Radiation is a type of Sterilization. The ______ method of Radiation sterilization uses ______ to damage the ______. Though this method is useful, it does have downfalls such as the fact that it cannot _________, but rather only works on the ________. Bec
- UV light
- UV light
- DNA
- penetrate (get inside)
- surface
- heat sensitive
- moisture sensitive
NOTE: so this method is a good method if you would like to only sterilize the outside of something.
elimination/inactivation of ALL microbes, even endospores
sterilization
reduction in the number of microbes, especially pathogens, to a safe level
disinfection
type of agent that destroys bacteria
bactericidal agent
type of agent that inhibits (slows down) bacterial growth
bacteriostatic agent
type of agent that is a disinfecting agent that can be used on living tissue
Antiseptic
reduces the growth of pathogens and cleans
sanitization
Killing all life forms present in or on an object is called ______-
sterilization
When speaking about sterilization, physical/chemical methods are more common
physical
NOTE: there are not many chemical methods that sterilize
Physical methods are much more common than chemical methods when sterilizing something. Many of these physical methods use _________. How does this component to most physical methods work?
- Heat
- heat denatures proteins and removes water
Heat is the most used physical component when we sterilize something. _______ is a liquid form of this heat. You must put whatever you are sterilizing at _______ degrees Celsius for 10 min. However, this method using heat may not always kill the__________
- Boiling
- 100 degrees Celsius
- endospores
- heat and moisture
Heat is the most used physical component when we sterilize something. ________ is a cheap and fast method using heat in the form of fire. However, it is not good for ________ goods or _______ goods that you want back.
- Direct Flame (method we use in class)
- flammable
- meltable
Heat is the most used physical component when we sterilize something. A _________ is a method, using this heat, that is good for non-heat sensitive goods that need to stay dry (ex: glassware [ex:beakers/test tubes). The tempature for this method should be
Hot air oven
The most common method of sterilization is the _________ . This method/special instrument uses a combination of the physical methods ______, ________, _______, and __________. This is our most reliable method. However, this method is not good for _______
- Autoclave
- 1) heat
2) pressure
3) steam
4) vacuum
- moisture sensitive and temperature sensitive
- turns color
- autoclave vile
- autoclave
- clear
- cloudy
The instrument that uses moist heat to sterilize is called the _______.
autoclave
__________ is the method of sterilization that works over several days (about 3 days) by _________ and then _______ using steam. This method gives time for _______ to germinate and then kills them. It is good for things that would be harmed by __________.
- Fractional Sterilization
- heating
- cooling
- endospores
- high-temperature steam
_________ is a method of controlling microbes that destroys endospores but not pathogens. This method is NOT a type of sterilization. If something is undergoing this method, the object will be _______ to kill the pathogens.
For this method, there are 2 wa
-Pasteurization
- heated
1) High temp. and short/less time
- So the higher temp you heat things the less time they have to be pasteurized
2) Low temp. and long/more time
- flavor, texture, or nutrition of food
If something is _________ pasteurized, it is heated at 150 C for less than 5 seconds
Ultra pasteurized
Ex: milk that is not refrigerated until opened has been Ultra pasteurized
Radiation is a type of Sterilization. The ______ method of Radiation Sterilization that includes things such as Xrays and Gamma Rays. This method has (high or lower?) energy and better penetration (can actually get inside the object) than UV light Radiati
- Ionizing Radiation
- higher energy
- food items
- heat and moisture sensitive
Method of sterilization that physically removes microbes.
This method uses sterile filters with different pore sizes (size of the filter depends on if you are catching bacteria or viruses.
It is good for liquids that are heat sensitive.
NOTE: you can also
Filtration
______ methods of sterilization are often only used to disinfect, not really sterilize. However, there are 2 exceptions. What are they? Explain each briefly.
- chemical (unlike physical which sterilize)
- 1) using Ethylene oxide
- used in gas autoclave
- explosive and carcinogenic (negatives)
- good penetrating ability (positives)
2) using Chlorine dioxide
- can be in either gas or liquid form
- non-toxic
- Ex
______ are often used as disinfectants. They denature proteins and dissolve _______. The negatives to this substance are that it does not _______, but rather only disinfects, and also ______ tend to be resistant.
- Alcohols
- lipids (can be in form of a cell membrane and viral envelope)
- sterilize
- endospores
EX:
- rubbing alchol (for if you got a cut or something)
- hand sanitizer (such as Purell)
A chemical disinfection method that uses ________, which are salt formers. There are 2 main types. What are they? Briefly explain each and give an example of each.
- Halogens
- 1) Chlorine
- denatures proteins and damages membranes
- Ex: bleech; water treatment
2) Iodine
- denatures proteins
- works well in a combination of alcohol and detergent
- EX: Betadine (commonly used to disinfect cuts)
A chemical disinfectant that denatures proteins and disrupts membranes. This chemical is ________ and gives off a pungent odor. However, it is an effective chemical for disinfection.
Though the chemical itself is very toxic and nasty, _______ have much lo
- Phenols (carbolic acid)
- toxic
- Phenol compounds (mixing phenol with something else)
NOTE: Phenols (because they were one of the first effective chemicals) are used to compare other disinfectants (how well does a chemical work compared to Phenol)
Disinfectant A has a phenol coefficient of 0.5; disinfectant B has a phenol coefficient of 5.0. Which one is less effective than phenol.
