What personal barrier is the MOST cited as a barrier for exercise?
a) Lack of social support
b) A lack of time
c) Limited access to the exercise facility
d) Culturally inappropriate activities
A lack of time
Explanation:
A lack of time continues to be cited as the most important reason for not engaging in regular physical activity.
Lifting a barbell in a power rack a few inches until it is pressed or pulled against the rack's pins is known as:
a) Forced negatives
b) Partial repetition
c) Eccentric training
d) Functional isometrics
Functional isometrics
Explanation:
Functional isometrics (ISOM) involve lifting a barbell in a power rack a few inches until it is pressed or pulled against the rack's pins. The client continues to push and pull maximally for ~2 to 6 s with a high rate of
Which stretch is most effective for stretching the abdominal wall?
a) Supine rotation stretch
b) Arm hug
c) Arm across the chest
d) Modified cobra
Modified cobra
Explanation:
The modified cobra will stretch the abdominal wall.
Reference:
An appropriate progression for balance training should transition from:
a) In-motion to kneeling
b) Kneeling to standing on unstable surface
c) Sitting to standing
d) Sitting to in-motion on unstable surface
Sitting to standing
Progression in balance training should move from simple to complex such as sitting to standing.
The best exercise progression for a sedentary client who wants to begin downhill skiing again would be:
a) Jogging, downhill skiing, running,and cross country skiing
b) Jogging, running, aqua aerobics, and downhill skiing
c) Walking, jogging, cross countr
Walking, jogging, cross country skiing, and downhill skiing
Explanation:
Walking, jogging, cross country skiing, and downhill skiing is the safest progression.
It has been estimated that a total of ________ liters of fluid per day would be required to maintain normal hydration in athletes who are exercising at high altitude.
a) 3 to 4
b) 1 to 2
c) 7 to 8
d) 5 to 6
3 to 4
Explanation:
It has been estimated that a total of 3 to 4 liters of fluid per day would be required to maintain normal hydration in athletes who are exercising at high altitude.
Which of the following includes all components of a well-stated exercise goal?
a) Lose 15 pounds in 8 weeks through a program of low-intensity aerobic activity.
b) Lose 1 to 2 pounds per week over the next ten weeks, through a program of diet, aerobic exe
Lose 1 to 2 pounds per week over the next ten weeks, through a program of diet, aerobic exercise, and strength training.
An improper cool-down may cause which of the following?
a) Blood pooling in the legs
b) Blood pooling in the heart
c) Increased oxygen consumption
d) Increased hypertension
Blood pooling in the legs
Explanation:
A proper cool-down that allows for a gradual return toward baseline will help the client avoid postexercise hypotension (low blood pressure) and potential dizziness (due to blood pooling in the legs rather than flowi
Once the primary goal of a resistance program has been established, the next step is to determine:
a) the amount of overload, type of plyometrics, and limb velocities.
b) the amount of muscle hypertrophy.
c) the amount of neurological adaptations required
the specific joints, ROM, and types of muscle actions required.
During a standing calf raise, the knee should be ________.
a) Slightly flexed
b) Bent to 45�
c) Completely extended
d) Bent to 90�
Slightly flexed
Explanation:
Correct biomechanical technique for the standing calf raise includes placing the hips, knees, and ankles in line with the line of force, and keeping a slightly flexed position of the knees throughout the exercise. (less)
What is the maximum number of consecutive rest days in between exercise sessions for diabetic clients?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 4
d) 3
2
Explanation:
For diabetic clients, ACSM recommends 3 to 7 days per week with no more than 2 consecutive days between sessions of aerobic activity because of the relatively brief exercise-induced improvements in insulin action. (less)
The best progression for a balance training exercise with an older adult would be?
a) Standing on a bosu ball, standing on the floor single leg, seated on a physioball, seated arms crossed, seated closed eyes
b) Seated closed eyes, seated arms crossed, se
Seated closed eyes, seated arms crossed, seated on a physioball, standing on the floor single leg, standing on a bosu ball.
Explanation:
The best progression is seated closed eyes, seated arms crossed, seated on a physioball, standing on the floor single
Consider the following program: Peform a total of six exercises. Select one exercise from each of the following areas: hips and legs, chest, back, shoulders, low back, and abdominals, 1-2 sets, 8-12 reps, 2 to 3 times per week. For which client is such a
Beginner
Explanation:
Such a program is ideal for a beginning exerciser given the high number of repetitions and few sets.
For individuals with arthritis, a training session may have been too intense and may need to be modified if the client:
a) Experiences decreased range of motion in the trunk.
b) Reports of greater joint pain the following training session.
c) Experiences
Reports of greater joint pain the following training session.
Explanation:
If the client experiences greater joint pain following a training session, the session may have been too intense and may need to be modified.
Which back exercise would be the most sport-specific for swimming?
a) Bent-over-row
b) Seated row
c) Pull-up
d) Front raise
Pull-up
Explanation:
A pull-up has more carry over as it mimics the shoulder extension movement throughout swimming. (51)
Your client, who is a novice exerciser, wants to begin resistance training in preparation for a one-month backpacking trip he will be taking thorough the Rocky Mountains. Which of the following training sets and reps would be appropriate for the first few
1 to 3 sets of 8 to 12 reps
Explanation:
For this individual, 1 to 3 sets of 8 to 12 repetitions is most appropriate. It will provide an appropriate amount of volume and overload.
What exercise frequency is best for an apparently healthy senior adult?
a) Moderate-intensity exercise, performed 5 or more days per week
b) Vigorous-intensity exercise, performed 5 or more days per week.
c) Very low-intensity exercise, performed 6 or mor
Moderate-intensity exercise, performed 5 or more days per week
Explanation:
For an apparantly healthy senior adult, moderate-intensity exercise should be performed 5 or more days per week. vigorous-intensity activity on 3 or more days per week, or a combi
Which of the following results from regular resistance training?
a) Increased aerobic enzymes
b) Increase in bone density
c) Increase in respiratory capacity
d) Improved cardiac output efficiency
Increase in bone density
Explanation:
An evidence-based outcome from regular resistance training is an increase in bone density.
