Antisocial behavior
Those researchers who advocate for a fourth core factor in psychopathy argue that ________ should be included with the three core factors.
Neurological
Robert Hare's definition of primary psychopathy includes emotional, ________, and cognitive aspects.
30
Currently, Hare's PCL-R is the best measure available of identifying criminal psychopaths. According to Hare, what score must a person receive on this scale to be considered a criminal psychopath?
Conscience; empathy
Robert Hare notes that true psychopaths are completely lacking in ________ and ________.
Linguistic processing
Robert Hare's research studies have found that criminal psychopaths appear to be deficient in ________.
True
Deficits in measures of skin conductance arousal are believed to be associated with low autonomic arousal levels.
Secondary psychopaths
Those psychopaths who commit antisocial or violent acts because of severe emotional problems or inner conflicts are referred to as ________.
True
Research indicates that the recidivism rate associated with psychopaths is very high.
False
Current research on gender differences suggests that psychopathic women far outnumber psychopathic men.
Some researchers are concerned about the negative implications of labeling juveniles as psychopaths
Which of the following statements about juvenile psychopathy is correct?
Underaroused
Generally speaking, the autonomic nervous system of the psychopath appears to be comparatively ________.
Obtain adequate stimulation
The behavior of the psychopath appears to be primarily an attempt to _________.
False
Only the secondary psychopath is a "true" psychopath.
15-25%
Although questioned by some, most estimates of the prevalence of psychopaths in the adult prison population range from ________.
Dyssocial
According to Robert Hare, antisocial individuals who display aggressive behavior learned from their subculture are ________ psychopaths.
I did it for the hell of it
A psychopath would most likely explain his criminal behavior by saying which of the following?
True
The core behavioral dimension that reflects the interpersonal and emotional components, such as callousness and manipulation of others, is referred to as psychopathic Factor 1.
Are less sensitive and alert to their environment
Research by Robert Hare on the orienting response suggests that psychopaths ________.
Semantic aphasia
Quay has said that psychopaths "know the words but not the music" in reference to their lack of real emotion. This is also known as ________.
Factor analysis
The core factors of psychopathy have been identified by a statistical method called
Patrick Bateman
Which individual was NOT mentioned in the chapter as a likely example of a psychopath?
Factor 2
The core behavioral dimension that reflects a socially deviant life style, such as impulsiveness, excessive need for stimulation, and lack of realistic goals is referred to as psychopathic ________.
True
Psychopathy Screening Device or the PSD is one of the measures specifically designed to identify youths with psychopathic characteristics.
False
In the two-factor scheme, Factor 2 reflects the interpersonal and emotional components of the disorder and consists of items measuring remorselessness, callousness, and selfish use and manipulation of others
Hyperactivity
The childhood of the psychopath is often characterized by ________.
Egocentricity
According to Cleckley, which absolute unchanging characteristic is always present in the psychopath?
Three or more factors
Recent research using factor analysis on the behavioral characteristics suggests that there appear(s) to be ________ that adequately describe(s) the behavioral dimensions of psychopaths.
Emotional intelligence
According to the DSM-IV, which of the following is NOT a symptom of antisocial personality disorder?
False
Mental health courts are alternative, specialized courts that are designed to treat offenders with a history of substance abuse.
Dissociative identity disorder
Which diagnostic label has been most associated with the iatrogenic phenomenon in recent years?
Incompetent defendants could not be hospitalized indefinitely if no progress was made to restore them
What was the essential ruling in Jackson vs. Indiana?
Persistently criminal psychopaths
In the Brawner Rule, the "caveat paragraph" intends to exclude ________ from using the insanity defense.
Limited amnesia
What form of amnesia is the most widely used justification for an insanity defense or mitigation of criminal responsibility in the U.S. courts today?
John Hinckley
Whose successful 1982 plea of not guilty by reason of insanity led to widespread public outcry and reforms of NGRI in more than thirty states?
True
The use of amnesia as a defense has been largely unsuccessful in the United States.
Insanity Defense Reform Act
In general, the U.S. federal court system currently uses what insanity standard?
Criminal responsibility
The core of the insanity defense involves which of the following issues?
Paranoid
Delusional disorders are also called ________ disorders.
True
According to the text, the best predictor of future behavior is past behavior.
Assessment of competency to stand trial
What is the most common type of forensic assessment conducted for the criminal courts?
Developmental or intellectual disability
Mental retardation is professionally known as _______
Andrea Yates
Which of the following defendants was found not guilty by reason of insanity?
