What are the non-overlapping channels for 802.11g/n?
Channels 1, 6, and 11
Does the S/MIME protocol use certificates?
yes
Which two ports does FTP use?
ports 20 and 21
Which technique attempts to predict the likelihood that a threat will occur and assigns monetary values in the event a loss occurs?
quantitative risk analysis
Which IPSec mode is used to create a VPN between two gateways?
tunnel mode
What is the most likely cause of a single computer communicating with an unknown IRC server and scanning other systems on the network?
The computer is infected with a botnet.
What does the acronym IDS denote?
Intrusion Detection System
Which encryption method is more scalable?
Asymmetric Encryption
What is the purpose of DLP?
Data Loss Prevention (DLP) is a network system that monitors data on computers to ensure the data is not deleted or removed.
Which port number does NTP use?
port 123
Which backup method backs up every file on the server each time it is run?
A full backup
What is the term for an unauthorized access that a network-based intrusion detection system (NIDS) fails to detect?
missed detection or false negative
Which alternate computing facility is the least expensive to maintain before a disaster occurs?
a cold site
What are the three basic questions answered by the chain of custody?
who controlled the evidence, who secured the evidence, and who obtained the evidence
Which term refers to the assurance that data has not been altered in transmission?
data integrity
What is the purpose of Platform as a Service (PaaS) in cloud computing?
It provides not only a virtualized deployment platform but also a value-added solution stack and an application development platform.
What does the acronym FCoE denote?
Fibre Channel over Ethernet
At which OSI layer does IP Security (IPSec) operate?
the Network layer (Layer 3)
What is meant by the term hardening?
tightening control using security policies to increase system security
What do you use to control traffic from the Internet to the LAN (local area network) by controlling the packets that are allowed to enter the LAN?
a firewall
According to CompTIA's Security+ examination blueprint, what are the four types of logs that you should monitor for mitigation and deterrence?
event logs, audit logs, security logs, and access logs
What are the two types of eye scans?
iris scans and retinal scans
What are alternate terms for cross-site request forgery (XSRF)?
session riding or one-click attack
What block cipher and key size (in bits) are used by the Clipper Chip?
The Skipjack block cipher and an 80-bit key length
Why is GPS tracking often disabled?
It is considered a security threat. As long as GPS tracking is enabled and the mobile device is powered on, the device (and possibly its user) can be located.
What is the name of the process for removing only the incriminating data from the audit logs?
scrubbing
What ensures that a user is who he claims to be?
identification
Which port number does SSH use?
port 22
On what does the Pretty Good Privacy (PGP) mail standard rely?
a web of trust
Which information do routers use to forward packets to their destinations?
the network address and subnet mask
Which account should you rename immediately after installing a new operating system (OS) to harden the OS?
the administrator account
Which error condition arises because data is not checked before input to ensure that it has an appropriate length?
buffer overflow errors
What is the component included with Windows Vista and higher operating systems that encrypts an entire volume with 128-bit encryption to prevent information from being read if the drive is lost or stolen?
BitLocker
What is the purpose of administrative controls?
to implement security policies based on procedures, standards, and guidelines
Which fire suppression method, formerly used to suppress fires involving electrical equipment or liquids, has been discontinued?
halon gas
On which standard is Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) based
X.500
Which public-key algorithm was the first to allow two users to exchange a secret key over an insecure medium without any prior secret keys?
Diffie-Hellman
Which authentication protocol separates authentication and authorization: TACACS+ or RADIUS?
TACACS+
What was the first public-key algorithm ever used?
Diffie-Hellman
Which tool should you use to retrieve the contents of a GET request: a protocol analyzer or port scanner?
a protocol analyzer
Which type of controls is implemented to secure physical access to an object, such as a building, a room, or a computer?
a physical or operational control
Which protocol provides connectionless integrity, data origin authentication, replay protection, and confidentiality (encryption) using Authentication Header (AH) and Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP)?
Internet Protocol Security (IPSec)
What does the acronym MTTR denote?
mean time to repair
What is an entity that issues and manages certificates?
certification authority (CA)
According to CompTIA's Security+ examination blueprint, what are the three listed reporting techniques for mitigation and deterrence?
alarms, alerts, and trends
Which term is used when the amount of work that a computer has to do is divided between two or more computers so that more work is performed in the same amount of time?
load balancing
Which type of attack searches long lists of words for a particular language to match them to an encrypted password?
dictionary attack
What is spimming?
an instance of spam sent over an instant message application
What is a proxy server?
a server that caches and filters content
Which type of authentication combines two or more authentication methods, like something that a person knows (such as a password), something that a person owns (such as a smart card), and a characteristic about the person (such as a fingerprint)?
multi-factor authentication
Which services are usually provided by all-in-one security devices?
URL filtering, content inspection, and malware inspection
Which directory protocol does Directory-Enabled Networking (DEN) use?
Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)
What is a honeypot?
a decoy system in your network installed to lure potential intruders away from legitimate systems
What is the term for a potential opening in network security that a hacker can exploit to attack a network?
a vulnerability
What is the most significant misuse of cookies?
misuse of personal data
Which setting ensures that repeated attempts to guess a user's password is not possible beyond the configured value?
account lockout
What is a smurf attack?
an attack where a ping request is sent to a broadcast network address with the aim of overwhelming the system
Is the Message Digest 5 (MD5) algorithm used with symmetric or asymmetric key algorithms?
asymmetric
What is the purpose of Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) in cloud computing?
It provides computer and server infrastructure, typically through a virtualization environment.