Reference:
A general training principle for cardiorespiratory endurance is that it requires:
a) Activities that involve major muscle groups and is continuous and rhythmic in nature.
b) Light-intensity exercises that are appropriate for conditioning in most adults.
c
Activities that involve major muscle groups and is continuous and rhythmic in nature.
Explanation:
Cardiorespiratory endurance training refers to the ability of an individual to perform large muscle, repetitive, moderate- to high-intensity exercise for an
When performing a stability ball crunch, which of the following movements indicates poor form?
a) The sacrum is touching the ball.
b) The ball moves back and forth.
c) The tongue is on the roof of the mouth.
d) The ball stays stationary.
The ball moves back and forth.
Explanation:
During a stability ball crunch, the ball should stay stationary so the hip flexors are not doing all the work and requiring a stronger core component .
When performing a dumbbell press on a stability ball that is load rated to safely support the weight and the client's body weight, the resistance should be ________ relative to performing the exercise on a flat bench.
a) Increased
b) No weight should be u
Decreased
Explanation:
A client should use a lighter resistance on a stability ball given the unstable surface and balance challenges of a stability ball.
Why are great volumes of sweat produced in hot, humid climates?
a) Sweat is too salty.
b) Sweat becomes ineffective.
c) Sweat evaporates.
d) Sweat glands close.
Sweat becomes ineffective.
Explanation:
Dehydration risk is high in extremely hot and humid environments because it is difficult to evaporate sweat into an environment that is already hot and humid. Sweat becomes ineffective as a way of dissipating heat,
Which sport will mostly cause a shoulder impingement due to overtraining?
a) Hockey
b) Swimming
c) Soccer
d) Golf
Swimming
Explanation:
Some of the predisposing factors for impingement syndrome include biomechanically unsound exercises and sports activities (e.g., swimming).
If an activity requires a functional capacity of 6 METs, what is the total oxygen consumption of someone performing that activity?
a) 21 mL�kg-1�min
b) 10.5 mL�kg-1�min
c) 6 mL�kg-1�min
d) 0.6 mL�kg-1�min
Swimming
Explanation:
Some of the predisposing factors for impingement syndrome include biomechanically unsound exercises and sports activities (e.g., swimming).
You are performing a submaximal treadmill test for your client where you are gradually increasing the speed and grade. You observe a normal response to heart rate and blood pressure during the first several stages. During the next increase in speed and gr
Terminate the assessment.
Explanation:
Exercise testing should be terminated in persons demonstrating a decrease in SBP during further exercise (exertional hypotension).
Which type of stretch would be best for opening up the external rotators of the hips?
a) Supine knee to chest stretch
b) Supine rotation stretch
c) Side lying quad stretch
d) Supine hip rotator stretch
Supine hip rotator stretch
Explanation:
During the supine hip rotator stretch, focus on opening up the right knee until tension develops in the outer portion of the right thigh.
To manipulate the intensity and increase the challenge of balance-related training, you should:
a) Narrow the base of support
b) Widen the base of support
c) Shift the line of gravity through rotary motion
d) Shift the line of gravity outside the base of
Narrow the base of support
Explanation:
To increase the intensity of a balance-related training program, progressively reduce the dynamic or static base of support.
How many sets per exercise should a client perform for advanced resistance training benefits?
a) 1 to 2
b) 3 to 6
c) 2 to 3
d) 6 to 8
3 to 6
Explanation:
For advanced resistance training benefits, the client should perform 3 to 6 sets per exercise.
Reference:
Bilateral ankle edema is a characteristic sign of:
a) A slight ankle sprain in both ankles.
b) Improper footwear during exercise.
c) Venous thrombosis or lymphatic blockage in the limb.
d) Heart failure or bilateral chronic venous insufficiency.
Heart failure or bilateral chronic venous insufficiency.
Explanation:
Bilateral ankle edema, which is most evident at night, is a characteristic sign of heart failure or bilateral chronic venous insufficiency.
Before you provide a spot to a novice client for a given strength exercise, you should first:
a) Ask how many sets the client plans on completing.
b) Be strong enough to hand off the resistance to the client.
c) Provide instruction on what muscles will be
Provide a detailed verbal and visual representation of the exercise.
Explanation:
Instruct via "tell, show, and do." The client should be comfortable with the movement before attempts are made that require spotting.
When a client takes the PAR-Q test, they should be referred to their doctor if they answer:
a) Yes to two or more questions.
b) No to any questions.
c) Yes to three or more questions.
d) Yes to one or more questions.
Yes to one or more questions.
Explanation:
If a client answers yes to one or more questions on the PAR-Q they should be referred to a physician.
An appropriate progression for balance training should transition from:
a) Kneeling to standing on unstable surface
b) Sitting to standing
c) Sitting to in-motion on unstable surface
d) In-motion to kneeling
Sitting to standing
Explanation:
Progression in balance training should move from simple to complex such as sitting to standing.
You have a 4'8" female client who is obese and would like to build lower body strength. Which exercise variation is best suited for her?
a) Leg curl machine
b) Kettle bell squat
c) Hip extension machine
d) Leg extension machine
Submit your answer
Kettle bell squat
Explanation:
Clients who are obese, who have special physical considerations or disabilities, and who are shorter, taller, or wider than the norm should consider exercise varations other than machines when appropriate. (less)
Which of the following assessments should not be used with beginners?
a) Step test
b) Rockport One-Mile Fitness Walking Test
c) Astrand-rhyming test
d) 1.5-mile test
1.5-mile test
Explanation:
The 1.5-mile test is contraindicated for unconditioned beginners, individuals with symptoms of heart disease, and those with known heart disease or risk factors for heart disease. Clients should be able to jog for 15 minutes con
Which of the following is one of the principal symptoms of cardiac and pulmonary disease?
a) Dyspnea
b) Valsalva maneuver
c) Ischemia
d) Tachycardia
Dyspnea
Explanation:
Dyspnea (defined as an abnormally uncomfortable awareness of breathing) is one of the principal symptoms of cardiac and pulmonary disease.