True
The prediction of dangerousness has been transformed to an assessment of the probability that violence or other serious offending will occur in the future.
Incompetent to stand trial
IST stands for ________.
Not remain hospitalized once they were no longer mentally disordered
In Foucha v. Louisiana, the U.S. Supreme Court ruled that defendants found NGRI could ________.
False
In Tarasoff v. Regents (1976), the Supreme Court of California held that a psychotherapist should directly warn the potential victims of a patient.
The act was the result or product of schizophrenia
When the M'Naghten Rule is applied, the essential inquiry is whether ________.
False
MPD stands for Multiple Psychosis Disorder
True
Insanity is a legal term that refers to a defendant's state of mind at the time of the crime.
Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders
DSM refers to what?
Being violent within a year
The research shows that mentally disordered male patients, who have a history of at least one violent incident, have a high probability of ________ after release from the hospital.
In cases that did not involve violence, courts should be very careful in ordering medication to treat mentally disordered offenders who refuse the medication
What was the Supreme Court's ruling in Sell v. U.S. (2003)?
Diminished responsibility
The most common result of a PTSD defense has been one of ________.
Schizophrenia
Disorganized, catatonic, paranoid, undifferentiated, and residual are all subtypes of ________.
John Hinckley's
Whose trial generated so much public outcry that Congress passed the Insanity Defense Reform Act of 1984?
A child older than 24 hours
Filicide refers to the killing of ________.
True
A youth who has been kicked out of the home by a parent or caretaker is called a thrownaway.
Group cause homicide
In which of the FBI's category of homicide is terrorist activity often included?
Emotional abuse
Which of the following terms describes a chronic pattern of behavior in which a child is belittled or denied love to promote a specific behavior?
False
Filicide refers to the killing of a newborn within the first 24 hours after birth
A combination of emotional abuse and neglect
The most common abuse of the elderly by caretakers is ______.
Munchausen syndrome by proxy
When a caregiver fabricates or intentionally causes symptoms in those they are caring for in order to seek and obtain medical treatment, it is usually a case of ________.
Aggravated assault
The intentional inflicting of serious bodily injury on another" is a sufficient definition of which of the following offense(s)?
Encourage an abusive man to participate in men-only recreational activities
Which of the following is NOT considered one of the effective ways to break the wife-abuse cycle?
Lower class white women ages 75-85
The likeliest candidates for elder abuse appear to be ________.
African Americans
Which group has a rate of criminal homicide that significantly exceeds its numbers in the general population, both as offenders and victims?
Maltreatment
According to the text, determining the actual number of children who die each year from ________ is exceedingly difficult.
Multiassaultive
Families that are characterized by continual cycles of physical aggression and violence inside the family are called ________.
True
The constant attention that the media give to murder in the United States makes it seem more widespread and frequent than it really is.
True
In the United States, the victims of homicide are mostly male.
Weapons effect
The phenomenon that occurs when the mere presence of a gun or other weapon stimulates violence is called ________.
False
Suspect-based profiling is a technique that can help locate where a serial offender resides.
Many serial killers had been former police officers
Jenkins's 1988 study of serial killers in England found that ________.
Signature
In investigative psychology, any behavior that goes beyond what is necessary to commit the crime is called (the) ________.
Workplace violence
An incident in which the offender commits serious physical or bodily harm to several workers within an organization is called ________.
Refers to the actions and procedures an offender engages in to successfully commit a crime
The modus operandi ________.
Peer rejection; social rejection
Research has found that the two consistent characteristics of school shooters are ________ and ________.
False
Kraemer, Lord, and Heilbrun (2004) found that serial offenders often prefer to use guns, while single-victim offenders prefer hands on killing.
Serial rape
During the early days of its development, crime scene profiling was used to provide investigative assistance in which of the following cases?
False
Most mass murders are spontaneous and unplanned
The offender has an indirect involvement
Offenders who commit violence at the workplace can be classified according to their involvement with the workplace. What kind of involvement does the Type IV offender have with the workplace?
Anxious mood during crime
Which of the following is a profile characteristic of a disorganized murderer, as classified by the FBI?
Troller
A serial violent offender who does not specifically search for victims is using which one of Rossmo's hunting patterns?
A vast majority of shooters have poor social and coping skills
Which of the following is NOT a myth promoted by the news media about school shooters?
Autoeroticism
A term coined by Havelock Ellis that refers to self-arousal and the self-gratification of sexual arousal is ________.
Interview and background information
Which primary investigative method is used by the profiling category equivocal death analysis?
