True
T/F: The Consensus model assumes that as people gather together to form a society, its members naturally come to a basic agreement with regard to shared norms and values.
True
T/F: According to the Conflict model, different segments of society have different value systems and shared norms and are engaged in a constant struggle to control society.
False
T/F: Society is static and its concept of criminality remains the same.
True
T/F: Different societies can have vastly different ideas of what constitutes criminal behavior.
True
T/F: Morals are principles of right and wrong behavior, as practiced by individuals or by society.
True
T/F: In some instances criminal law can be determined by a powerful minority.
False
T/F: In very personal crimes like rape and assault, victims and relatives are able to prosecute the offender instead of public officials.
False
T/F: All deviant acts are criminal and all crimes are deviant.
False
T/F: justice is an easy concept to define.
True
T/F: Under the concept of federalism, government powers are shared by the federal government and the states.
True
T/F: The scope and size of the federal government's participation in the criminal justice system has expanded over the past several decades.
True
T/F: The United States has a dual court system; that is, we have two independent judicial systems, one on the federal level and one on the state level.
True
T/F: Probation is most common correctional treatment.
False
T/F: The most frequent type of release from a jail or prison is probation in which an inmate, after serving part of his term in a correctional facility, is allowed to serve the rest of his/her term in the community.
True
T/F: Discretion is most associated with the informal criminal justice process.
True
T/F: Fairness, not efficiency, is the ultimate goal of the due process model.
a crime
An act that violates criminal law and is punishable by criminal sanctions is: a. crime b. felony c. tort d. deviant
Considered an offense against an individual, but prosecuted by state who is paid by the victim.
Which of the following is NOT one of the components in the integrated definition of a crime? A. Punishable under criminal law, as determined by the majority of a society, or in some cases, a powerful minority. B. Considered an offense against society as a
Deviance is behavior that is considered to go against the norms established by society.
Which of the following is true regarding deviance? A. Deviance is an objective concept that all members of society agree upon. B. Deviance is another term used to describe all criminal activity. C. Deviance is behavior that is considered to go against the
A sharing of government powers by federal and state authorities
Federalism refers to: a. a system of government dominated by an all-powerful federal government b. a system of checks and balances within the executive, legislative, and judicial branches of government c. a system of government in which states are indepen
Local Police
___ investigate most crimes and attempt to deter crime through patrol activities. a. local police b. highway patrol officers c. state police agencies d. federal agencies
all of the above
Which agency operates throughout the United States? A. DEA B. FBI C. ATF D. all of the above
dual
The U.S. has a ___ court system. a. dual b. primary c. single d. tertiary
federal and state courts
A dual court system means that there are: a. local and state courts b. trial and appellate courts c. federal and state courts d. misdemeanor and felony courts
Corrections
Once the court system convicts and sentences an offender, she or he is delegated to the ___ system. a. corrections b. management c. supervision d. treatment
probation
The most common correctional treatment, which allows the offender to return to the community and remain under the supervision of the agent of the court, is: a. house arrest b. intensive supervised probation c. parole d. probation
jails
Those convicted of minor crimes with relatively short sentences, as well as those waiting trial or transfer, are held in ___. a. jails b. parole agencies c. prisons d. probation officers
Parole
Community supervision that occurs after release from prison is called: a. management time b. parole c. prisons d. probation officers
Minimum security prison
Which of the following is not an example of a community-based sentence? A.Minimum security prisons B. residential center C. halfway house D. work-release centers
discretion
The ability to choose between and among alternative courses of action is known as ___. a. choice b. control c. discretion d. power
arrest
Which of the following does not occur during the adjudication phase of the criminal justice process? A. arrest B. arraignment C. criminal trial d. verdict
grand jury
Which of the following can occur in the prosecution and pretrial services step of the criminal justice process? A. arrest B. grand jury C. criminal trial D. sentencing
adjudication
During what step in the criminal justice process would the offender plead guilty to a criminal charge? a. entry into the system b. prosecution and pretrial services c. adjudication d. sentencing and sanctions
discretion
the informal criminal justice process relies upon the use of: a. discretion b. equal treatment c. policy-guided decision making d. statute-defined decision making
Informal Criminal justice Process
Collectively, the discretionary decisions made by criminal justice professionals are said to produce a/an: a. due process model b. crime control model c. formal criminal justice process d. informal criminal justice process
Discretion
What is the ability to make operational decisions based on personal judgement instead of formal rules? a. discretion b. ethics c. justice d. morals
Ethics
What are the moral principles that govern a person's perception of right and wrong? a. discretion b. ethics c. justice d. laws
Intuition is enough for law enforcement to act.
Which statement below is incorrect? A. Ethics in criminal justice are closely related to the concept of justice. B. critical thinking is needed for an ethical response. C. Intuition is enough for law enforcement to act. D. Discretion in criminal justice c
True
T/F: Robbery is considered a violent crime.
True
T/F: The UCR presents crime data collected annually from local, state, and federal enforcement agencies.
