Virulence factors that contribute to the pathogenicity of S. aureus is causing impetigo include:
coagulase, exfoliative toxin, staphylokinase, hyaluronidase
Chickenpox is transmitted via __________ droplets and __________ from active skin lesions
respiratory and fluid
The smallpox rash begins in the __________ spreads to the ________, and progresses to the __________
pharynx, face, and extremities
Which of the following types of organisms are the most frequent cause of conjunctivites?
viruses and bacteria
The cause agent of ocular trachoma is _______ ________
chlamydia trachomatis
Measles is caused by a member of the _________ genus
morbillivirus
Despite availability of a vaccine, measles still causes many deaths worldwide. This is due to:
crowded populations, subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE), and low levels of herd immunity
Which of the following is a potentially fetal clastridial infection of soft tissue or wounds?
gas gangrene
All of the following are typical signs and symptoms of chickenpox except:
deep lesions and centrifugal lesions
Acne is considered to be any type of infection associated with ________ in the skin
follicles
Deep wound and decubitus ulcers can predispore a person to _____ _______
gas gangrene
___________ __________ is a poxvirus disease that manifests itself as skin lesions that have a similar appearance to warts and is common in children
molluscum contagiosum
Put the events seen during smallpox infection in the correct order of appearance:
1. high fever and malaise
2. rash in the mouth with severe abdominal and back pain
3. lesions in the mouth and throat
4. rash appears on skin and spreads to the body
5. pustules enlarge and fill with thick fluid
6. pustules scab over and eventually fall o
Which of the following are the general signs and symptoms of ringworm infections?
itchiness and skin/ nail lesions
Cutaneous anthrax is caused by the species Bacillus _________
anthracis
Along with exofaliative toxins A & B, staphylococcus aureus produces ______, __________, ___________, _____________, catalase and a nuclease, which are enzymes that are important virulence factors in causing impetigo
coagulase, hyaluronidase, staphylokinase, and lipase
The treatment for smallpox is:
there is not treatment
Which of the following methods are often used to determine the causative agent in dermatophyte infections?
microscopic examination, KOH staining, clinical presentation and culturing
Benign growths in squamous or mucous membranes are also known as _________
papillamas
Which of the following are maculopapul or disease?
rubella, fifth disease, measles, Roseola, and scarlet fever
The MMR vaccine immunizes a person against which three diseases?
mumps, rubella, and measles
Another term for shingles is ________ ______
herpes zoster
_____ ______ is a chronic parasitic eye infection by the worm Onchocerca volvulus
River blindness
Edward Jenner noticed that milkmaids who had contracted ______ seemed to be unaffected by exposure to smallpox.
cowpox
The only way to truly prevent dermatophyte infections is to:
avoid contact with pathogens
Which of the following are signs/symptoms seen in SSSS?
desquamation, split in the skin within epidermis, redness, fever, large blisters, and bullous lession
The exotoxin that is most potent in C. perfringens infection is _______ toxin
alpha
A large pustular lesion is caused by protozoa and transmitted by sand flies is _______
leishmaniasis
The MMR vaccine immunizes a person against which tree diseases?
measles, mumps, and rubella
________ is a serious eye infection of the deeper tissues of the eye that can be caused by only organism and often follows trauma to the eye.
keratitis
What is the term used for the skin and its accessory structures, such as the glands, hair, and nails?
integument
The most common age group to experience SSSS infections are ________
newborns
Impetigo is transmitted by:
formites and direct contact
An infection of the thin membrane-like covering of the eyeball is called _______
conjunctivitis
Which of the following factors can promote dermatophyte infection?
abrasions, fungal spores, poor hygiene, and intimate contact
Which is the only current prevention method for impetigo?
good hygiene
Smallpox is transmitted through:
droplets and fomites
The nucleic acid of rubella is:
single-stranded RNA
Which of the following describe the colony and favored growth conditions of S. aureus?