What is war driving?
the act of discovering unprotected wireless network by driving around with a laptop
What does the acronym DAC denote?
discretionary access control
Which audit category will audit all instances of users exercising their rights?
the Audit Privilege Use audit category
Which intrusion detection system (IDS) watches for intrusions that match a known identity?
signature-based IDS
Which security protocol was designed as an interim solution to replace WEP without requiring the replacement of legacy hardware?
Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP)
What is the recommended action when the cost of the safeguard exceeds the amount of the potential loss for a given risk?
to accept the risk
What is a VPN concentrator?
a device that creates a virtual private network (VPN)
Does each VLAN create its own collision domain or its own broadcast domain?
broadcast domain
What is a warm site?
an alternate computing facility with telecommunications equipment but no computers
What does the acronym POP denote?
Post Office Protocol
Which type of cryptography relies more on physics, rather than mathematics, as a key aspect of its security model?
quantum cryptography
What is the main difference between an IDS and an IPS?
An IDS detects intrusions. An IPS prevents intrusions.
What is the term for an authorized access that a network-based intrusion detection system (NIDS) incorrectly detects as an attack?
false positive
What is another name for RAID 5?
disk striping with parity
What is the key size, in bits, of the Data Encryption Standard (DES)?
56
What is another name for RAID 0?
disk striping
What are the two advantages of single sign-on (SSO)?
convenience and centralized administration
Which type of virus can change its signature to avoid detection?
polymorphic
Which type of attack is characterized by an attacker who takes over the session of an already authenticated user?
hijacking
Which term refers to voice communication over a network?
telephony or Voice over IP (VoIP)
Which type of disaster recovery site provides very little fault tolerance for the primary data center and relies on backups to bring the data center back online?
cold site
Which protocol does the Enterprise mode of WPA and WPA2 use for authentication?
Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP)
Which type of cipher encrypts data in fixed-size blocks?
block
What is the name for a hole in the security of an application deliberately left in place by a designer?
back door
What is most commonly used to provide proof of a message's origin?
a digital signature
What is the key length used by a one-time pad?
The key length is the same length as the message that is to be encrypted. The message length determines the key length.
Which audit category tracks all attempts to log on with a domain user account when enabled on domain controllers?
the Audit Account Logon Events audit category
Would a certification authority (CA) revoke a certificate if the certificate owner's public key were exposed?
no
What are four common service models of cloud computing?
Infrastructure as a service (IaaS), Monitoring as a service (MaaS), Platform as a service (PaaS), Software as a service (SaaS)
Who can change a resource's category in a mandatory access control environment?
administrators only
Which access control model is based on the data's owner implementing and administering access control?
Discretionary Access Control (DAC)
Which type of controls dictates how security policies are implemented to fulfill the company's security goals?
an administrative or management control
What is phishing?
when an e-mail request for confidential information that appears to originate from a bank or other trusted institution is received
What is Protected Extensible Authentication Protocol (PEAP)?
a protocol that encapsulates the EAP within an encrypted and authenticated Transport Layer Security (TLS) tunnel
What is incident management?
the activities of an organization to identify, analyze, and correct risks as they are identified
What is the purpose of anti-spam applications or filters?
to prevent unsolicited e-mail
What is the name for a fix that addresses a specific Windows system problem or set of problems?
hotfix
Where is information on cancelled certificates retained?
in the certificate revocation list (CRL)
What does the acronym RBAC denote?
role-based access control
What is a service level agreement (SLA)?
a contract between a network service provider and a customer that specifies the services the network service provider will furnish
Why is the location of an alternate site important?
You do not want it to be affected by the same disaster as your primary facility.
What is the default PPTP port?
TCP port 1723
Which port number does SNMP use?
UDP port 161
Which type of access control associates roles with each user?
role-based access control (RBAC)
Is the Data Encryption Standard (DES) algorithm asymmetric or symmetric?
symmetric
Which authentication protocol encrypts the entire packet (not just the password): TACACS+ or RADIUS?
TACACS+
Which Linux file contains encrypted user passwords that only the root user can read?
/etc/shadow
How is a digital signature created from a message digest?
It is encrypted using the sender's private key.
Which type of fire suppression system is the safest for both computer equipment and personnel: FM-200 or Carbon Dioxide?
FM-200
Which backup method serves as the baseline for a backup set?
the full backup
According to CompTIA, why should you disable the SSID broadcast of your wireless router?
to improve your network's security
What is whaling?
a special type of phishing that targets a single power user, such as a Chief Executive Officer (CEO)
Which type of connectivity provides a remote user the ability to safely connect to his or her corporate network while maintaining data confidentiality and integrity?
a virtual private network (VPN)
Which Application-layer protocol supports public-key encryption and key distribution centers (KDCs)?
Internet Key Management Protocol (IKMP)
Which authentication protocol uses tickets to authenticate users?
Kerberos
Which type of controls includes access control mechanisms, password management, identification methods, authentication methods, and security devices?
technical or logical controls
Which port number does LDAP use for communications encrypted using SSL/TLS?
port 636
What are the four types of personally identifiable information (PII)?
Personal characteristics - such as full name, date of birth, height, ethnicity, place of birth, mother's maiden name, and biometric characteristics
�A unique set of numbers assigned to an individual - such as government ID number, telephone number, driver
According to CompTIA's Security+ examination blueprint, what are the three listed controls to provide availability?
redundancy, fault tolerance, and patching
According to CompTIA's Security+ examination blueprint, what are the four listed controls to provide integrity?
hashing, digital signatures, certificates, and non-repudiation
Which type of access control is the multi-level security mechanism used by the Department of Defense (DoD)?
mandatory access control (MAC)
What are the steps in the business continuity planning process?