A (0.5)
_________ are methods of disinfection that include soaps and detergents. They work by _________, which is the physical movement of the microbes off the surface. All soap is antimicrobial. They emulsify ______, allowing dirt to be rinsed away. However, the
- surfactants
- mechanical removal
- lipids
- cell membranes
What are the 2 methods used to evaluate the effectiveness of chemical agents?
1) comparing them to the Phenol coefficient (test them on bacteria and see how they react verse how the Phenol reacts
2) Filter paper method
The Filter Paper Method:
This method works by ______ little disks of filter paper in a ________. We then get a _______ which we will place bacteria on. The filter paper will then be placed on it. We then look for ________. Bigger zones ______ a better che
- soaking
- chemical agent (disinfectant)
- agar plate
- zone of inhibition
- DO NOT equal (bigger is not better, you are just trying to see if it works at all)
- rate of diffusion AND interaction with other materials when in use
Once we determined if a disinfectant works, we then chose between our different options (there are a lot of disinfectants out there so which do we chose?). It mainly depends on how it is going to be used. What are some of the criteria? (10)
1) fast acting
2) non-toxic
3) wide spectrum
4) non-damaging to materials
5) stable
6) easy to prepare
7) stable around organics (e.g. body fluids)
8) readily available
9) inexpensive
10) no offensive odor
What idea did Paul Ehrlich come up with?
selective toxicity
what is the goal of finding a chemical that would kill microbes without harming the host (also known as a "magic bullet)
selective toxicity
developed one of the first antimicrobial theories (arsenic containing drug for syphilis [1910])
Ehrlich
developed a synthetic red dye in the lab that he discovered was effective against gram-positive bacteria (1935)
Domagk
Domagk's synthetic red dye was not effective in culture, but rather it was effective in _______. What he realized was that it was not the dye itself but rather a ___________. So, in the host, the chemical is metabolized forming a different structure known
- live animals
- metabolic byproduct
- Sulphanilamide
- Sulfa drugs (or sulphonamides)
Sulphonamides (Sulfa Drugs) work by _________ which is when a molecule binds to the active site of an enzyme. Structurally, these drugs are similar to ________ which is a precursor to folic acid (cells need folic acid to do their metabolism).
The Sulphona
- competitive inhibition
- PABA
- active site
- blocks
- folic acid
- DNA
- proteins
any chemical substance that is used in medical practice
Chemotherapeutic agent
a microbially produced substance (or synthetic derivative) with anti-microbial properties
antibiotic
drugs that are made in the lab are known as
Synthetic drugs
drugs that are part-lab made and part microbe-derived
semi-synthetics
_______ is an antibiotic that was accidentally discovered by Alexander Fleming in 1928.
Penicillin
Discovery of Penicillin by Alexander Fleming:
Fleming had some plates set up and realized that he had some ______ growing on them. It was an accident that they got contaminated, but what he noticed was that the ________ that he was trying to grow on the p
- Penicillium mold (penicillium mold makes penicillin)
- Gram-Positive bacteria
- quantities and purity
- Florey and Chain
What are the 5 general properties of Antimicrobial Agents that we would like to have? Briefly explain each.
1) Selective Toxicity
- work on the pathogen, not on healthy tissue
2) Spectrum of Activty
- Range of microbes it works on (What does it work on?)
3) Modes of Action
- How does it work?
4) Side Effects
- hopefully few
5) Resistance of microorganisms
- hop
What are the 2 characteristics of Selective Toxicity? Briefly explain each.
1) Toxic dosage level
- the level that killed pathogen but also damages host
2) Therapeutic dosage level
- the level that kills pathogen but does NOT damage the host
What are the 2 categories for spectrum of activity?
1) Broad Spectrum (works on a lot of different microbes)
2) Narrow Spectrum ( works on few microbes)
What are the 5 modes of action (ways Antimicrobial Agents work) ? Briefly explain each
1) inhibition of cell wall synthesis (especially good with gram-positive)
- stops the bacterium from making a cell wall
- causes the cell to explode and die
2) Disruption of cell membrane function
- damage the cell membrane causing the cytoplasm to leak o
What 2 modes of action (ways Antimicrobial Agents work) help us to better distinguish between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?
