human host?
A) Houseflies
B) Lice
C) Kissing bugs
D) Fleas
E) Mosquitoes
A) Houseflies
Bacteria have siderophores that capture iron; humans counter this by
A) Iron-degrading enzymes.
B) Transferrins.
C) Interferon.
D) Toxin production.
E) Producing iron.
B) Transferrins.
Siderophores are bacterial proteins that compete with animal
A) Antibodies.
B) White blood cells.
C) Transferrin.
D) Red blood cells.
E) Receptors.
C) Transferrin.
Which of the following definitions is incorrect?
A) Secondary infection � a long-lasting illness
B) Acute � a short-lasting primary infection
C) Inapparent � infection characteristic of a carrier state
D) Chronic � a disease that develops slowly and lasts
A) Secondary infection � a long-lasting illness
Live polio virus can be used in a(n)
A) Attenuated whole-agent vaccine.
B) Conjugated vaccine.
C) Toxoid vaccine.
D) Inactivated whole-agent vaccine. E) Subunit vaccine
A) Attenuated whole-agent vaccine.
Which of the following are found primarily in the intestines of humans?
A) Gram-positive cocci
B) Gram-negative aerobic rods and cocci
C) Aerobic, helical bacteria
D) Endospore-forming rods
E) Facultatively anaerobic gram-negative rods
E) Facultatively anaerobic gram-negative rods
You have isolated a gram-positive rod. What should you do next?
A) Lactose fermentation
B) Enterotube
C) Gram stain
D) Flagella stain
E) Endospore stain
E) Endospore stain
The antibodies that can bind to large parasites are
A) IgG.
B) IgM.
C) IgA.
D) IgD.
E) IgE.
E) IgE.
Phage typing is based on the fact that
A) Staphylococcus causes infections.
B) Bacterial viruses attack specific cells.
C) Phages and bacteria are related.
D) Viruses cause disease.
E) Bacteria are destroyed by viruses.
B) Bacterial viruses attack specific cells.
In mid-December, a woman with insulin-dependent diabetes who had been on prednisone fell and received an abrasion on the dorsal side of her right hand. She was placed on penicillin. By the end of January, the ulcer had not healed, and she was referred to
A) Dimorphic fungus