1. Develop the business continuity planning policy statement.
2. Conduct the business impact analysis (BIA).
3. Identify preventative controls.
4. Develop the recovery strategies.
5. Develop the contingency plans.
6. Test the plan, and train the users.
7.
What must you do for an effective security auditing policy, besides creating security logs?
analyze the logs
Which term refers to the loss potential of an asset for a single year?
annualized loss expectancy (ALE)
What is the purpose of hot and cold aisles?
to control airflow in the data center
Which audit category tracks access to all objects outside Active Directory?
the Audit Object Access audit category
What is the proper life cycle of evidence steps?
collection, analysis, storage, court presentation, and return to owner
What is the primary security advantage of using NAT?
Network Address Translation (NAT) hides internal IP addresses from the public network
What is the purpose of filters on a Web server?
They limit the traffic that is allowed through.
Why should a first responder be familiar with the incident response plan?
to ensure that the appropriate procedures are followed
What is the purpose of fuzz testing?
to identify bugs and security flaws within an application
What is the primary concern of RAID?
Redundant Array of Inexpensive Disks (RAID) is concerned with availability
Which term is used for an agreement that is signed by two partnering companies?
a business partners agreement (BPA)
What is the term for the method of determining which kinds of controls are needed to classify and protect a company's information assets?
risk assessment
Which type of attack sequentially generates every possible password and checks them all against a password file?
brute force attack
What is the purpose of screen locks on mobile devices?
to prevent users from accessing the mobile device until a password or other factor is entered
What is the best protection against cross-site scripting (XSS)?
Disable the running of scripts.
Which type of controls include developing policies and procedures, screening personnel, conducting security awareness training, and implementing change control?
administrative controls
On which standard are certificates based?
X.509
Which key is used to decrypt a digital signature: public or private?
public
What is the default L2TP port?
UDP port 1701
What is Fibre Channel?
a high-speed network technology (commonly running at 2-, 4-, 8- and 16-gigabit per second rates) that connects computer data storage
Which address is faked with IP spoofing attacks?
the source IP address
What is bluesnarfing?
the act of gaining unauthorized access to a device (and the network it is connected to) through its Bluetooth connection
What is another name for RAID 1?
disk mirroring
Is instant messaging vulnerable to packet sniffing?
yes
Which application hardening method requires that your organization periodically checks with the application vendor?
patch management
Are cameras and IDSs considered to be mitigation or prevention controls?
deterrence controls
Which type of eye scan is considered more intrusive than other eye scans?
retinal scan
Which port number does DHCP use?
port 67
What is the size, in bits, of a Message Digest version 5 (MD5) hash?
128
What is the purpose of a fail-safe error handler?
to ensure that the application stops working, reports the error, and closes down
What is Wireshark?
a protocol analyzer or packet sniffer
What are the two types of ciphers?
block and streaming
Which attack uses clients, handles, agents, and targets?
a distributed denial of service (DDoS) attack
What is the name for the process of tracking user activities by recording selected events in the server activity logs?
auditing
Which password attack does an account lockout policy protect against?
a brute force attack
What is the purpose of dumpster diving?
to discover confidential information, such as user passwords
What is a Trojan horse?
malware that is disguised as a useful utility, but is embedded with a malicious code to infect computer systems
Which alternate computing facility takes the least amount of time to become operational?
a hot site
What does the acronym MTBF denote?
mean time before failure
Which type of attack is characterized by an attacker who situates himself or herself in such a way that he or she can intercept all traffic between two hosts?
man-in-the-middle
Which security-server application and protocol implements authentication and authorization of users from a central server over TCP?
Terminal Access Controller Access Control System Plus (TACACS+)
What is an IV attack?
cracking the WEP secret key using the initialization vector (IV)
How many TCP/UDP ports are vulnerable to malicious attacks?
65,536
Which attack requires that the hacker compromise as many computers as possible to initiate the attack?
a distributed denial of service (DDoS) attack
Which document lists the steps to take in case of a disaster to your main IT site?
disaster recovery plan (DRP)
If Alice wants to encrypt a message using asymmetric encryption that only Bob can read, which key must she use?
Bob's public key
Which algorithms are asymmetric key algorithms?
Rivest, Shamir, and Adleman (RSA), elliptic curve cryptosystem (ECC), Diffie-Hellman, El Gamal, Digital Signature Algorithm (DSA), and Knapsack
What is the purpose of technical controls?
to restrict access to objects and protect availability, confidentiality, and integrity
Is the RC2 algorithm symmetric or asymmetric?
symmetric
Why should you periodically test an alternate site?
to ensure continued compatibility and recoverability
Is a DHCP server normally placed inside a DMZ?
no
Which type of code performs malicious acts only when a certain set of conditions occurs?
a logic bomb
What does the acronym PKI denote?
public key infrastructure
What portion(s) of the IP packet are encrypted in IPSec tunnel mode?
both the header and the payload
Which port number is used by SMB?
TCP port 445
How do you ensure that data is removed from a mobile device that has been stolen?
Use a remote wipe or remote sanitation program.
What is a malicious insider?
an employee who uses his access to the network and facility to obtain confidential information
Encrypting all files on a system hardens which major component of a server?
the file system
If a user needs administrative-level access, how many user accounts should be issued to the user?
two - one for normal tasks, one for administrative-level tasks
Which firewall port should you enable to allow IMAP4 traffic to flow through the firewall?
TCP port 143
Which port number does LDAP use when communications are NOT secured using SSL/TLS?
port 389
Which assessment examines physical and electronic information handling issues to determine whether security weaknesses exist?
an organizational risk assessment
Where should you physically store mobile devices to prevent theft?
in a locked cabinet or safe
What is the name for the framework for key exchange management?