False
T/F: There are only seven Part II offenses listed in the UCR.
True
T/F: The dark figure of crime refers to those offense that are committed, but are unknown to the police.
False
T/F: Trait theorists believe that crime is best addressed by punishing criminal offenders.
True
T/F: Victimology is a school of criminology that studies why certain people are the victims of crimes and the optimal role for victims in the criminal justice system.
False
T/F: According to the text, all individuals are at equal risk of being victimized by crime.
False
T/F: Society's views on morality, which are reflected as laws, are stable and unchanging over time.
The amount of crime per 100,000 people.
When the UCR presents crime data as a rate, they are reporting: A. The amount of crime per 100,000 people. B. The amount of change that has occurred since the previous year. C. The total number of crimes. D. The frequency with which a particular crime is
Larceny/theft
Which of the following is a Part I offense? A. Driving under the influence. B. Embezzlement. C. Drug abuse violations. D. Larceny/theft.
National Crime Victimization Survey (NCVS)
Supporters report that _____ gives victims a voice in the criminal justice process. A. National Incident-Based Reporting System (NIBRS). B. National Crime Victimization Survey (NCVS). C. Self-report surveys. D. The Uniform Crime Report (UCR).
Dark figure of crime
_____ is a phrase used to describe the actual amount of crime that takes place. A. "Hidden figure of crime." B. "Dark prediction of crime." C. "Dark figure of crime." D. "Hidden prediction of crime.
Criminology
The study of crime is referred to as _____. A. Criminal justice. B. Criminology. C. Psychology. D. Sociology.
Determining the reasons behind criminal behavior.
What are criminological theories primarily concerned with? A. Assisting the criminal justice professional. B. Constructing grounds to explain the behavior of criminal justice professionals. C. Determining the reasons behind criminal behavior. D. Providing
Increase the severity of the punishment for offending.
Choice theorists believe the best way to deter crime is to: A. Increase the severity of the punishment for offending. B. Provide counseling and treatment for those individuals at risk for offending. C. Establish programs to strengthen communities. D. Dive
Social process theory
According to _____, criminal offending is the result of interactions with parents, friends and peer groups. A. Choice theory. B. Social disorganization theory. C. Social process theory. D. Trait theory.
Power
Social conflict theory focuses on _____ as a key component in explain crime. A. Choice. B. The community. C. Learning. D. Power.
Chronic offender
A delinquent or criminal who commits multiple offenses and is considered part of a small group of wrongdoers who are responsible for a majority of the antisocial activity in any given community is a: A. Constant criminal. B. Chronic offender. C. Constant
False
T/F: Statutory law does not include ordinances passed by cities and counties.
False
T/F: Case law effectively establishes a single legal interpretation of a statute across multiple jurisdictions.
True
T/F:On a state and local level, voters can write or rewrite criminal status through a form of direct democracy known as the ballot initiative.
True
T/F: The primary functions of the law are to protect citizens from harm and to maintain and promote social values.
True
T/F: A state of being aware that a risk does exist and then disregarding that risk is recklessness.
True
T/F: Criminal law specifies that there must be concurrence between the guilty act and the guilty intent.
False
T/F: Insanity is a valid justification defense.
True
T/F: The due process clause basically requires that government not act unfairly or arbitrarily.
False
T/F: State law prevails whenever it is in conflict with federal law.
False
T/F: Society's views on morality, which are reflected as the law, are stable and unchaining over time.
True
T/F: Murder is a mala in se offense.
False
T/F: Actus reus refers to guilty intent as an element of crime.
True
T/F: An inchoate offense is an attempted or incomplete offense.
False
T/F: Procedural criminal law defines the acts that the government will punish.
False
T/F: Duress, self-defense, entrapment, and necessity are examples of excuse defenses.
True
T/F: Due process is addressed in the Fifth and Fourteenth Amendments to the Constitution.
Statutory law
Statutes enacted by legislative bodies at any level of government make up a source of law, which is generally referred to as: A. Administrative law. B. Case law. C. Constitutional law D. Statutory law.
Administrative law
The rules, orders, and decisions of regulatory agencies make up: A. Administrative law. B. Case law. C. Constitutional law D. Statutory law.
Expressing public morality and teaching societal boundaries
The social function of the law includes the concepts of: A. Protecting individual rights and teaching societal boundaries. B. Protecting individual rights and punishing offenders. C. Expressing public morality and teaching societal boundaries. D. Expressi
Beyond a reasonable doubt
In a criminal case, the burden of proof is: A. Beyond a reasonable doubt. B. Preponderance of the evidence. C. Beyond a show of doubt. D. By clear and convincing evidence.
1 year
Misdemeanors are punishable by a fine or by confinement up to: A. 1 year. B. 5 years. C. 10 years. D. Life imprisonment.
Mala in se
Murder, rape, and theft are examples of _____ crimes. A. Mala in se. B. Mala prohibita. C. Premeditated. D. Deliberate.
Mens rea
A wrongful mental state, or intent, is known as: A. Actus reus. B. Mala in se. C. Mens rea. D. Concurrence.