False
Research shows that very few school shooters had a history of cruelty to animals.
10-14
Martin, Taft, and Resick (2007) estimate that ________ percent of married women have experienced marital rape.
40
Recent statistics suggest that about ________ percent of all forcible rapes are committed by husbands or dates.
Anger rape
Which of the following is one of Groth's three categories of rape?
False
Attempting to reason with the attacker often reduces the risk of physical injury during rape.
True
Rape is widely believed to be the most underreported crime.
Displaced aggression
The rapist motivated by pervasive anger in the MTC:R3 is similar to the ________ type described in the original MTC.
False
The original MTC had five major classifications and ten subtypes.
Paternal abandonment
According to research, which of the following is one of the strongest risk factors leading juvenile sex offenders to recidivate?
Compensatory rapist
Which type of rapist rapes in response to an intense sexual arousal initiated by specific stimuli?
Pervasive hatred
Which of the following is NOT one of the four primary motivations of rapists outlined in the revised MTC:R3 classification scheme?
Social competence
In the MTC:R3, the primary motivations are sometimes subdivided according to _______.
Masturbatory conditioning
On the basis of clinical studies, which of the following may play an integral part in the development of both normal and deviant sexual behavior?
Forcible rape
_______ is the term used by the FBI in the gathering of crime reporting and arrest statistics for Part I crimes.
Strangers
Which of the following represents the largest percentage of rapists according to the National Women's Survey?
Anger rape
According to Groth, in which of the following types of rape does the offender use more force than is necessary for compliance and engage in a variety of sexual acts that are particularly degrading or humiliating to the woman?
Sexual coercive behavior
The Knight and Sims-Knight three-path model identifies causal pathways in the development of ________.
False
There is a direct causal relationship between pornography and sexual aggression.
True
The United States has the highest reported incidence of rape in the world
Credibility
Which of the following was traditionally a major victim-related issue for defense lawyers when dealing with rape cases?
False
Sex offenders are a homogenous group, markedly similar in age, race, and socioeconomic status.
According to research by Becker and Johnson, which of the following is NOT a characteristic of most adolescent sex offenders?
They have no siblings
Show high and nearly equal sexual arousal to audiotape portrayals of both rape and consenting sexual acts
Abel and his associates found that men convicted of rape ________.
False
There is a direct causal relationship between pornography and sexual aggression
Severe and lasting physical injury
Which of the following is NOT a common consequence of rape trauma?
Subscribe to attitudes and ideology that encourage men to dominate and control women
Most adult rapists ________.
Forcible rape
________ is the term used by the FBI in the gathering of crime reporting and arrest statistics for Part I crimes.
Emphasizes the motives for the rape
The Groth rape typology is similar to the original MTC typology, except that Groth ________.
Anger rape
Which of the following is one of Groth's three categories of rape?
False
Attempting to reason with the attacker often reduces the risk of physical injury during rape.
False
Hebephilia is a distinct diagnostic category of pedophilia.
False
Those who engage in sexual trafficking are more likely to be perceived as sex offenders than as economic offenders.
Relapse prevention
_______ is specifically designed to be effective in helping the individual maintain the "cure.
10-15
As per Lanyon's research (1986), violence is involved in about ________ percent of child sexual abuse cases.
False
Pedophilia is a legal term, not a clinical one
Extrafamilial Child Molestation
Sexual contact with immature family members by individuals from outside the family is called ________.
True
Alcohol abuse is common in pedophilia.
Blockage theories
According to Finkelhor and Araji (1986), which of the following is one of the four explanations for pedophilia?
Criminal Homosexual Offenders
Which of the following is NOT one of the types of female sex offenders as proposed by Donna Vandiver and Glen Kercher?
Intrafamilial
_______ child molestation is most commonly perpetrated by men who molest their daughters or stepdaughters.
Sexual abuse produces long-term psychological problems in many children
Research on the psychological effects of child sexual victimization indicates that _______.
Sex force
Groth's typology contends that in ________ offenses, the modus operandi is characterized by threat of harm or use of physical force.
The exploitative, nonsadistic offender
Which of the following is an example of a low-contact offender who uses no more aggression or violence than is necessary to secure victim compliance?
Which of the following describes the term hebephilia most accurately?
Hebephilia is sexual contact by adult males with young adolescents.
Largely restricted to pedophilia; variable and extensive
The offending history of a pedophile is ________, compared to that of a rapist, which is ________.
Paraphilia
A sexual disorder in which recurrent sexually arousing fantasies are necessary for sexual excitement is called ________.