Internet Security Association and Key Management Protocol (ISAKMP)
What are the three main protocols that can be used for wireless networks?
Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP), WiFi Protected Access version 1 (WPAv1), WPA version 2 (WPAv2)
Which two fire suppression agents are used to suppress fires involving paper and wooden furniture?
water or soda acid
Which technology enables a LAN to use one set of IP addresses for internal traffic and a second set of addresses for external traffic, while hiding internal addresses or address space?
Network Address Translation (NAT)
Which policy defines the technical means that are used to protect data on a network?
security policy
Which type of IDS detects malicious packets on a network?
network intrusion detection system (NIDS)
What is the greatest security risk of instant messaging?
impersonation
What is the definition of maximum tolerable downtime (MTD)?
the maximum amount of time a business can tolerate a system remaining non-functional
Which category of IDS might increase logging activities, disable a service, or close a port as a response to a detected security breach?
active detection
Which access control model has the lowest cost?
role-based access control (RBAC)
Which port number does DNS use?
port 53
What is the purpose of NAC?
Network Access Control (NAC) ensures that the computer on the network meets an organization's security policies.
Why should you install a software firewall and the latest software patches and hotfixes on your computer?
to reduce security risks
What is a file considered in a mandatory access control environment?
an object
What does the acronym RADIUS denote?
Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service
What is the name for the array where hashed items are kept?
hash table
Which type of brute-force attack attempts to find any two hashed messages that have the same value?
a birthday attack
What is steganography?
a cryptography method in which data is hidden in another media type
Which port should you block at your network firewall to prevent Telnet access?
port 23
What is the purpose of Software as a Service (SaaS) in cloud computing?
It ensures on-demand, online access to an application suite without the need for local installation.
What bit length is the hash value provided by the Message Digest 2, (MD2), MD4, and MD5 algorithms?
128-bit
Which standard is a specification for secure e-mail, designed to prevent the decryption of e-mail messages?
Secure Multipurpose Internet Mail Extension (S/MIME)
What is the most secure implementation of File Transfer Protocol (FTP)?
Secure File Transfer Protocol (SFTP)
What are you trying to determine if you implement audit trails to ensure that users are not performing unauthorized functions?
accountability
What does the acronym HIDS denote?
host-based intrusion detection system
Which encryption method is faster?
symmetric encryption
According to CompTIA's Security+ examination blueprint, what are the seven listed methods for protecting static environments?
network segmentation, security layers, application firewalls, manual updates, firmware version control, wrappers, and control redundancy and diversity
What does the acronym TACACS denote?
Terminal Access Controller Access Control System
What is another name for public-key encryption?
asymmetric encryption
Which component of a computer use policy indicates that data stored on a company computer is not guaranteed to remain confidential?
a no expectation of privacy policy
What is the default automated key-management protocol for IPSec?
Internet Key Exchange (IKE)
What bit length is the hash value provided by the Secure Hash Algorithm (SHA)?
160-bit
Which authentication protocol incorporates the use of a random value, an ID, and a predefined secret that are concatenated, hashed, and used with a three-way handshake?
Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP)
Which port number is used by TFTP?
UDP port 69
What is the purpose of application hardening?
It ensures that an application is secure and unnecessary services are disabled.
Which authentication protocol is an open standard: TACACS+ or RADIUS?
RADIUS
What is key escrow?
when you maintain a secured copy of a user's private to ensure that you can recover the lost key
Is International Data Encryption Algorithm (IDEA) symmetric or asymmetric?
symmetric
Which function does a single sign-on (SSO) system provide?
It allows a user to present authentication credentials once and gain access to all computers within the SSO system.
What is spear phishing?
an e-mail request for confidential information that appears to come from your supervisor
Which port is used for LDAP authentication?
port 389
What defines the way in which a certification authority (CA) implements the creation of certificates?
the certificate practice statement
Which type of controls work to protect system access, network architecture and access, control zones, auditing, and encryption and protocols?
technical controls
Which key should be encrypted and protected with a password when stored: a public key or a private key?
a private key
Which two modes does IP Security (IPSec) provide to ensure confidentiality?
tunnel mode and transport mode
What is pharming?
traffic redirection to a Web site that looks identical to the intended Web site
What is the primary goal of business continuity planning?
to maintain the organization
In which type of attack is a user connected to a different Web server than the one intended by the user?
hyperlink spoofing attack
Which Internet protocol based on X.500 is used to access the data stored in a network directory?
Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)
Is the Triple-DES (3DES) algorithm symmetric or asymmetric?
symmetric
What is the act of gaining unauthorized access to a facility by using another user's access credentials?
piggybacking or tailgating
What is the formula for determining ALE?
annualized loss expectancy (ALE) = single loss expectancy (SLE) x annualized rate of occurrence (ARO)
According to CompTIA's Security+ examination blueprint, what are the four hardening techniques for mitigation and deterrence?
Disable unnecessary services.
�Protect management interfaces and applications.
�Protect passwords.
�Disable unnecessary accounts.
Is the RSA algorithm symmetric or asymmetric?
asymmetric
What is the purpose of BitLocker To Go?
to ensure that USB flash drives issued by your organization are protected by encryption
Which protocol is used by network devices to transmit error messages?
Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP)
Between which two OSI layers does Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) operate?
between the OSI Transport and Application layers (Layer 4 to Layer 7)
What is the name of the security process that involves recognition, verification, classification, containment, and analysis?
an incident response
What is an Internet Protocol (IP)-based storage networking standard for linking data storage facilities?