10-46 degrees Celsius, facultative anaerobes, large round, opaque
True or False: The eye has a rich microbial flora
False
The chickenpox vaccine contains a _________ ______ strain of the varicella zoster virus
attenuated live
True or False: Good hygiene and the proper diet can prevent acne
False
The causative agent for Fifth disease is _____ _____
panvovirus B19
Giant cells with many nuclei that result from the fusion of adjacent cells are called ________
syncytia
Normal microbiota are able to withstand the _________ environment of the skin
dry and salty
Symptoms such as pain, tenderness, swelling, fever, and lymphangitis are characteristic of _______
cellulitis
Which of the following is not a common symptom of conjunctivitis?
corneal lesions and sharp pain
Which of the following is the most effective way to prevent gas gangrene?
wound care
All of the following are symptoms of gas gangrene except:
bullous lesions
Which of the following are not initial signs or symptoms of measles?
slapped-face" rash, vomiting/diarrhea, febrile seizures, blisters in throat
_______ is a gram-positive streptococcus in the Lancefield group A that causes impetigo
s. pyogenes
Which skin regions are usually involved in cellulitis?
dermis and subcutaneous tissue
Which of the following is considered in the epidemiology of acne?
which people groups have factors that result in acne
________ and _______ both present as generalized rashes with fluid-filled lesions
chickenpox and smallpox
The variola virus causes _______
smallpox
After an initial infection with chickenpox, the varicella zoster virus can enter the sensory nerves and travel to the ________ where it can remain latent and protected from the immune system
ganglia
Any agent that causes abnormal development to the developing fetus is referred to as a (n) ________ agent
teratogenic
Which of the following is not a common mode of transmission of dermatophyte infections?
aerosolized droplets, sexual contact, arthropod vectors
What organism is mainly associated with acne?
propionibacterium acnes
Which of the following is the main way to prevent conjunctivitis?
good hygiene
How is the rubella virus spread from person to person?
urine and respiratory secretions
The main mode of transmission for measles is:
respiratory droplets
The MMR vaccine prevents:
measles, rubella, mumps
Postnatal rubella is differentiated from other forms of rubella disease by:
mild rash lasting a few days
Topical application of __________ is used in the treatment of impetigo
mupirocin
Which components of S. pyogenes allow it to adhere to host tissue?
lipoteichoic acid (LTA), M proteins and capsule
The alternative name for rubella is _______ ______
German measles
The organisms __________ aureus and streptococcus _______ cause impetigo
staphylococcus and pyogenes
_____ ______ is a respiratory infection usually caused by S. pyogenes that also produces a red rash on the skin that feels like sandpaper
scarlet fever
The lesions of impetigo are:
crusty flaky scabs
Which describes the virus that causes chickenpox and shingles?
Enveloped DNA virus
The treatment for measles usually involves:
replacing lost fluid, reducing symptoms, and antibiotic therapy for secondary bacterial infections
Which of the following are characteristics of S. aureus?
it resists many disinfectants and antibiotics, it is extremely hardy, remaining viable for months in the air, it can with stand high salt concentrations
The group of fungi termed _________ are responsible for a wide variety of skin and nail conditions
dermatophytes
Tinea _________ is caused by Malassezia furfur and causes skin mottling and scaling
versicolor
Which of the following is/are usually used in the diagnosis of measles?
clinical presentation and ELISA
Streptococcus pyogenes is able to adhere to host tissues by adhesive elements such as ___________ acid, ______ protein and a _________ acid capsule
lipoteichoic, M, and hyaluronic
Which of the following are the possible causative agents of impetigo?
S. aureus and S. pyogenes
In addition to fever reduction, cough suppression, and fluid replacement, treatment for measles includes __________ to treat secondary bacterial infections
antibiotics
_______ _______ are considered protected areas in the skin and support populations of normal microbiota
hair follicles
True or False: The only technique required in diagnosing dermatophyte infections is observation of presenting symptoms since they are so dramatic and suggestive infections of this type
False
Where are the spores of Clastridium perfringes usually found?
human skin, intestine, vagina, and soil
In chickenpox, the lesions are more dense on the:
torso and face
The incubation period for chickenpox is:
10-20 days
The peeling of the epidermal tissue layers in SSSS is referred to as ________
desquamation
Hyberboic oxygen therapy, antibiotics, surgical debridement, and amputation are all treatments for ____ ______
gas gangrene
Complicated cases of chickenpox may require:
antibiotics and antivirals
_________ are dead epidermal cells is the key to treatment of superficial mycoses, either through blocking the fungus until it occurs or increasing the rate at which it occurs
sloughing
When the skin initially swells over the hair follicle pore, it is called a(n) ________
comedo
True or False: dermatophyte infections acquired from other human cause a severe reaction and elicit a greater immune response
False
S. aureus is coagulase:
positive
Roseola is caused by:
HHV-6
Which of the following areas of the skin have dense microbial populations?