You client is a 57-year-old male with a history of low back issues. His blood pressure is under control with antihypertensive medication, and he walks daily for 30 minutes. Based on this data he has________ risk factors.
a) 3
b) 4
c) 1
d) 2
2
Explanation:
The client's age and antihypertensive medication make for two risk factors.
Which of the following advanced resistance training techniques should be used only 1 to 2 times per year for 4 to 6 week training cycles?
a) Forced negatives
b) Breakdown sets
c) Supersets
d) Plyometrics
Forced negatives
Explanation:
Repetitions during traditional sets can be enhanced with force applied to the ECC phase via the Personal Trainer (forced negatives). Heavy ECC training should be used with caution (4- to 6-week training cycles, 1 or 2 times p
Which of the following drills would be good for clients who want to improve their agility?
a) 100-meter dash progression, starting with 50 meters
b) Lateral box cone drill, moving quickly from one cone to the next in a diagonal pattern
c) Standing box jum
Lateral box cone drill, moving quickly from one cone to the next in a diagonal pattern
Explanation:
The lateral box cone drill which requires the participant to move quickly from one cone to the next in a diagonal pattern is a good example of an agility d
Which type of movement creates the MOST harmful stresses to the low back?
a) Adduction
b) Extension
c) Abduction
d) Rotation
Rotation
Explanation:
The anatomical design of the articulations of the spine is well suited for compressive forces, whereas rotational moments create potentially harmful stresses to these same structur ... (more)
Asking clients to document how they use their time for one week and identify areas where they can incorporate exercise is an example of:
a) Strategy of overcoming a personal barrier.
b) Strategy of overcoming a social barrier.
c) Strategy of overcoming an
Strategy of overcoming a personal barrier.
Explanation:
Asking clients to track their time and figure ways to incorporate exercise is an example of overcoming a personal barrier of lack of time.
Which of the following would be a good warm-up for a healthy adult who is about to take a 3-mile run?
a) Running at an intensity of 65% to 75% HRR for 5 minutes
b) Jogging at an intensity of 60% to70% of HRR for 3 to 5 minutes
c) Light walking, then joggi
Light walking, then jogging for 5 to 10 minutes
Explanation:
The warm-up is, at a minimum, 5 to 10 minutes of low to moderate activity intended to literally warm up the muscles in preparation for the conditioning phase.
Which type of activity would benefit from having ballistic stretching in the warm-up?
a) Cycling
b) Basketball
c) Running
d) Swimming
Basketball
Explanation:
When properly performed, even ballistic or "bouncing" stretches can be as effective as static stretches for increasing joint ROM in individuals engaging in activities that involve ballistic movements such as tennis or basketball. (
A 33-year-old female has a bench press weight ratio of .63. What rep range would you start her with?
a) 15 to 20
b) 10 to 15
c) 4 to 6
d) 8 to 12
Submit your answer
8 to 12
Explanation:
A score of .63 is good; therefore, the rep range should be 8 to 12.
Which of the following is MOST appropriate for a novice athlete starting plyometric training?
a) Jumps in place
b) Hops and bounds
c) Single linear jumps
d) Multiple linear hops
Jumps in place
Explanation:
Plyometric training should begin with jumps in place with gradual progression in intensity.
Optimal client goals should be ________.
a) 3 months
b) 6 months
c) T.A.L.L.
d) S.M.A.L.L.
S.M.A.L.L.
Explanation:
According to the small changes model, goals should be small, (self-selected, measurable, action oriented, linked to your life, and long term).
What is the primary advantage of the increase in blood volume that results from chronic aerobic exercise?
a) Decreased cardiac stress
b) Reduced work environment for the heart
c) Improved VO2max
d) Enhanced oxygen delivery to working muscles
Enhanced oxygen delivery to working muscles
Explanation:
Benefits of regular physical activity include an increase in oxygen delivery to the working muscles.
Which muscles act as agonists muscles during a lateral cable leg lift?
a) Peroneals
b) Adductor brevis
c) Gluteus medius and minimus
d) Sartorius
Gluteus medius and minimus
Explanation:
The gluteus medius and minimus lie deep to the gluteus maximus and are abductors and medial rotators of the hip.
An advanced client is training with the goal of increasing strength. He has been performing 3 sets, using a 8 to 12 repetition maximum for the past 8 weeks. Which modification will result in the GREATEST strength gains?
a) 3 sets, 15 to 20 reps maximum, u
3 to 5 sets, 5 to 6 reps maximum, for 6 to 12 weeks
Explanation:
Since the current program has been focusing primarily on muscular endurance, an increase that would be considered progressive and enhance strength would be 5 to 6 reps maximum.
Which of the following muscles may be weak if a client has a "winging" scapula during a push-up?
a) Pec major
b) Rhomboids
c) Serratus anterior
d) Pec minor
Serratus anterior
Explanation:
The serratus anterior protracts the scapula and is active in reaching and pushing. Winging of the scapula results from serratus anterior dysfunction, which is possibly related to long thoracic nerve dysfunction. (less)
An example of variety in training is:
a) Progressive overload.
b) Periodized training.
c) Specific adaptations to imposed demands.
d) Prioritized training.
Periodized training.
Explanation:
No one program should be used without changing the exercise stimulus over time. Periodized training is an example of increasing variety in training.