Internet Small Computer System Interface (iSCSI)
According to CompTIA's Security+ examination blueprint, what are the four listed network security techniques for mitigation and deterrence?
MAC limiting and filtering, 802.1x, disabling unused interfaces and unused application service ports, and rogue machine detection
Which port number is used by SSL, FTPS, and HTTPS?
TCP port 443
What is the purpose of SCADA?
To collect data from factories, plants, or other remote locations, and send the data to a central computer that manages and controls the data
Which protocol is the combination of PPTP and Cisco's Layer 2 Forwarding (L2F) technology?
Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP)
Which program relies on understanding the corporate environment during its development?
security awareness program
What is the best method to preserve evidence on a computer: bit stream backup or standard backup?
bit stream backup
Which type of key management does Encryption File System (EFS) use: centralized or decentralized?
decentralized
Is the Skipjack algorithm symmetric or asymmetric?
symmetric
Which backup method backs up every file modified on the server since the last full backup, and resets the archive bit?
an incremental backup
According to CompTIA's Security+ examination blueprint, what are the three listed controls to provide confidentiality?
encryption, access controls, and steganography
What is a pop-up?
a Web site that opens in the foreground of the current browser window
Which setting ensures that accounts are not used beyond a certain date and/or time?
account expiration
Which assessment examines network resources and information to determine the probability of a successful attack by a hacker?
a network risk assessment
What is a flaw, loophole, or weakness in the system, software, or hardware?
a vulnerability
Scanning fingerprints is an example of which authentication technique?
biometrics
What is another term used for layered security?
defense in depth
Does Pretty Good Privacy (PGP) provide confidentiality?
yes
Which implementation of the File Transfer Protocol (FTP) provides the least security?
Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP)
Which security concept ensures that data is protected from being accessed by unauthorized persons?
confidentiality
Which private-key encryption algorithm does Pretty Good Privacy (PGP) use to encrypt data?
International Data Encryption Algorithm (IDEA)
Which type of attack intercepts an established TCP session?
TCP hijacking or session hijacking
Which audit category monitors changes to user accounts and groups?
the Audit Account Management audit category
Which malicious software infects a system without relying upon other applications for its execution?
a worm
Which term is used for an agreement between two or more parties where the parties cannot create a legally enforceable agreement?
memorandum of understanding (MoU)
What does the acronym CHAP denote?
Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol
What is the purpose of physical controls?
to work with administrative and technical controls to enforce physical access control
What is an XML injection?
when a user enters values in an XML query that takes advantage of security loopholes
What is a good solution if you need to separate two departments into separate networks?
VLAN segregation
Which cryptography technique is based on a combination of two keys: a secret (private) key and a public key?
public-key cryptography
Which port number is used by SSH, SCP, and SFTP?
port 22
What is an IP spoofing attack?
an attack in which the source IP address in an IP datagram is modified to imitate the IP address of a packet originating from an authorized source
What is the purpose of a spam filter?
to identify and block unwanted messages
Which type of attack does Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP) protect against?
replay
Which type of access control was originally developed for military use?
mandatory access control (MAC)
What is the purpose of a bollard?
A bollard is a physical security control that prevents cars from accessing certain areas. They are most often deployed in front of retail storefronts.
What is the top-most level of the LDAP hierarchy?
root
Who has the responsibility for configuring access rights in discretionary access control (DAC)?
the data owner or data custodian
What is the first step in a business impact analysis?
to identify all of the organization's business units
What does the acronym SMTP denote?
Simple Mail Transfer Protocol
What are flood guards?
devices that protect against Denial of Service (DoS) attacks
Should virtual servers have the same information security requirements as physical servers?
Yes
What is a command injection?
When an operating system command is submitted in an HTML string
Which algorithms are symmetric key algorithms?
Data Encryption Standard (DES), Triple DES (3DES), Blowfish, IDEA, RC4, RC5, RC6, and Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)
Which security device requires physical possession and has passwords that can only be used once?
a token
Which authentication protocol uses UDP: TACACS+ or RADIUS?
RADIUS
What is the purpose of input validation?
to ensure that data being entered into a database follows certain parameters
Which error occurs when the length of the input data is more than the length that processor buffers can handle?
buffer overflow
What is a phishing attack?
an attack where a user is sent an e-mail that appears to come from a valid entity asking for personally identifiable information (PII)
Which access control model requires assigning security clearance levels to users, such as secret, top-secret, and confidential?
mandatory access control (MAC)
Are instant messages typically encrypted?
no
Which type of key management does Secure Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions (S/MIME) use: centralized or decentralized?
centralized
What is Microsoft Baseline Security Analyzer?
Microsoft application that creates security reports
What is the purpose of a mantrap?
to prevent people from piggybacking on the credentials of legitimate personnel to gain entry to your building
According to CompTIA's Security+ examination blueprint, what are the seven listed static environments that you need to know how to protect?
SCADA, embedded (printer, smart TV, HVAC control), Android, iOS, mainframes, game consoles, and in-vehicle computing systems
Which document should never be stored in a public area: acceptable use policy or system architecture diagram?
system architecture diagram
Which firewall port should you enable to allow POP3 traffic to flow through the firewall?
TCP port 110
Which type of attack runs code within another process's address space by making it load a dynamic link library?
a DLL injection attack
Which principle ensures that users are given the most restrictive user rights to complete their authorized job duties?
the principle of least privilege
What is the purpose of RADIUS?
Remote Access Dial-In User Service (RADIUS) enables remote access users to log on to a network through a shared authentication database.