1) inhibition of cell wall synthesis
2) Inhibition of protein synthesis
NOTE: this is because cell wall synthesis and protein synthesis are different in prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells
a substance that is produced by one life form which inhibits the growth of another
antibiotic
Kind of drug side effect that harms the patient
Toxicity
Kind of drug side effect that provokes an immune response that can be mild or severe
Allergy
NOTE:
mild = rash
severe = anaphylactic shock
Kind of drug side effect that kills the "good" as well as the "bad" bacteria leading to opportunistic infection or superinfection
Microflora disruption
type of infection when normally "good" microflora get out of control
opportunistic infection
type of infection when there is an invasion by replacement Microflora (bad come in to replace the good)
superinfection
Kind of drug side effect when microorganism's (bacteria) do not accept a drug
resistance
NOTE: antibiotic use DOES NOT make bacteria resistant, but rather just selects for those that already are resistant
How do microorganisms become (acquire) resistant to a drug? Explain each. (3)
1) Mutation
- usually a rare point mutation to drug binding site/receptor (drug cannot bind)
- mutants can outgrow the wild-type (non-mutants) under exposure to antibiotics [if you take an antibiotic you will allow the mutants to outgrow the wild-type
- m
mechanism of resistance when bacteria become resistant because they can evolve changes in drug targets (where the drug is supposed to go, it can no longer go there)
Altered Target
mechanism of resistance that prevents drugs from entering the cytoplasm or pumps the drug out of the cytoplasm (doesn't let it in and if it does get in it pumps it out right away)
Altered Membrane Permeability
mechanism of resistance when bacteria sometimes evolve the ability to enzymatically inactivate the antibiotic (a new enzyme is produced which breaks down the antibiotics)
NOTE: usually will end is "ases"
EX: penicillinases
Novel Enzyme Activity
mechanism of resistance when the bacterial enzyme changes so the antibiotic can no longer bond
Enzyme Affinity Alteration
mechanism of resistance when the reaction that is inhibited by the antibiotic is bypassed (if it is suppose to enter a specific metabolic pathway, it will simply just go around it)
New Metabolic Capabilities
6 main causes of the Spread of Drug resistance:
1). _____________ antibiotic doses allow resistant strains to overgrow susceptible ones. If a resistant strain spreads to other patients in a hospital, a ________ occurs.
2). _________ use of antibiotics can
1) - Unnecessarily large antibiotic doses
- superinfection
2) - over the counter use
3) livestock feeds (about 70% of antibiotics produced in the US are used on livestock
4) - bacterial conjunction (when bacteria get DNA from each other by getting very cl
Method of determining microbial drug sensitivity (what an antibiotic will work on) where we cover our Petri plate with bacteria all over and then take a little bit of filter paper that is soaked in the antibiotic and then placed on the Petri plate with yo
Disk Diffusion (or Kirby-Bauer) Method
Methods of determining microbial drug sensitivity (what an antibiotic will work on) that are sped up (results in a few hours or overnight.
It is useful for a more rapid diagnosis
Automated Methods
Attrutibues of an Ideal Antimicrobial agent (8)
1) solubility in body fluids (something you can take in pill form and digest)
2) selective toxicity (harms the pathogen but not host)
3) toxicity not easily altered (something that is not toxic in one form but is in another)
4) non-allergenic
5) tissue co
_________ is one of the Inhibitors of cell wall synthesis that have a beta-lactam ring. They disrupt cross-linking of ___________ during synthesis. They work by weakening the ________, allowing ______ to enter causing the cell to burst. They also work by
- beta-lactam antibiotics
- peptidoglycans
- cell wall
- water
- breakdown
The beta-lactam antibiotic that works on gram-positive bacteria, cannot be taken orally (has to be an injection), and can cause allergic reactions (many people are allergic).
there can also be resistance to this antibiotic. Some bacteria produce ________
- Penicillin G
- penicillinase
-The beta-lactam antibiotic that is a semi-synthetic penicillin that works on both gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria. Its is acid-stable (meaning it can be taken orally)
- The beta-lactam antibiotic that is a semi-synthetic penicillin that works on
- Ampicillin
- Amoxicillin
The beta-lactam antibiotic that have a very broad specificity (broad group of gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria). It is very resistant to penicillinases and can be used if allergic to penicillin. It originally came from a marine fungus.
Cephalosporins
one of the Inhibitors of cell wall synthesis that acts of the lipids that transport peptidoglycan. It is used topically (on skin) (can cause kidney damage if taken internally)
Bacitracin
one of the Inhibitors of cell wall synthesis that only inhibits the cell wall synthesis of streptococci and staphylococci bacteria (very narrow spectrum)
Vancomycin
EX: MRSA
Disrupter of the cell membrane that works by disrupting phospholipids (makeup majority of the cell membrane) causing cell leakage. Works on Gram-negative bacteria only. It is for topical use (skin) only. It may be a drug of last resort for Pseudomonas inf
Polymixins
Disrupter of the cell membrane that works only on gram-positive bacteria. Its lipophilic tail inserts in the cell membrane causing rapid depolarization and the release of potassium ions causing the cell to die. With all of this happening, DNA and protein
Daptomycin
In general, inhibitors of protein synthesis tend to have a broad spectrum because they particularly target the ________.
Prokaryote ribosomes (smaller than eukaryotic)
inhibitor of protein synthesis that was the first gram-negative (1943) antibiotic. It is especially good against TB
Streptomycin
The inhibitor of protein synthesis known as Streptomycin acts as ______ by binding to the ribosomes and preventing subunit joining. Some disadvantages of Streptomycin is that it can cause_______ and _______ damage. It is typically best used for short term
- Aminoglycoside
- kidney
- auditory nerve (deafness)
inhibitor of protein synthesis that binds to ribosomes preventing tRNA (transfer RNA) from binding. It tends to be bacteriostatic meaning that it slows down the growth without killing them. It is VERY broad spectrum and can be taken orally so it can be ve
Tetracyclines
inhibitor of protein synthesis that is in the Macrolide group of antibiotics. It binds to ribosome subunits preventing chain elongation (prevents the amino acids from coming together). It works on gram-positive cells because it cannot get into gram-negati
Erythromycin
inhibitor of protein synthesis that binds to ribosome subunits preventing peptide bond formation. It has a broad spectrum and can have serve side effects.