Which type of routine would be best for a client with low back pain?
a) Light rowing machine work to strengthen the low back.
b) Restorative exercise designed to improve the structural integrity of the lower trunk
c) Flexion and rotation exercises of the
Restorative exercise designed to improve the structural integrity of the lower trunk
Explanation:
Restorative exercise designed to improve the structural integrity of the lower trunk are the best choice for clients with low back pain. It is important to i
The minimum number of minutes of vigorous-intensity aerobic activity needed five days each week is:
a) 10 minutes
b) 20 minutes
c) 15 minutes
d) 30 minutes
20 minutes
Explanation:
All healthy adults ages 18 to 65 need 20 minutes of vigorous-intensity aerobic activity five days each week.
The side-lying quadriceps stretch would be most appropriate for which client?
a) Male
b) Obese client
c) Athlete
d) Female
Obese client
Explanation:
The side-lying quadriceps stretch is most appropriate for an obese client as they have a hard time reaching the back foot to get a stretch.
Which of the following is a component of a well-stated goal that will help ensure program satisfaction?
a) Flexible
b) Time-oriented
c) Competitive
d) Precise
Time-oriented
Explanation:
Another prominent tool that can help Personal Trainers and clients to remember effective goal-setting strategies is the acronym: SMART (specific, measurable, achievable, realistic, and time-oriented). (less)
During the kneeling hip flexor stretch, where should the upper body be?
a) Lifted tall
b) Leaning away from the front knee
c) Draped over the knee
d) In a back bend
Lifted tall
Explanation:
During the kneeling hip flexor stretch, shift the weight forward while keeping the upper body lifted.
An ideal exercise to improve the activities of daily living for a client who has back pain would be:
a) The supine leg press.
b) The leg extension machine.
c) A squat against the wall with a stability ball behind the back.
d) Bosu ball squat holding dumbb
A squat against the wall with a stability ball behind the back.
Explanation:
Performing a wall squat with a stability ball behind the client's back is the best choice as it supports the back while training the leg muscles and incorporating the core.
To minimize any type of detraining effects, strength training should primarily consist of:
a) Isokinetic training
b) Eccentric training.
c) Concentric training.
d) Isometric training.
Concentric training.
Explanation:
Concentric-only training appears to be less resistant to detraining.
Which of the following is indicative of heat stroke?
a) Fatigue, weakness, and headache
b) Red, hot, sweaty skin
c) Altered mental status
d) Increased body temperature
Increased body temperature
Explanation:
High body temperature and dry skin are warning signs of potential heat stroke.
Which of the following is a benefit of using a machine versus free-weight exercise?
a) Machines readily allow for power training.
b) Machines better accommodate linear resistance and its range of motion.
c) Machines are more practical when training certai
Machines are more practical when training certain populations.
Explanation:
Machine exercises may be more useful than free-weight exercises in some special populations. One reason for this is that machines are often perceived to be less intimidating to a
Measuring a client's exercise intensity using the Karvonen formula would be best for which client?
a) Athlete
b) Hypertensive client
c) Pregnant woman
d) Obese male
Athlete
Explanation:
The Karvonent method for exercise heart rate calculation should be used by individuals who are able to self-monitor properly with a more precise exercise intensity
Which statement would be best when describing why an older adult client needs a balance exercise?
a) Dynamic balance is essential to decrease your risk for falling. It is really simple; just walk on the floor as if you are on a tight rope.
b) Balance exer
Dynamic balance is essential to decrease your risk for falling. It is really simple; just walk on the floor as if you are on a tight rope.
Explanation:
A dynamic balance exercise involves transferring body weight from one foot to the other; for example, p
During the 1 RM bench press, it is important to ________.
a) Avoid the Valsalva maneuver
b) Not lock the arms
c) keep the hands close together
d) Inhale as you press the bar up
Avoid the Valsalva maneuver
Explanation:
During the 1 RM Bench press assessment, be mindful of breathing and avoid a Valsalva maneuver (holding breath).
A 29-year-old male has a bench press weight ratio of 1.48. What rep range would you start him with?
a) 8 to 12
b) 4 to 6
c) 10 to 15
d) 15 to 20
8 to 12
Explanation:
A score of 1.48 is excellent; therefore, the rep range should be 8 to 12.
Which of the following advanced resistance training techniques should be used only 1 to 2 times per year for 4 to 6 week training cycles?
a) Supersets
b) Plyometrics
c) Forced negatives
d) Breakdown sets
Forced negatives
Explanation:
Repetitions during traditional sets can be enhanced with force applied to the ECC phase via the Personal Trainer (forced negatives). Heavy ECC training should be used with caution (4- to 6-week training cycles, 1 or 2 times p
Which of the following alters the resistance throughout an exercise's ROM in an attempt to match increases and decreases in the strength curve of a muscle?
a) Cable crossover machine
b) Variable resistance equipment
c) Elastic resistance bands
d) Eccentri
Variable resistance equipment
Explanation:
Variable resistance equipment operates through a lever arm, cam, or pulley arrangement. Its purpose is to alter the resistance throughout the exercise's ROM in an attempt to match the increases and decreases in s
During a forward lunge, the shin on the front leg should be:
a) 35� to the ankle.
b) Inside the hip.
c) 120� to the ankle
d) Vertical.
Vertical.
Explanation:
During a forward lunge, the shin should be vertical to protect the knee.
Which principle can help reduce the risk of overtraining?
a) Periodization
b) Progressive overload
c) S.A.I.D
d) Specificity
Periodization
Explanation:
Periodization is the phasic manipulation of the training variables (volume, intensity, frequency, and rest intervals) as a means of optimizing desired physiological outcomes while concurrently reducing the incidence of overtrain
The adage "use it or lose it" basically states that physiological gains from training:
a) Will gradually decrease 1% per year with respect to strength gains.
b) Are typically permanent in nature.
c) Must be maintained through regular training.
d) Will gra
Must be maintained through regular training.