What is Nessus?
a network vulnerability scanner
Which protocol will provide loop protection?
spanning tree protocol
What is the name for a small piece of information that is saved on a client machine on the hard disk to enable tracking of user information on future Web visits?
a cookie
What is the purpose of audit logs?
to document actions taken on a computer network and the party responsible for those actions
Which attack is an extension of the denial-of-service (DoS) attack and uses multiple computers?
a distributed DoS (DDoS) attack
Which type of attack involves flooding a recipient e-mail address with identical e-mails?
a spamming attack
What is the difference between TPM and HSM chips?
Trusted Platform Module (TPM) chips are part of the motherboard. Hardware Security Module (HSM) chips are part of a PCI card that is mounted in a slot on the motherboard.
What are the non-overlapping channels for 802.11b?
Channels 1, 6, 11, and 14
Which standard developed by RSA offers encryption of e-mail messages and authentication of received e-mail using digital signatures?
S/MIME
What are the two most important security needs that are met using Secure Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions (S/MIME)?
authentication and confidentiality
When should you install a software patch on a production server?
after the patch has been tested
What is the name for the list of locations where software can check to see whether a user's certificate has been revoked?
CRL Distribution Point (CDP)
What does the acronym SCADA denote?
Supervisory control and data acquisition
What is Lightweight Extensible Authentication Protocol (LEAP)?
a proprietary wireless LAN authentication method developed by Cisco Systems
What does the acronym MAC denote?
mandatory access control
Which risk response strategy does not implement any countermeasures, but allows risks to remain?
acceptance
Which PKI object do you use to verify that a user sending a message is who he or she claims to be?
a digital certificate
Who is responsible for most security incidents in an organization?
employees
Which two protocols provide encryption for HTTP/S?
Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) and Transport Layer Security (TLS)
Which wireless mode ensures that wireless clients can only communicate with the wireless access point and not with other wireless clients?
isolation mode
Which log in Event Viewer should you open to view events that are generated based on your auditing settings?
the Security log
Which devices can limit the effectiveness of sniffing attacks: switches or routers?
switches
Which certification authority (CA) has the highest level of trust in a trust hierarchy?
root CA
Which protocol provides real-time, online revocation information about certificates?
Online Certificate Status Protocol (OCSP)
Which two security protocols does IP Security (IPSec) use?
Authentication Header (AH) and Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP)
What is a pop-under?
Web site that opens in the background of the current browser window
What is the process by which a system determines that a specific user is authorized to perform certain functions?
authorization
What should you identify about a user before implementing the principle of least privilege?
the user's job functions
What is the safest method for creating and managing key pairs: centralized or de-centralized key management?
centralized key management
What is cross-site request forgery (XSRF)?
unauthorized commands coming from a trusted user to a user or Web site, usually through social networking
What is the most common type of system used to detect intrusions into a computer network?
network intrusion detection system (NIDS)
What are the two major types of intrusion detection systems (IDS)?
network IDS (NIDS) and host IDS (HIDS)
Is Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) symmetric or asymmetric?
symmetric
Which type of attack is characterized by an attacker who records an encrypted transmission between a client and a server computer so that he or she can then send it to the server to gain access?
a replay attack
What are the four types of water sprinklers?
wet pipe, dry pipe, preaction, and deluge
What is the purpose of load balancing?
to distribute the workload across multiple devices
Which technique is used to prevent network bridging?
network separation
Are guards and IPSs considered to be mitigation or prevention controls?
prevention controls
What is fault generation?
a smart card attack that allows a hacker to uncover the encryption key using reverse engineering
What are two other names for single-key cryptography?
symmetric key encryption and secret-key encryption
Which type of IDS or IPS uses an initial database of known attack types but dynamically alters their signatures base on learned behavior?
heuristic
Which servers are susceptible to the same type of attacks as their hosts, including denial-of-service attacks, detection attacks, and escape attacks?
virtual servers
What does the acronym NIDS denote?
network-based intrusion detection system
Which encryption algorithm uses an 80-bit key to encrypt 64-bit blocks of data?
Skipjack
What is the name of the group of people appointed to respond to security incidents?
incident response team
Which self-replicating computer program sends copies of itself to other devices on the network?
a worm
What is the opposite of confidentiality?
disclosure
Upon which report does the business continuity plan depend most?
Business Impact Analysis (BIA)
What does the acronym ACL denote?
access control list
What is the name for a hash algorithm that translates plaintext into an intermediate form?
a cipher
Would a certification authority (CA) revoke a certificate if the certificate owner's private key were exposed?
yes
Which three security features do digital certificates provide?
authentication, data integrity, non-repudiation
What is a baseline?
the minimum level of security and performance of a system in an organization
What is bluejacking?
an attack that sends unsolicited messages over a Bluetooth connection
In asymmetric encryption for a digital signature, which key is used for encryption: public or private?
public
Which security-server application and protocol implement authentication of users from a central server over UDP?
Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS)
Which assessment determines whether network security is properly configured to rebuff hacker attacks?
a penetration test
Which type of attack can turn a switch into a hub?
MAC flooding
What does PKCS stand for?
Public-Key Cryptography Standard
Which fingerprint scan will analyze fingerprint ridge direction?
minutiae matching
Which type of controls includes controlling access to different parts of a building, implementing locking systems, installing fencing, implementing environmental controls, and protecting the facility perimeter?
physical controls
Which setting ensures that users periodically change their account passwords?
password expiration
When should an administrative account be used?
when performing administrative-level tasks
Which port number does NNTP use?
TCP port 119
What are the two modes of WPA and WPA2?