Name the 2 serene side effects and what they do.
Chloramphenicol
1) Aplastic Anemia
- interferes with RBC formation
2) Gray Syndrome
- accumulates in blood of newborns and damages their circulatory system
inhibitor of nucleic acid synthesis that inhibits RNA polymerase (the enzyme that converts DNA into RNA) preventing mRNA (massager RNA) from being produced. An advantage of this inhibitor is that it likes the bacterial RNA polymerase better than eukaryoti
Rifamycins
EX: rifampicin
inhibitor of nucleic acid synthesis that is synthetic and inhibits DNA gyrase (the enzyme that helps unwind and loosen up DNA)
NOTE: without DNA gyrase your DNA will get tightly bound together so you cannot replicate the cells
Quinolones
EX: ciprofloxacin
Antimetabolite that is a competitive inhibitor of folic acid synthesis enzyme
sulfonamides
Type of Antibacterial Agent that is used against bacterial infections.
Bacteriophage
using Bacteriophages against bacterial infections is known as ________. An advantage of this these Bacteriophages are ______ to bacteria meaning they do not attack eukaryote cells but rather only specific bacteria. They are used commonly in _________.
- phage therapy
- specific
- Eastern Europe
Antifungals are _________, so drugs that damage fungi are likely to damage us too. However, the one difference is that in the fungal cell membranes there is _______ located inside rather than cholesterol.
- eukaryotic
- ergosterol
Antifungal that binds to ergosterol, disrupting membranes. Side effects of this anti fungal include headache, muscle pain, and nausea.
Polyene antibiotics
What are the 3 main synthetic antifunals? What does each do?
1) imidazoles
- inhibit ergosterol synthesis; used for topical use
2) triazoles
- inhibit ergosterol synthesis; used for topical use
3) echinocandins
- block cell wall synthesis
Antifungal that is produced by Penicillium. It interferes with mitotic spindle formation. It is taken orally for cutaneous infections (ex: athletes foot)
Griseofulvin
Antifungal that acts like nucleotide cytosine. The cell looks at this anti fungal and thinks it is cytosine so it trys to put it in its RNA. However, once it is incorporated into the RNA, the RNA begins to not function properly. It is used for systemic in
Flucytosine
True or false:
Antibiotics work on viral infections
FALSE
Antibiotics DO NOT work on viral infections
Why do antibiotics not work on viruses?
because viruses lack the elements which antibiotics interfere
EX:
penicillin works to prevent bacteria from building new cell walls; viruses do not have cell walls
Most anti-virals affect some aspect of replication. Name the 3 main types of replication they affect.
1) Viral penetration/ uncoating (getting into the cell)
2) genome replication (getting the host cell to make new viruses)
3) maturation/release (putting the viruses together and releasing them from the host cell)
Antiviral that substitutes for nucleotides in the replicating DNA strands. They block replication of the viral genome.
Base Analogs (basically fake DNA)
Antivirals that prevent the synthesis of DNA in retroviruses
Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitors
Antivirals that puts the finishing touches on capsid construction.
Protease inhibitors
Antivirals that inhibit incorporation of viral DNA into the human genome
Integrase inhibitors
Antiviral that blocks an enzyme in the spike of influenza viruses, preventing the release of new viruses
Neuraminidase inhibitiors
Antiviral that prevents fusion of the virus to the target cell
Fusion inhibitors
Antivirals that are naturally produced proteins (our cells make them) that alert uninfected cells of a viral infection.
These uninfected cells can inhibit viral replication by preventing protein synthesis. These antivirals bind to receptors on cells, trig
Interferon (IFN)
Anti-protozoan drugs are eukaryotic or prokaryotic?
eukaryotic
Because Anti-protozoan drugs are eukaryotic, this causes potential threats because we do not want the host (human) to have harm. However, one thing that can work with Anti-protozoan drugs is that...
Protozoans and bacteria can make their own folic acid and humans cannot.
_______ and ________ inhibit folic acid synthesis
sulfonamides and primethamine
Anti-protozoan drug that prevents plasmodium from breaking down hemoglobin in RBC's. They also disrupt the parasite cell's membrane
Chloroquine
Anti-protozoan drug that inhibits nucleic acid synthesis in protozoa and some bacteria. Side effects of this drug include hairy black tongue
Metronidazole (flagyl)
Anti-helminthic drug that works on tapeworms and causes lactic acid poisoning
Niclosamide
Anti-helminthic drug that works on roundworms. It blocks glucose uptake and is harmful to a fetus.
Medendazole (vermox)
Anti-helminthic drug that works on roundworms, including heart worm and river blindness. It causes an imbalance in Cl- uptake. Can lead to muscle paralysis
Ivermectin
the long term relationship/association between organisms were at least one partner benefits
Symbiosis
What are the 3 types of Symbiosis (Host-Microbe Relationships)?