Explanation:
The adage "use it or lose it" implies that training-induced adaptations cannot be stored and continued training is essential to maintain or improve fitness.
Your client who is a novice exerciser demonstrates that he can perform a 1 repetition maximum bench press at 100 lbs. What would be an appropriate starting resistance for the first set of 12 repetitions?
a) 50 to 55 lbs
b) 40 to 45 lbs
c) 65 to 70 lbs
d)
65 to 70 lbs
Explanation:
To improve muscular fitness, typically 8 to 12 repetitions per set are completed, at an intensity of between 60% and 80% of the client's one repetition maximum.
The ideal resistance training repetition range and set range for a healthy adult just starting an exercise program, with no previous exercise history, would be:
a) 6 to 8 reps, for 1 to 2 sets, 3 to 4 times per week.
b) 15 to 20 reps, for 1 to 2 sets, 3 t
8 to 12 reps, for 1 to 2 sets, 2 to 3 times per week.
Explanation:
It is important to start a healthy adult who is just beginning an exercise program with 8 to 12 reps, for 1 to 2 sets, 2 to 3 times per week so they see improvement in strength gains witho
A female client who is 150 pounds and 5 feet, 8 inches tall would have a BMI of:
a) 20.4
b) 26.8
c) 24
d) 22.8
22.8
Explanation:
For example, an individual who weighs 150 pounds and is 5 feet, 8 inches tall has a BMI of: 5 ft 8 in = 173 cm = 1.73 m = 2.99 m2 and 150 lbs = 68.18 kg. Therefore, BMI = 68.18/2.99 = 22.8 kg � m-2. (less)
Your client has a set a goal of running 3 times per week, for 2 months, in order to increase his fitness level and lose weight. What is the best way to measure this goal?
a) Measure his VO2max max weekly and track his miles for the week.
b) Track the dura
Seated closed eyes, seated arms crossed, seated on a physioball, standing on the floor single leg, standing on a bosu ball.
Explanation:
The best progression is seated closed eyes, seated arms crossed, seated on a physioball, standing on the floor single
For a Type I diabetic, which of the following blood glucose levels is an indication to ingest a carbohydrate snack?
a) 110 mg� dL-1
b) 88 mg� dL-1
c) 215 mg� dL-1
d) 155 mg� dL-1
88 mg� dL-1
Explanation:
Ideally blood glucose needs to be between 100 and 250 mg� dL-1. If it is below these levels, the client should eat a carbohydrate-rich snack to elevate blood glucose accordingly before training begins
What would be the best time under tension for a beginning exerciser doing the plank?
a) 45 seconds
b) 60 seconds
c) 30 seconds
d) 15 seconds
15 seconds
Correct
Explanation:
Many clients find it challenging to maintain the prone-prop position for even 30 to 60 seconds while keeping the scapulae depressed.
When describing cardiorespiratory fitness, the central oxygen delivery processes refers to:
a) Activity of the heart and circulatory system.
b) Oxygen exchange in the lungs.
c) Metabolic creation of ATP.
d) Chemical reactions in muscle cells.
Activity of the heart and circulatory system.
Correct
Explanation:
Cardiorespiratory fitness is a function of enhancing both the central oxygen delivery (i.e. heart and circulatory) processes and the peripheral oxygen-uptake mechanisms of the working musc
A measure of cardiorespiratory fitness improvement includes:
a) Increased respiration rate at maximal workload.
b) Increased heart rate at a given submaximal workload.
c) Increased maximal oxygen consumption.
d) Increased VO at a given submaximal workload
Increased maximal oxygen consumption.
Explanation:
Typical measurements used to determine improvements in cardiorespiratory fitness include increases in maximal oxygen consumption and decreases in heart rate or VO in response to a given submaximal workloa
Which of the following types of resistance training allows an individual to exert maximal resistance throughout an entire range of motion by controlling the movement speed?
You selected:
Isokinetic
Explanation:
Isokinetic devices allow one to maintain a maximum resistance throughout the whole ROM by controlling the speed of the movement.
Your client has a set a goal of running 3 times per week, for 2 months, in order to increase his fitness level and lose weight. What is the best way to measure this goal?
Track the duration and intensity for each workout in a daily log.
Explanation:
It is important for clients to track their goal specific to the goal, so here the client needs to track duration and frequency daily.
When using variable-resistance devices, what are the three types of strength curves?
a) Ascending, descending, and bell-shaped
b) Lever 1, level 2, and lever 3
c) Strength, endurance, and power
d) Primary, secondary, and stabilize
Ascending, descending, and bell-shaped
Explanation:
There are three major types of strength curves with variable-resistance devices: ascending, descending, and bell-shaped.
Your 38-year-old female client wants to lose weight, but is a concerned that resistance training will make her "bulk-up." You should:
a) Show empathy and assure her that you will design a program that will help her to get toned without bulking up.
b) Expl
Explain how resistance training can gain lean body mass and raise resting metabolism.
Explanation:
Educate the client about the meaning of "toning up" and the importance of increasing lean body mass, while also promoting cardiorespiratory exercise as a wa
When demonstrating a push-up for a client, which of the following cues should you use?
a) Keep your head in line with your hips during the entire movement.
b) Be sure to keep a hyperlordosis in your lumbar spine.
c) Make sure your fingers are at 15� angle
Keep your head in line with your hips during the entire movement.
Explanation:
It is important to main a neutral spine during a push-up to protect the body.
An advanced client is training with the goal of increasing strength. He has been performing 3 sets, using a 8 to 12 repetition maximum for the past 8 weeks. Which modification will result in the GREATEST strength gains?
3 to 5 sets, 5 to 6 reps maximum, for 6 to 12 weeks
Explanation:
Since the current program has been focusing primarily on muscular endurance, an increase that would be considered progressive and enhance strength would be 5 to 6 reps maximum.