Personal (also called Preshared Key or WPA-PSK / WPA2-PSK) and Enterprise
What is the name of the top-most level certification authority (CA)?
root authority or root CA
What is the name of the area that connects to a firewall and offers services to untrusted networks?
demilitarized zone (DMZ)
What is risk deterrence?
any action that you take to prevent a risk from occurring
What defines the allowed uses for a certificate issued by a certification authority (CA)?
the certificate policy
Which type of risk analysis is based on the expert judgment and intuition of members of an organization?
qualitative risk analysis
When evidence is seized, which principle should be emphasized?
chain of custody
What is a trusted OS?
An operating system that provides support for multilevel security
Which security protocol is best used for connection-oriented systems such as an intranet?
Secure Sockets Layer/Transport Layer Security (SSL/TLS)
In which situation will you accept a risk?
when the cost of the safeguard exceeds the amount of the potential loss
Which type of attack enables an intruder to capture and modify data traffic by rerouting the traffic from a network device to the intruder's computer?
network address hijacking
What are the three issues that symmetric data encryption fails to address?
data integrity, repudiation, scalable key distribution
What occurs when a user provides a password or proof of identity to a system?
authentication
Which wireless protocol provides the best security: WEP, WAP, WPA, or WPA2?
Wi-Fi Protected Access IIversion 2 (WPA2) with CCMP
What does the subject field in an X.509 v3 certificate contain?
the name of the certificate owner
Which two chips are used to implement hardware-based encryption?
Trusted Platform Module (TPM) and Hardware Security Module (HSM) chips
Which risk response strategy involves modifying the security plan to eliminate the risk or its impact?
avoidance
What is a honeynet?
when two or more honeypots are implemented on a network
If the user is NOT prompted for credentials when connected to a Network Access Control (NAC) server, what is the user's computer missing?
the authentication agent
What is an Xmas attack?
an attack that looks for open ports
Which method of gaining access to controlled-access areas is usually thwarted using turnstiles, double-door systems, and security guards?
piggybacking or tailgating
Which security standard is an enhanced version of Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)?
Transport Layer Security (TLS)
What can you do to ensure that staff understands which data they are handling?
proper labeling
What is the name for a collection of hotfixes that have been combined into a single patch?
a service pack
Which eye scan measures the pattern of blood vessels at the back of the eye?
retinal scan
What is a replay attack?
an attack where an intruder records the communication between a user and a server, and later plays the recorded information back to impersonate the user
According to CompTIA's Security+ examination blueprint, what are the eight listed controls to provide safety?
fencing, lighting, locks, CCTV, escape plans, drills, escape routes, and testing controls
Which type of virus attempts to hide from antivirus software and from the operating system by remaining in memory?
stealth
Which access control model uses security labels for each resource?
mandatory access control (MAC)
What does the acronym CA denote?
certification authority
Which term is used to describe a product that provides network firewalling, network intrusion prevention and gateway antivirus (AV), gateway anti-spam, VPN, content filtering, load balancing, data leak prevention and on-appliance reporting?
unified threat management (UTM)
What does the acronym L2TP denote?
Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol
Which IPSec mode is used mostly in host-to-host communications?
transport mode
What does the acronym DDoS denote?
Distributed Denial of Service
Which port number is used by Microsoft SQL Server?
TCP port 1433
Which type of attack do privacy screens protect against?
shoulder surfing
What would a certification authority (CA) do if a private key associated with a certificate had been compromised?
revoke the certificate
What is the purpose of content inspection?
to search for malicious code or behavior
Why is it important to limit the use of flash drives and portable music devices by organization employees?
to prevent users from copying data to their personnel devices and possibly causing data leakage or from transferring malware to corporate computers
What is the purpose of secure code review?
It examines all written code for any security holes that may exist.
Which element of the CIA triad ensures that data transferred is not altered?
integrity
Which port numbers are used by NetBIOS?
ports 137-139
What is the purpose of a sandbox in a Java applet?
It prevents Java applets from accessing unauthorized areas on a user's computer.
What does the acronym IPSec denote?
Internet Protocol Security
What occurs during white-box testing?
A security firm is provided with a production-like test environment, login details, production documentation, and source code.
Regarding mean time before failure (MTBF) and mean time to repair (MTTR) as they relate to system reliability, which metrics are desirable?
a high MTBF and a low MTTR
Why is password disclosure a significant security issue in a single sign-on network?
it could compromise the entire system because authentication grants access to ANY systems on the network to which the actual user may have permission.
Which key is included in an X.509 v3 certificate?
the certificate owner's public key
Which policy should be reviewed by the security administrator to determine what data is allowed to be collected from users of the corporate Internet-facing Web application?
a company's privacy policy
What is the most important biometric system characteristic?
accuracy
Which team is responsible for restoring critical business functions at an alternate site in the event of disruption?
the recovery team
Which risk response strategy involves reducing the probability or impact of a risk to an acceptable risk threshold?
mitigation
What is the term for a device that acts as a concentrator for a wireless LAN?
wireless access point (WAP)
What is another term for logical controls?
technical controls
What is the term for a server that has been configured specifically to distract an attacker from production systems?
honeypot
What is a zero-day exploit?
an attack that exploits a security vulnerability on the day the vulnerability becomes generally known
Using role-based access control (RBAC), which entities are assigned roles?
users or subjects
Which product uses public and private keys to digitally sign e-mail messages and files?
Pretty Good Privacy (PGP)
Which TCP port number does Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) use?
port 443
What is vishing?
a special type of phishing that uses Voice over IP (VoIP)
Which type of attack on a cryptographic algorithm uses brute force methods to encrypt text strings until the output matches the ciphertext?
a mathematical attack
What is the primary concern of the BIA?