1) parasitism
2) commensalism
3) mutualism
Host-Microbe Relationship when one partner lives in or on another, dividing nutrition from the host (+,-)
parasitism
Host-Microbe Relationship when one partner benefits and the other is unaffected (+,0)
commensalism
Host-Microbe Relationship when both partners benefit or are even dependent on each other (+,+)
mutualism
An order for a microbe to cause a disease, what 4 steps have to occur?
1) transmit disease to host (has to get where it needs/wants to go)
2) Invade host (attach or colonize)
3) replicate/live in host while avoiding defenses the host can have
4) cause damage to the host
type of transmission method that is a direct person to person contact.
EX: sneezing, coughing, sexual contact, skin contact, mother to fetus
Direct Transmission
NOTE: this is how viruses like the flu spread syphills spread
type of transmission method that requires an intermediate
EX: towels, utensils, needles, flies, ticks, pets, etc.
Intermediate Transmission
What are the 2 types of intermediate things that are involved in Intermediate Transmission? give examples of each
1) Fomite (inanimate object)
- towel, needle, utensil
2) Vector (living intermediate)
- fly, tick, pets
In transmission, this is something that is used by both the host and the pathogen. It is something that allows a pathogen to persist outside the human host. It is basically where the pathogen is stored when not in a human host.
It can be living (Ebola in
Reservoir
The bolded words below are the reservoirs to the pathogens:
It can be living (Ebola in bats/primates) or non-living (cholera in water)
type of transmission method when dust or droplets travel a distance to the host
Airborne Transmission
True or False:
Pathogens can be transmitted via contaminated food and water
TRUE
When speaking of diseases, when someone with disease sneezes on you, why is it not necessarily true that you will for sure get sick?
because microbes must overcome physical and chemical barriers that the host has when trying to attach and colonize inside the host
What are some types of barriers that us as hosts have to protect us from pathogens?
1) Skin (best barrier)
2) Mucous membranes
Skin barrier:
The skin is a physical barrier that protects us from pathogens. Our skin has thick layers of ________ cells. Also, we shed our ________ on a regular basis so anything that lands on our skin might sloth off the skin when we shed. Another thin
- keratinized (tough and dry so not many pathogens enjoy the skin)
- epidermis
- acidic (5-6)
- sodium
- microflora
The mucous membrane in the ______, ______, ______, and the ________. All of these areas are entranceways into the body and they are all moist areas making them hotspots for pathogens. However, we have physical and chemical barriers to protect these areas.
- GI tract
- respiratory tract
- urogenital tract
- eyes
- cilia
- mucous
-acidic
- lysozymes
the route pathogens take to get in their host is know as...
Portals of entry
IMPORTANT NOTE:
these entries could be our mucous membranes, a break in our skin, orally, a break in the placenta, etc.
After pathogens get into the body past our natural defenses, they must get past more defenses because typically after a pathogen gets in, it has to penetrate the host cells. To help them , pathogens make a few things to help enhance their penetration, and
spreading factors (help pathogens get into the host cells)
What are the 3 types of spreading factors?
1) Hyaluronidase
2) Coagulase
3) Streptokinase
spreading factor that breaks down the hyaluronic acid that holds the cell together allowing the pathogens a channel to spread easier
Hyaluronidase
spreading factor that speeds clotting to allow pathogens to coat themselves in all of the clotting proteins (allowing them to hide in our clotting proteins protecting them from our immune system).
Coagulase
spreading factor that dissolves clots, allowing them them to spread to other tissues
Streptokinase
cell surface molecules/structures that pathogens use to stick to cells such as capsules and pilli
adhesions
NOTE: most can only bind to certain cells with appropriate receptors
The ability to produce disease is a microbe's ________
pathogenicity
Once a pathogen gets in and gets past the host's defenses, has spread throughout the host, and has attached to where it wants to go, the pathogen ________.
damages the host
name the following way a host can be damaged by a pathogen:
a host can be damaged by a pathogen when metabolites (which are produced by metabolism) damage the host cell
the production of bacterial toxins
What are the 4 types fo bacterial toxins?
1) Exotoxins
2) Endotoxins
3) Superantigens
4) Siderophores
Type of bacterial toxin that is produced mostly by gram positive bacteria. They are released from living bacteria and then transported throughout the host. Some of these are really really toxic even at low doses.
Ex: botulism toxin (the most toxic substan
Exotoxins
Type of Exotoxins that affect the nervous system
neurotoxins
Type of Exotoxins that are Exotoxins that are released into our intestines. They cause the epithelium to release water that produces diarrhea (the diarrhea will be released from the body helping the pathogen spread to a new host).
EX: Chlora
Enterotoxins
Type of Exotoxins that kill/damage the host cells.
Ex: diphtheriaeria toxin blocks protein synthesis in host cells
Cytotoxins
Cytotoxins are a type of Exotoxin that kill/damage the host cells. What are the 2 types of Cytotoxins and what do they damage specifically?