Which of the following is considered a risk factor for Atherosclerotic Cardiovascular Disease (CVD)?
a) Woman, age 45
b) BMI of 27
c) Sedentary
d) HDL = 70
Sedentary
Explanation:
Not participating in at least 30 minutes of moderate-intensity physical activity (40%-<60% VO2R), at least 3 days per week, for at least 3 months, is considered sedentary and a risk factor for CVD. (less)
You are working with an older adult who is on high blood pressure medication. What is the best way to monitor his cardiovascular intensity?
a) Age-predicted maximum heart rate
b) RPE scale 0-10
c) Talk test
d) Karvonen formula
RPE scale 0-10
Explanation:
Monitor exercise intensity with the RPE scale whenever working with an older adult or special population because the heart rate formulas are not accurate and the talk test would not be as accurate and as measurable as the RPE s
Your client has a set a goal of running 3 times per week, for 2 months, in order to increase his fitness level and lose weight. What is the best way to measure this goal?
Track the duration and intensity for each workout in a daily log.
Explanation:
It is important for clients to track their goal specific to the goal, so here the client needs to track duration and frequency daily.
What are the four phases of traditional linear periodization?
a) Hypertrophy phase, recovery phase, strength/power phase, and peak phase
b) Strength/power phase, hypertrophy phase, peak phase, and recovery phase
c) Strength/power phase, hypertrophy phase,
Hypertrophy phase, strength/power phase, peak phase, and recovery phase
Explanation:
Hypertrophy phase, strength/power phase, peak phase, and recovery phase are the four phases of a linear progression.
Asking clients to document how they use their time for one week and identify areas where they can incorporate exercise is an example of:
a) Strategy of overcoming a impersonal barrier.
b) Strategy of overcoming a personal barrier.
c) Strategy of overcomin
Strategy of overcoming a personal barrier.
During the weight-bearing phase of gait, the ________ acts like a spring to store mechanical energy that is then released during foot push-off.
a) Lateral malleolus
b) Medial malleolus
c) Achilles tendon
d) Plantar fascia
Plantar fascia
Explanation:
During the weight-bearing phase of gait, the plantar fascia acts like a spring to store mechanical energy that is then released during foot push-off.
Target exercise intensity for clients with cardiovascular disease should fall ________ below a heart rate that has previously elicited abnormal clinical symptoms.
a) 5 to 10 beats per minute
b) 15 to 20 beats per minute
c) 20 to 30 beats per minute
d) 10
10 to 15 beats per minute
Explanation:
Target exercise intensity should fall 10 and 15 beats per minute below a heart rate that has previously elicited abnormal clinical symptoms (i.e., chest pain or other angina symptoms). (
When exercising, which statement is most true about breathing?
a) Clients should breath out during the eccentric phase of the exercise.
b) Clients should inhale during the contraction phase of the exercise.
c) Clients should never hold their breath during
Clients should never hold their breath during any contraction.
Explanation:
Clients should never hold their breath during any contraction. This increases intrathoracic pressure, and as a result increases BP, which may or may not be dangerous for a specifi
When a client has a "winging" scapula at the end of the push phase of a push-up, the ________ muscle is probably weak.
Serratus anterior
Explanation:
During the final push phase of a push-up the serratus anterior must be strong to complete the movement and prevent the scapula from winging
When stepping up and down on a device for cardiovascular training, you should:
a) Look down at your feet the entire time.
b) Use the arm rests as much as possible.
c) Keep your body upright and push through the heels.
d) Lean forward, and try to stay on t
Keep your body upright and push through the heels.
Your regular female client becomes dizzy after a weight training session. Your best response would be to:
a) Make note and reduce the load for the next workout
b) Switch her to cardio training only
c) Switch from strength training to circuit training
d) R
Refer her to her physician
Which of the following BEST describes the physiological principle associated with the Valsalva maneuver?
a) It increases intra-thoracic pressure, which results in decreased stroke volume.
b) It decreases intra-thoracic pressure, which results in increased
It increases intra-thoracic pressure, which results in decreased stroke volume.
Explanation:
The Valsalva maneuver results in a decreased stroke volume due to forceful air expiration against a closed glottis.
Exercise prescription parameters for clients with osteoporosis include which respective recommendations for frequency, intensity, and duration?
a) 2 to 3 days, 40%-59% VO2max, for 20 minutes
b) 3 to 5 days, 75%-85% VO2max, for 30 to 60 minutes
c) 3 to 5 d
3 to 5 days, 40%-59% VO2max, for 30 to 60 minutes
Explanation:
Exercise should be performed at a lower intensity on nonconsecutive days with as long duration as tolerated.
Types of equipment used for dynamic constant external resistance include:
a) Unstable platform devices
b) Dumbbells and kettlebells
c) Cable crossover machines
d) Machines with cams
Dumbbells and kettlebells
Explanation:
The types of devices used for dynamic constant external resistance include dumbbells, barbells, kettle bells, weight machines, and medicine balls. These are generally devices that do not use pulleys or levers. (
Children are more prone to ________ injuries than adults.
a) Heat
b) Ankle
c) Tendon
d) Cold
Heat
Explanation:
Children have underdeveloped thermoregulatory systems and subsequently are more prone to heat injuries than their adult counterparts.
The best cardiovascular training routine for someone with diabetes is:
a) 2 to 3 times per week for 30-60 minutes.
b) 10 minutes most days of the week.
c) Daily for 20 to 60 minutes.
d) 3 to 5 times per week for 10 to 20 minutes.
Daily for 20 to 60 minutes.
Explanation:
Consistency in a daily routine is the major pillar in diabetes care.
A 40-year-old homemaker has come to you to lose weight and reduce back pain. You realize she uses her pain to get attention from her family. Which statement would best motivate her to begin a strengthening program?
a) Strength training will make you feel
Starting a strengthening program will reduce your back pain and improve your quality of life, enabling you to spend more positive time with your family.