moist areas and skin folds
The most serious complication of measles is:
subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
_______ rubella occurs when the rubella virus is passed from mother to fetus resulting in complications
congenital
The dermis of the skin contains ________, __________, and ________ glands
sebaceous, sweat, and scent
When the comedo erupts on the surface of the skin in acne, it is usually called a(n) ___________ ________
pustule or papule
True or False: The high fever seen with roseola always comes after the rash appears
False
Tinea __________ is a dermatophyte infection of the nails
unguium
The microbial medium ______ _______
mannitol salt
True or False: antibiotic therapy will treat all types of conjunctivitis
False
What are the names for the virus that causes chickenpox and shingles?
varicella-zoster, varicella and human herpesvines 3
How is leishmaniasis transmitted?
biological vector
True or False : healthcare workers should trained in recognizing smallpox because it has become a potential bioterror weapon
True
Research on smallpox was halted in the 1970s because the virus was considered __________ as no new natural cases of the disease were seen in humans
eradicated
The alternative name for measles is _______
rubeola
The main made of transmission of anthrax is through direct contact with _________, but it can also be transmitted through contact with infected animal hides
endospores
Which of the following are not symptoms of keratitis?
milky discharge, clear discharge, slight inflammation
In cases of suspected anthrax, which of the following drugs should be used initially until penicillin sensitivity is determine?
aprofloxacin, doxycycline, Levofloxacin
A person with measles is contagious during which periods of infection?
peak signs/symptoms, prodromal phase, incubation period
__________ and ___________ found in the tears have antimicrobial properties
lysozyme and lactoferrin
Fomites, fingers, fleas, and a hot, dry climate encourage transmission of _______ ______
ocular trachoma
Tropical application of ________ is used in the treatment of impetigo
mupirocin
Which of the following are not signs and symptoms of fifth disease?
sandpaper fell to skin, bumpy rash starting on the head and spreading to the rest of the body, high fever preceding a rash, mild rash hat lasts 3 days
True or False: Trachoma is effectively treated with an antimicrobial drug
True
All of the following except _______ are enzymes produces by certain strains of staphylococcus
streptokinase
Painful warts on the sole of the foot are called _______ warts whereas the smooth, skin-colored warts found on other areas of the body are called ________ warts
plantar and flat
Athlete's foot" is known as Tinea ______
pedis
Which of the following infections can be caused by Streptococcus pyogens?
bacteremia, rheumatic fever, pneumonia, cellulitis, necrotizing facilztis, strep throat
Which conditions favor an epidemic of measles?
low herd immunity, mainutrition, crowded conditions, inadequate medical care
S. aureus has become a troublesome hospital pathogen because:
it is resistant to many disinfectants, it remains viable after drying, it is resistant to many antibiotics
Which is the most common reliable way to diagnose SSSS?
histological examination of lesion
Which are common signs/symptoms of Tinea versicolor?
lowered melanin production, mottled skin appearance, mild scaling of skin
Which of the following stimuli can cause reactivation of HHV-3?
psycholigical stress, surgery, cancer, X-ray treatment, immunosuppressive drugs
Which of the following explains how the lipid content of sebum inhibits the growth of pathogens?
metabolism of these lipids produces toxic by products that control pathogenic growth
Later symptoms of ________ are marked by infiltration of lymphocytes and macrophages to the conjunctive, eventually forming a pannus
trachoma
There are increasing problems with emerging ________ - resistant staphylococcus aureus infections in many hospital setting
methicillin
Which of the following explains why inflammation does not usually occurs as often in the eyes in other body tissues?
increased fluid and immune cells would impair vision
Which of the following represent possible treatment options for warts?