1) Leukocidins (kill WBC's)
2) Hemolysins (lyse RBC's)
Some Exotoxins are able to stimulate the immune system. These exotoxins can be known as __________. If these toxins are stimulated the immune system, then the immune system will produce ______ that will neutralize those toxins
- immunogenic
- antitoxins
a toxin that has been altered to be nontoxic, but is immunogenic
Toxoid
Ex: tetanus vaccine
Type of bacterial toxin that is released when bacterium lyses (dies). They are typically from the outer layer of gram-negative bacteria. They cause WBC's to release cytokines.
Endotoxins
Endotoxins cause WBC's to release cytokines which causes what?
Inflammation, fever, hemorrhages, septic shock, and possibly even death
True or False:
Endotoxins are weakly immunogenic
TRUE
NOTE: so they are not very good to make vaccines out of because they do not stimulate or immune system
Because Endotoxins are released when the cell dies, when you take an antibiotic to kill bacterial cells, it...
releases more endotoxins
Type of bacterial toxin that are bacterial proteins that produce septic shock. This sepic shock comes from the overproduction of ______.
- Superantigens
- cytokines (causes diarrhea, vomiting, and shock)
Type of bacterial toxin that are molecules with high affinity for Fe Ions (they want to gobble up all of the Iron). Because the host can sequester (keep away from pathogens) the Iron, these toxins strip the iron from the host cells
EX: they will pull the
Siderophores
What are the 5 diseases stages in order? Briefly describe each.
1) Incubation period
- the time from infection (exposure) to when you start showing symptoms
2) Prodromal phase
- when the symptoms are mild but progressing
3) Invasive (Disease) phase
- when the symptoms are greatest (the peak)
4) Decline phase
- when th
multiplication of any parasite within or on the hosts body
infection
a continually present, but at low numbers and impact disease in the population
Endemic
a higher than normal number and high mortality rate, regional disease in the population
Epidemic
a worldwide epidemic
pandemic
an unpredictable, low impact disease in the population
sporadic
a sudden increase in a small geographic region disease in the population
Outbreak
a common skin microbe that can cause skin infections such as pimples and boils
S. aureus (staphylococcus)
Some strains of S. aureus (skin microbe) produce an _______ that is going to be released from the bacterial cell causing the upper layers of the skin too _______, which is known as _______ syndrome.
Another strain of S. aureus is _________ which is multpl
- exotoxin
- peel off
- scalded skin syndrome (common in infants)
- MRSA
A bacterial skin disease that is responsible for strep throat and Scarlet fever (If the strep throat is left untreated it can progress to scarlet fever).
This skin disease releases an erythrogenic (erythro = red) exotoxin that damages __________, causing
-Streptococcus pyogenes
*NOTE: "pyo" = fire; "genes" = to form/generate
- capillaries
80% of deaths in burn patients are caused by secondary __________ infections. These infections are usually ________, meaning they are hospital acquired.
- bacterial infections
- nosocomial
What are the 2 most common bacteria found in burn infections?
NOTE: Both of these strains of bacteria are gram-negative and are very resistant to antibiotics making them hard to treat
1) Pseudomonas aeruginosa (prime cause of these infections)
2) Serratia marcescens
A viral skin infection that can cause a flat pink rash, and also joint pain in adults (usually mild). It can cross the placenta and damage the fetus. It is transmitted via nasal secretions.
NOTE: can be prevented by MMR vaccine
Rubella
A viral skin infection that is highly contagious through respiratory droplets. It causes a raised rash, fever, and Koplick's spots inside the cheeks. In serve cases, it can invade lungs, the kidney, and the brain (which can all be fatal).
NOTE: can be pre
Rubeola (Measles)
What is the mildest of the skin-rash producing viral diseases that we discussed in class?
German Measles (rubella)
what virus causes chickenpox and Shingles?
NOTE: there is a vaccine for both
Varicella-zoster virus (VZV)
Type of Herpes virus that is transmitted via respiratory droplets (sneezing and coughing). This virus causes fluid-filled lesions (short of like blisters) and in most cases is not too harmful. However, in serious cases it can damage blood vessels in the l
Chickenpox
NOTE: usually in younger children
Type of Herpes virus that is caused from previous exposure to the Varicella-zoster virus. It comes from the VZV (which is latent [hangs out] near the spinal cord) reactivating. It causes painful lesions and can cause damage to internal organs.
Shingles
NOTE: more of an older people's disease
A viral pox disease that is caused by a large, enveloped DNA virus. It causes dimpled blisters on the skin that scar (scars known as pocks).
smallpox
NOTE: firmly 80% of children died from this disease before Edward Jenner developed a vaccine from Cowpox blisters.
The first and only disease to be eradicated from the general population
smallpox
Virus of the skin that causes genital and/or dermal warts. It is transmitted by direct contact or fomites (inanimate objects). Some strains are associated with cervical, anal, and penile cancers.
NOTE: there is a vaccine available
Human Papilloma Virus (HPV)
Fungal skin diseases are also known as...
Dermatomycoses
Fungal skin disease that is caused by dermatophyte fungi. It is transmitted by spores, and these spores can almost be transported by anything (pets, fomites [towels, showers, exercise mats).
Symptoms include blister-like lesions with fluid discharge. As t
Ringworm
What is the name of ringworm when it is located on the skin, hair, and nails?