Explanation:
It may be helpful for the Personal Trainer to address the client's fear of losing family
Which type of training takes advantage of the stretch-shortening cycle of the muscle?
a) Breakdown sets
b) Plyometric training
c) Forced repetitions
d) Olympic lifts
Plyometric training
Explanation:
Plyometric actions encompass the stretch-shortening cycle (SSC) where the lengthening or prestretching of skeletal muscles under loading enables a more forceful CON muscle action.
Which type of routine would be best for a client with low back pain?
a) Restorative exercise designed to improve the structural integrity of the lower trunk
b) Stretching all the lower trunk and lower leg muscles.
c) Flexion and rotation exercises of the
Restorative exercise designed to improve the structural integrity of the lower trunk
Explanation:
Restorative exercise designed to improve the structural integrity of the lower trunk are the best choice for clients with low back pain. It is important to i
What does the 1 RM bench press assess?
a) It measures the strength of the muscles involved in horizontal abduction.
b) It measures the strength of the muscles involved in shoulder adduction.
c) It measures the strength of the muscles involved in arm exten
It measures the strength of the muscles involved in arm extension.
Explanation:
Research has shown that the single best weightlifting test for predicting total dynamic strength is the 1RM bench press. This test measures the strength of the muscles involve
When spotting the elbow extension exercise, where is the best place to spot?
a) Place your hands on the client's shoulders
b) Assist by pressing the bar with the client.
c) Place your hands on the client's elbows
d) Hold the client's torso upright.
Place your hands on the client's elbows
Explanation:
When performing elbow extension exercises, it is sometimes helpful for the Personal Trainer to place his or her hands on the client's elbows as a reminder to keep the elbow from pointing outward. (less)
Seeking client feedback demonstrates which of the following to the client?
a) You are open to modifying training parameters while still working toward established goals.
b) The client is properly engaged in the training session activities.
c) The client i
You are attentive to the client's needs and well-being.
Explanation:
Effective training requires that Personal Trainers pay special attention to feedback from their clients.
Which repetition range would be best suited for a health older adult?
a) 20 to 25
b) 10 to 15
c) 8 to 10
d) 4 to 6
0 to 15
Explanation:
The ideal rep range for older adults is 10 to 15 as it allows for strength gains without putting too much load on the body.
The best way to address all types of learning styles when teaching a new resistance training exercise is to:
a) Give auditory and visual cues.
b) Demonstrate the exercise.
c) Use the tell-show-do method.
d) Give visual cues.
Use the tell-show-do method.
Explanation:
The best way to address visual, auditory, and kinesthetic learning styles is to tell someone how to do an exercise, show someone show to do an exercise, and have the person do the exercise with your help.
During a back squat, the feet should be in which position?
a) Shoulder-width apart and slightly turned out
b) Wider than shoulder-width apart and slightly turned in
c) Shoulder-width apart with heels lifted
d) A little closer than shoulder-width apar
Shoulder-width apart and slightly turned out
Explanation:
To perform a back squat, place the barbell on the back of the shoulders, and grasp the barbell at the sides, with feet shoulder-width apart, toes slightly out.
Which of the following BEST describes the physiological principle associated with the Valsalva maneuver?
It increases intra-thoracic pressure, which results in decreased stroke volume.
Explanation:
The Valsalva maneuver results in a decreased stroke volume due to forceful air expiration against a closed glottis.
During the weight-bearing phase of gait, the ________ acts like a spring to store mechanical energy that is then released during foot push-off.
a) Medial malleolus
b) Plantar fascia
c) Achilles tendon
d) Lateral malleolus
Plantar fascia
Correct
Explanation:
During the weight-bearing phase of gait, the plantar fascia acts like a spring to store mechanical energy that is then released during foot push-off.
What tools do athletes use for variable resistance training?
a) TRX
b) Bosu ball
c) Chains
d) Kettle bells
Submit your answer
Chains
Explanation:
Bands and chains come in different sizes and provide a variety of resistance levels. The bench press is commonly used.
What is the primary advantage of the increase in blood volume that results from chronic aerobic exercise?
a) Enhanced oxygen delivery to working muscles
b) Reduced work environment for the heart
c) Improved VO2max
d) Decreased cardiac stress
Enhanced oxygen delivery to working muscles
Explanation:
Benefits of regular physical activity include an increase in oxygen delivery to the working muscles.
Which of the following clients with a known cardiovascular disease would be classified as low risk for exercise?
a) A client with a resting blood pressure of 145/91 mm Hg
b) A client with diabetes and hypertension
c) A client with dyslipidemia and obesity
A client with a resting blood pressure of 145/91 mm Hg
Explanation:
For low-risk clients with isolated stage 1 hypertension (140-159/90-99 mm Hg), exercise testing generally is not necessary for clearance to engage in up to moderate-intensity exercise. (l
Bilateral ankle edema is a characteristic sign of...
Heart failure or bilateral chronic venous insufficiency.
Explanation:
Bilateral ankle edema, which is most evident at night, is a characteristic sign of heart failure or bilateral chronic venous insufficiency.
The best cardiovascular training routine for someone with diabetes is:
Daily for 20 to 60 minutes.
Correct
Explanation:
Consistency in a daily routine is the major pillar in diabetes care.
Joseph has reached his strength and body composition goals by strength training three days per week for an hour the last few months. He now wants to focus on maintaining his strength while on summer vacation for a month. Which program would be MOST approp
Decrease exercise to two days per week, training the total body a least one set.
Explanation:
Single set programs are effective for developing and maintaining a certain level of muscular strength and endurance.
Which of the following routines is an example of specificity training for a runner?
a) Resistance training for the lower body, 3 times a week, using 4 to 8 reps
b) Resistance training most days of the week for the entire body using 6 to 8 reps
c) Resistan
Resistance training for the entire body, 3 times a week, using 15 to 20 reps
Explanation:
Only the muscles that are trained will adapt and change in response to a given program. Resistance programs must target all muscles for which a training effect is de
An experienced client has good flexibility and would like to address functional flexibility during his post-exercise stretching routine. He should incorporate:
a) Myofascial release and active isolated stretchin.g
b) Active isolated stretching and ballist
Static stretching and proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation.