resolve on their own with time, adhesive tape, cryosurgery, salicylic acid preparations
Transmission of SSSS is through _______
direct contact
Many antifungal agents work by:
increasing the rate of sloughing of the epidermis and inhibiting growth of the fungal agent until sloughed off from the epidermis
Contact lenses can be contaminated with wide variety of ________
fungi, bacteria, and protozoa
There is no treatment for the _________ form of rubella
congenital
Select the statements that most accurately reflect the current understanding of the skin microbiome
25% of all bacteria are localized to hair follicles, five major taxa of microbes have been identified, differences in skin microbiome composition may led to new treatments for skin disorders
Which type of organism transmits the pathogen that causes leishmaniasis?
sand fly
Which of the following occur in true myonecrosis gangrene?
toxin diffuses into healthy tissue, disease progress quickly, damage tissue fosters further clostridial growth
A rapid screening test that will distinguish staphylococcus aureus from all of the other staphylococci is the _______ test. Staphylococcus aureus is positive and all others are negative
coagulase
Metabolic breakdown of ____ produces toxic by products that inhibit the growth of pathogens on the skin
sebum
Acne is characterized by inflammation, over production of sebum, and exaggerated keratinization at the site of a ______ ____ in the skin
hair follicle
In which of the following cell types does Leishmania multiply?
macrophages
Widespread lesions involving deep layers of the skin is known as ______ acne
cystic
Sebum protects the skin by inhibiting the growth of microorganisms because of its:
low pH
These positively charge chemicals reduce the numbers of pathogens on the skin by disrupting their cell membranes
peptides
Which aspects of the immune system are often disabled by the measles virus?
cell-mediated immunity and delayed-type hypersensitivity
Which of the following agents is strongly teratogenic?
rubella virus
Acne is most effectively treated with ______
antibiotics
Congenital rubella can result in:
miscarriage, cardiac abnormalities, ocular lesion, mental retardation, and deafness
In shingles, the lessions develop asymmetrically on the skin _______ innervated by the nerve where the virus was latent
dermatome
Tinea versicolor causes mild, chronic scaling, skin mottling, and loss of skin ______
pigmentation
True or False: HPV only infects the epithelium of the skin
False
Which organism is the vector for the transmission of the Onchocera worm in riverblindness infections?
black flies
In which ways does the rubella virus cause damage to the developing embryo or fetus?
stops mitosis in the developing embryo or fetus, damage vascular endothelium, and induces apoptosis
Exaggerated production of Keratin, over production of sebum, and the presence of propionibacterium acnes contribute to _____
acne
These structures are constantly exposed to elements of the environment such as solid objects, atmospheric gases, and water and other fluids, making them subject to infection?
conjunctiva and skin
True or False: Infants in the U.S. are always given optical antibiotics or silver nitrate drops to prevent neonatal conjunctivitis regardless of the health status of the mother
True
Which of the following describes the rash in measles?
long-lasting red rash that starts on the head and spreads to the whole body
Which of the following signs and symptoms are common with river blindness?
inflammation, visible worms in the eye, serve itching, damage to retina and optic nerve
Which of the following types of transmission can spread conjunctivitis?
vertical transmission, use of contact lenses, direct contact, and auto inoculation, and indirect contact
Which of the following describes the rash in roseola?
if rash appears, it is usually produced by high fever
Which of the following modes of transmission are not commonly implicated in the spread of conjunctivitis?
vector, sexual activity, droplet nuclei
True or False: Ocular trachoma causes blindness in many regions of the world because a treatment for this disease has not yet been identified
False
Which of the following are not symptoms of river blindness?
damage to the cornea, milky discharge, sharp pain, and sensitivity to light
Topical agents treat acne by:
increasing sloughing of skin cells
Which of the following are the most common causes of keratitis?
HSV-1 and HSV-2
Treatment of chickenpox include:
alleviation of discomfort
In cases of _____ ______ gas gangrene, toxins diffuse into healthy tissue and can quickly progress throughout an infected limb or body area
true myonecrosis
Tinea _____ is a dermatophyte infection of the body's smooth skin areas
corporis
What precautions are taken with child bearing age women when it comes to rubella?
it is recommended that they are screened for rubella antibodies, and immunization to only non pregnant women who will not become pregnant for three months
How does sweat defend the skin against pathogens?
it causes the skin pH to be too low to support most bacterial growth, it contains an enzyme that breaks down peptidoglycan in the cell walls of bacteria, and it causes the skin to have a high salt content which inhibits bacterial growth