Tinea
Exs: ringworm, athletes foot, and jock itch
________ is an opportunistic mycoses fungal infection that is caused by Candida albicans. These Candida albicans can grow out of control if a person has a compromised ___________ or if your ________ change.
- Candidiasis
- immune system
- microbial populations
Form of the fungal infection Candidiasis when a person experiences itching, burning, reddening, swelling, and a cheesy white discharge. It can be transmitted sexually.
This form usually becomes present from antibiotic use, IUD use, pregnancy, tight-fittin
Vulvovaginitis (yeast infection)
What are the 2 common forms of the fungal infection Candidiasis?
1) Vulvovaginitis (yeast infection)
2) Oral Candidiasis (thrush)
Form of the fungal infection Candidiasis that is transmitted either by newborns from the mother's vaginal tract or by fomites (inanimate objects). Symptoms include curd-like growth on the mucous membranes of the mouth.
Treatment = oral wash
Oral Candidiasis (thrush)
NOTE: it may be an early sign of immunosuppression due to AIDS
Bacterial eye disease that is caused by various bacterial species. It causes crusty eye lids, especially upon waking. It is very contagious especially among children and fomites (towels, pillow, etc.) . It is usually self-limiting but topical antibiotics
Bacterial conjunctivitis (pink eye)
Viral eye disease that is caused by HSV-1. It can have repeated occurrences, especially from UV and stress. It causes swelling, redness, watering of the eye, blurry vision, and corneal damage.
Ocular Herpes
Parasitic eye disease that causes river blindness (causes blindness usually to people who live by the river)
Onchocerciasis
Why does River blindness cause blindness to people who usually live by a river?
because this is where black flies (vector) transmit roundworm larvae to humans by bitting them.
Parasitic eye disease that is caused by the eye worm Loa Loa. It is transmitted when the deer fly (vector) transmits the roundworm to humans by biting them (juvenile worms usually travel through the bloodstream while adults often crawl across the eye)
NOT
Loaiasis
a wound infection that is caused by Clostridium Species which are obligate anaerobes (do not grow in the presence of oxygen). You get this infection from a deep puncture wound or from other anaerobic tissues.
When the Clostridium gets into the wound, it i
Gas Gangrene
A disease from arthropod bites that releases toxins (from the saliva of the arthropod), that can cause temporary paralysis, starting with numb tingling sensations.
Treatment = removing the tick --> no more tick saliva --> recovery
Humans, livestock, and p
Tick paralysis
a bacterial urogenital infection that is very common, and also not necessarily sexually transmitted. You get it from a variety of bacteria (such as e. Coli).
Causes of this infection include poor hygiene, change in microflora (ex: taking antibiotics), nos
Urinary Track Infections (UTI)
NOTE: more common in females than male
a bacterial urogenital infection that is an opportunistic infection from microflora disruption. The bacteria, such as Gardnerella Vaginalis, get out of control when it interacts with anaerobic bacteria when vaginal pH is more basic (between 4-6).
Bacterial Vaginitis
a bacterial urogenital infection that is caused by S. aureus (streptococcus). It causes fever, rash, vomiting, diarrhea, dizziness, and low BP.
NOTE: males and non-menstruating females are susceptible to it
Toxic shock syndrome
NOTE: sudden rise in cases in the early 1800's due (mostly) to superabundant tampons
the most common cause of bacterial vaginitis is...
Gardneralla
Parasitic Urogenital Disease that affects both males and females. It is usually sexually transmitted, but you can also get it from toilet seats and sheets. In females, there is usually an itchy white discharge. Males on the other hand are almost always ay
Trichomoniasis
a bacterial sexually transmitted disease (STD) that is caused by the bacteria Neisseria gonorrheae. It is a gram-negative diplococcus.
Symptoms include pain, during urination, discharge from penis/vagina. Males are more likely to have symptoms the females
Gonorreha (also known as "the clap" or "the drip
a bacterial sexually transmitted disease (STD) caused by the bacteria Treponema palladium (a Spirochete). This bacteria enters through the skin.
Syphilis "great pox
Explain the disease progression (untreated) of Syphilis "great pox" [6]
1) After being introduced to the virus, there is an incubation period for a couple of weeks (2-6 weeks)
2) about 3 weeks after infection you develop primary syphilis (lesions from this stage heal after 3-6 weeks making people think they are healed)
3) If
stage of syphilis also know as the "Great Imitator" because it affects numerous organs, causing symptoms ms that mimic other diseases
Tertiary Syphilis
After about _____ weeks after you develop Syphilis "great pox", you develop primary Syphilis. primary Syphilis is characterized by a _______ at the site of entry. Aside from outside the body, it can also be found internally in places such as the _______.
- 3
- lesion (called the chancre) [painless]
- cervix (not visible without getting checkup)
- 3 to 6 weeks
________ is the type of Syphisis when the bacteria are passed to the fetus in utero. This type causes something called __________ on the fetus which consists of keratitis (coronea inflammation), malformed teeth, and nerve deafness
- Congenital syphilis
- Hutchinsons triad
bacterial STD that is caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. It includes symptoms similar to Gonorrhea but milder (pain, itching, discharge). 80% of women and 10% of men are asymptomatic. It can result in pelvic flammatory disease and also sterility. It can als
Nongonococcal urethritis (NGU)
What are the 2 types of Herpes Simplex Viruses?