Explanation:
These techniques are appropriate for certified fitness professionals to use with clients if properly educated on the technique. While there are variations of Proprioceptive Neur
Functional isometric strength training is effective when performed near the sticking point or ________ of the exercise.
a) Weak point
b) Lengthened muscle contraction
c) Shortened muscle contraction
d) Strong point
Weak point
Explanation:
Functional isometrics (ISOM) can be performed in multiple areas of the ROM, but are effective when performed near the sticking region (or weak point) of the exercise.
What is the ideal repetition range for an apparently healthy adult who wants to gain muscle hypertrophy?
a) 4 to 6
b) 6 to 12
c) 12 to 15
d) 15 to 20
6 to 12
Explanation:
A recent review of the literature recommends a range of approximately 6 to 12 repetitions to optimize metabolic stress leading to hypertrophic adaptations.
When describing cardiorespiratory fitness, the central oxygen delivery processes refers to:
a) Activity of the heart and circulatory system.
b) Metabolic creation of ATP.
c) Chemical reactions in muscle cells.
d) Oxygen exchange in the lungs.
...
Your client is performing a strength exercise that is new to him. He states that he feels some discomfort in his right shoulder after the first set. You should:
a) Refer the client to a physician to have his shoulders examined.
b) Switch to another exerci
...
Which of the following types of resistance training allows an individual to exert maximal resistance throughout an entire range of motion by controlling the movement speed?
a) Eccentric
b) Isokinetic
c) Isotonic
d) Concentric
Submit your answer
...
Which of the following exercise intensities would be best for a pregnant woman?
a) RPE of 12 to 14 on the 6-20 RPE scale
b) 60% to 75% of VO2max
c) 50% to 60 % of HRR
d) 60% to 70% of HRR
...
...
240
Explanation:
For obese clients, weight loss and enhanced prevention of weight regained will likely need much greater weekly doses, approximately 250 to 300 minutes or 2,000 kcal of moderate-intensity physical activity.
Deborah recently went through menopause and is finding that maintaining her weight isn't as easy as it used to be and she would like to lose weight. Her husband is not supportive of exercise, and Deborah is not motivated without his support. What is the b
Revisit Deborah's motivations for exercise, and encourage her to replace her weight loss goals with goals related to meeting new people, relieving stress, and feeling good.
Explanation:
Deborah's self-esteem and poor body image may be discouraging her fro
Functional isometric strength training is effective when performed near the sticking point or ________ of the exercise.
a) Weak point
b) Lengthened muscle contraction
c) Shortened muscle contraction
d) Strong point
Weak point
Explanation:
Functional isometrics (ISOM) can be performed in multiple areas of the ROM, but are effective when performed near the sticking region (or weak point) of the exercise.
When demonstrating a bicep curl for your client using dumbbells, which of the following cues should you give?
a) Make sure you curl your wrists as you reach the end range to maximize the bicep's contraction.
b) It is important that the elbows remain at le
Be sure not to swing your arms and throw your back into the exercise.
Explanation:
During a bicep curl it is important not to swing the weight and use the low back.
A client with hardly any regular past exercise history plans to work with you for 8 weeks as she is ready to get fit and lose weight. Based on this information, what would be the MOST effective way to help her to become regularly active and work toward he
30, shorter multiple bouts
Explanation:
ACSM guidelines recommend a 30-minute per day progression that gradually advances to 50 minutes. Multiple bouts are indicated for those deconditioned
Which of the following clients with a known cardiovascular disease would be classified as low risk for exercise?
a) A client with dyslipidemia and obesity
b) A client with a resting blood pressure of 145/91 mm Hg
c) A client with diabetes and hypertension
A client with a resting blood pressure of 145/91 mm Hg
Explanation:
For low-risk clients with isolated stage 1 hypertension (140-159/90-99 mm Hg), exercise testing generally is not necessary for clearance to engage in up to moderate-intensity exercise.
Which of the following is one of the principal symptoms of cardiac and pulmonary disease?
a) Tachycardia
b) Dyspnea
c) Valsalva maneuver
d) Ischemia
Dyspnea
Explanation:
Dyspnea (defined as an abnormally uncomfortable awareness of breathing) is one of the principal symptoms of cardiac and pulmonary disease.
During resistance training, it is important not to perform ________.
a) Less that 15 reps
b) More than 4 reps
c) A circuit
d) Valsalva maneuver
Valsalva maneuver
Explanation:
Do not perform the Valsalva maneuver during resistance training as it can cause harm to the body.
Reference:
A highly trained male athlete, age 25, with a resting heart rate of 50, increases his VO2max by exercising at which of the following heart rate ranges?
a) 166 to 185 bpm
b) 173 to 188 bpm
c) 145 to 155 bpm
d) 165 to 175 bpm
173 to 188 bpm
Explanation:
In contrast to moderately trained individuals, highly trained athletes may train at 95% VO2max or higher.
Which of the following is an example of the type of questions that must be asked continuously in regards to client goal development?
a) Is the goal determined by the client?
b) Is the goal something the trainer believes is achievable for the client?
c) Is
Is it vital to the program's success to achieve the particular training goal?
Explanation:
There are many types of clinical decisions that must be made when monitoring the progress of resistance training programs. Difficult questions must be continually a
Frontal Plane Movements
side to side... Ex: Raising arms and legs out to the side
Transverse Pane Movements
Twisitng or rotational.... Example: turning head
Sagittal Plane Movements
front to back..... walking, squatting, pushing, pulling,
Flexion
joint decreases... known as bending
Extension
movement increases.... straightening