Business impact analysis (BIA) identifies all business resources that could be lost
According to the Security+ exam guide from CompTIA, what are the four steps in a vulnerability test?
Passively test security controls.
�Identify vulnerabilities.
�Identify lack of security controls.
�Identify common misconfigurations.
What is the name for the data structure that maintains a list of certificates that have been revoked before their expiration date?
a certificate revocation list (CRL)
What are the two components of the Kerberos Key Distribution Center?
authentication server (AS) and ticket-granting server (TGS)
What is an evil twin?
an access point with the same SSID as the legitimate access point
What is a cookie?
a Web client test file that stores persistent settings for a Web server
What is the name for an encryption key that can be easily reverse-engineered from the encrypted data by brute force methods?
weak key
What is war chalking?
leaving signals about a wireless network on the outside of the building where it is housed
Which type of IDS detects attacks on individual devices?
host intrusion detection system (HIDS)
Which Ethernet standard uses a wireless access point with a Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS) server to authenticate wireless users?
802.1x
Using role-based access control (RBAC), which entities are assigned roles?
users or subjects
Can an expired digital certificate be renewed?
No
Which application or services uses TCP/UDP port 3389?
Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP)
Which type of attack allows an attacker to redirect Internet traffic by setting up a fake DNS server to answer client requests?
DNS spoofing
Which assessment examines whether network security practices follow a company's security policy?
an audit
Which three security features does Authentication Header (AH) provide?
integrity, authentication, and anti-replay service
What is the purpose of MAC filtering?
to restrict the clients that can access a wireless network
What is the default rule found in a firewall's access control list (ACL)?
Deny All
According to CompTIA's Security+ examination blueprint, what are the three listed security posture techniques for mitigation and deterrence?
initial baseline configuration, continuous security monitoring, and remediation
What is an attempt by someone to get one or more users to believe that a specific computer virus exists?
a hoax
Which risk response strategy involves purchasing insurance to protect the organization should the risk occur?
transference
What is header manipulation?
when a hacker is able to manipulate a packet header to deface, hijack, or poison the packet
What is the purpose of a file's MD5 hash value?
to verify file integrity
What is the primary function of LDAP?
Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) controls client access to directories
Certificate enrollment procedures typically require a user to provide proof of identify and which other item to a certification authority (CA)?
public key
Which Kerberos component holds all users' and services' cryptographic keys and generates tickets?
Key Distribution Center (KDC)
What is a Web security gateway?
a device that filters Web content
Do certificates provide encryption?
no
What is the purpose of GPS tracking on a mobile device?
It allows a mobile device to be located.
What portion(s) of the IP packet are encrypted in IPSec transport mode?
the payload
In which location should all changes made to your organization's network and computers be listed?
in the change management system
Which security protocol is the standard encryption protocol for use with the WPA2 standard?
Counter Mode Cipher Block Chaining Message Authentication Code Protocol (often abbreviated CCMP)
Which type of system identifies suspicious patterns that may indicate a network or system attack?
intrusion detection system (IDS)
What does the acronym KDC denote?
key distribution center
Which type of authentication is accomplished by authenticating both the client and server sides of a connection through the encrypted exchange of credentials?
mutual authentication
What should you do to ensure that a wireless access point signal does not extend beyond its needed range?
Reduce the power levels.
What is a hot site?
an alternate computing facility with telecommunications equipment and computers
What is the main difference between virtualization and cloud computing?
the location and ownership of the physical components
What is the purpose of embedding a timestamp within ciphertext?
It will decrease the chance of the message being replayed.
Why should the proper chain of custody be ensured?
so that evidence will be admissible in court
Which firewall port should you enable to allow SMTP traffic to flow through the firewall?
port 25
What is the primary purpose of Tripwire?
to monitor the baseline configuration of a system and the changes made to it
Which hashing algorithm produces a message digest of 160 bits in length?
Secure Hash Algorithm (SHA-1)
What are the four types of cloud computing based on management type?
public, private, hybrid, and community
In a secure network, what should be the default permission position?
implicit deny
Which type of cryptography is more secure: symmetric or asymmetric?
asymmetric
Which security control is lost when using cloud computing?
physical control of the data
When does fuzzing occur?
when unexpected values are provided as input to an application in an effort to make the application crash
Which policy forces all users to organize their work areas to reduce the risk of data theft?
a clean desk policy
Which security measure prevents fraud by reducing the chances of collusion?
separation of duties
What is the length of an IDEA key?
128 bits
What is a cold site?
an alternate computing facility with no telecommunications equipment or computers
Which virus creates many variants by modifying its code to deceive antivirus scanners?
a polymorphic virus
What occurs during grey-box testing?
Security professionals with limited inside knowledge of the network attempt to hack into the network.
Which type of malware appears to perform a valuable function, but actually performs malicious acts?
a Trojan horse
To provide checks and balances and to prevent one person from gaining too much power over a system, which type of security policy should you implement?
separation of duties
What is the purpose of MAC?
Message Authentication Cod helps protect against fraud in electronic fund transfers
Which Layer 3 device allows different logical networks to communicate?
router
What is the purpose of mobile device encryption?
to ensure that the contents of he mobile device are confidential
Which port number does HTTP use?
port 80
What is the term for the process that applies one-way communication function called a mesaage digest to an arbitrary amount of data?
hashing
Which type of access control is most suitable or top-secret information?
Mandatory access control (MAC)
What is microphobing?
an intrusive smart card attack in which the card is physically manipulated until the ROM chip can be accessed.