1) HSV-1 (cold sores)
2) HSV-2 (genital herpes)
NOTE: can be asymptomatic with these virsues, but if you have an active lesion (cold sore or herpes), they will shed and go away.
NOTE: virus can become dormant and reactivate in response to UV light, stress
What makes up the upper respiratory system? (5)
1) Nasal cavity
2) sinuses
3) pharynx
4) trachea
5) bronchi
What makes up the lower respiratory system? (3)
1) Bronchioles
2) alveoli
3) lungs
Bacterial Upper Respiratory Disease that is caused by streptococcus pyogenes. It causes sore red throat, fever, chills, tender tonsils
NOTE: you can get a rapid throat test to check if you have it
Streptococcal pharyngitis ("strep throat")
Bacterial Upper Respiratory Disease that is caused by the bacteria corynebacterium diptheriae. The damage from this disease is done by a toxin that damages epitheial cells, leading to a response from WBC's and fibrin (protein) to form a wall called a pseu
Diptheria
a person suffering from Diptheria have their airway blocked by what?
a pseudomembrane
Viral Upper Respiratory Infection that is caused by a number of different viruses (most commonly Rhinovirus & coronavirus). Symptoms include sneezing, cough, sore throat, headache, and malaise (feeling bad). It is most often spread by fomites
NOTE: sympto
common cold
Bacterial Lower Respiratory Disease that is caused by the bacteria Bordetella pertussis. It is more common in infants and children. It leads to characteritc cough when airways are blocked and strained when inhaled
NOTE: can be prevented with DTaP vaccine
Whooping cough (Pertussis)
Bacterial Lower Respiratory Disease that causes inflammation of lung tissue. It can be caused by a variety of microbes. Symptoms include high fever, cough, chills, chest pain, and bloody sputum (what you hack up when you cough)
NOTE: vaccines available
Pneumonia
Bacterial Lower Respiratory Disease that is caused by the bacteria Legionella pneumophila (obligate intercellular parasite of certain amoebas). It is transmitted to humans by the amoebas when we inhale them from water sources such as hot tubs, AC, and fou
Legionnaires' disease
Bacterial Lower Respiratory Disease that is transmitted via respiratory droplets and causes damage to the lungs (tubercules) which can be visablely seen in an X-ray. It is caused by the bacterium Mycobacterium tuberculosis. It grows very slowly (doubling
Tuberculosis
Viral Lower Respiratory Disease that is transmitted by inhaling respiratory droplets. It destroys the respiratory epithelial cells which puts you at risk for secondary bacterial infections (greatest risk of mortality from this disease). Symptoms of this d
Influenza
The Influenzas virus is a _______ virus (has a membrane surrounding it. It is antisense single-stranded _______ with 2 types of spikes which include ______ spikes and ______ spikes
- enveloped
- RNA
- Hemagglutinin (H) spikes
- Neuraminidase (N) spikes
What are the 2 types of spikes that influenza virus structure has? What does each do?
1) Hemagglutinin (H) spikes
- helps virus attach and fuse with host cell
2) Neuraminidase (N) spikes
- helps release virus from host cell
There are many vaccines that you do not have to get every year while there are some like influenza that you DO have to get every year. This is because, in viruses like influenza, Viral antigens change frequently by 2 processes. What are they? Explain each
1) Antigenic drift
- change in H and N proteins so we get new ones every year (relatively small changes)
2) Antigenic shift
- large changes that come about from recombination possibly from different sources (horses, pigs, etc.)
Treatment for the influenza
aspirin, rest, fluids, acetaminophen
ALSO, antivirals shorten the duration (get better quicker), reducing the chance of complications
Viral Lower Respiratory Disease that is caused by the SARS-CoV virus (Cov stands for coronavirus). It was first ID in 2002. It was recognized as a Zoonosis (means it was transferred from animals to humans). We suspect it came from a civet cat. Symptoms in
Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome (SARS)
Viral Lower Respiratory Disease that can be carried by bats and camels. it has similar symptoms to SARS (dry cough, fever, and aches). It has a very high mortality rate at about 60%. It is a type of coronavirus.
Middle Eastern Respiratory Syndrome (MERS)
Viral Lower Respiratory Disease that is caused by a virus known as the Sin Nombre virus. It is contracted by inhaling dried rodent urine and feces. It has a high mortality rate of about 60%. The symptoms are flu like symptoms.
Hantavirus Pulmonary Syndrome
Fungal Respiratory Disease that is caused by the fungus Histoplasma capsulatum. It is contracted/transmitted by inhaling spores. It is found in dry dusty soil, chicken coops, and bat caves. The symptoms include flu-like symptoms that are mild. People usua
Histoplasmosis
fungal respiratory disease that is caused by the fungus Pneumnocystis jiroveci. It is the most common nonbacterial pneumonia in immunocompromised individuals and the most common opportunistic infection in people with AID/HIV.
NOTE: it can be fatal once it
Pneumocystis pneumonia (PCP)
Scientists have not yet developed a vaccine for which disease ...
SARS