Actus reus
The guilty act in a criminal offense is referred to as: A. Actus reus. B. Mens rea. C. Corpus delicti. D. Habeus corpus.
The basic elements of a crime
As discussed in the textbook, Corpus delicti refers to: A. The dead body at the scene of a crime. B. The element of criminal intent. C. The basic elements of a crime. D. The criminal act.
Concurrence
What is the term that means that the guilty act and guilty intent occur together? A. Causation. B. Attendant circumstances. C. Concurrence. D. Harm.
Necessity
Which of the following is NOT an excuse defense? A. Mistake. B. Infancy. C. Insanity. D. Necessity.
Procedural due process
This form of due process requires law to be carried out in a fair and orderly manner. A. Legislative due process. B. Procedural due process. C. Relative due process. D. Substantive due process.
Case law
Statutory law includes all of the following except: A. State and federal statutes.B. County ordinances. C. City ordinances. D. case law.
Protect and punish.
The legal function of the law is to: A. Protect and punish. B. Protect and rehabilitate. C. Rehabilitate and release. D. Rehabilitate and teach.
Administrative law.
The rules, orders, and decisions of regulatory agencies are known as: A. Statutory law. B. Case law. C. Bureaucratic law. D. Administrative law.
Purposeful, knowing, negligent, or reckless.
Mens rea may be categorized as: A. Premeditated and deliberate. B. Reckless or negligent. C. With malice aforethought. D. Purposeful, knowing, negligent, or reckless.
Mens rea
A wrongful mental state is known as _____.
Concurrence
According to criminal law, there must be _____ between the guilty act and the guilty intent. A. Concurrence. B. Compatibility. C. Coincidence. D. Connection.
Attendant circumstances
The facts surrounding a criminal event that must be proved to convict the defendant of the underlying crime are called: A. Attendant circumstances. B. Concurrence. C. Strict liability. D. Culpability.
Conspiracy
A plot by two or more people to carry out an illegal or harmful act is called a: A. Conspiracy. B. Corpus delicti. C. Inchoate offenses. D. Targeted.
The threat must be induced by a public official.
All of the following are requirements for the defenses of duress, except: A. The threat must be of serious bodily harm or death. B. The threat must be induced by a public official. C. The threat must be immediate and inescapable. D. The harm threatened be
Duress
Unlawful pressure brought to bear on a person, causing the person to perform an act the he or she would not otherwise perform is _____. A. Duress. B. Mistake. C. Necessity. D. Entrapment.
Substantive due process
In criminal law, _____ prevents unfair practices such as forced confessions, denial of counsel, or unreasonable searches. A. Substantive due process. B. Procedural due process. C. Stare decisis. D. Lex talionis.
Mistake
A woman, thinking that her divorce in another state has been finalized when it has not, marries for a second time, therefore committing bigamy. This excuse defense is an example of the _____ defense.
True
T/F: Of the three levels of law enforcement, municipal police have the broadest authority to apprehend suspects, maintain order, and provide services to the community.
True
T/F: The basic responsibilities of the police are law enforcement, service provision, crime prevention, and peace preservation.
False
T/F: The patronage system is associated with bringing technical and training advances to law enforcement.
True
T/F: The Metropolitan Police Act of 1829, which was authorized by Sir Robert Peel, had a significant influence on American policing.
True
T/F: Terrorism is one of the investigative priorities of the Federal Bureau of Investigation.
True
T/F: The FBI provides support service functions such as database access and crime lab services to other law enforcement agencies. The FBI often provides such support to local law enforcement agencies.
False
T/F: The Wickersham Commission was formed to investigate corruption in the Milwaukee Police Department. Their focus was that single agency.
False
T/F: Delegation of authority, in a law enforcement organization, means that everybody reports directly to the chief. Officers must seek the approval of a senior officer or supervisor prior to making any decision.
True
T/F: Reasonable force is defined as the degree of force that is appropriate to protect the police officer and other citizens and is not considered excessive. It is often considered the force needed to overcome resistance and gain compliance.
True
T/F: According to the text the barriers facing women in law enforcement have been greater than those facing racial and ethnic minorities.
True
T/F: A purpose of police patrol is the deterrence of crime by maintaining a visible police presence.
True
T/F: Education standards for the police hiring and promotion has changed dramatically, since the early days of policing in America. Present day standards often require some form of higher education. Studies have demonstrated that higher levels of educatio
True
T/F: Duty is the moral sense of a police officer that he or she must act in a certain manner.
False
T/F: DNA Evidence from crime scenes is entered into a database called AFIS
True
T/F: Officers in patrol assignment may find themselves involved in crime prevention, service call response, administration, or officer initiated activities.
True
T/F: According to the text, one external procedure for handling citizen complaints is known as citizen oversight.
False
T/F: The "broken door" theory is associated with community policing.
True
T/F: Differential response, in policing, is a strategy that requires response times be adjusted to the seriousness of a call. Police officers or dispatchers distinguish among different calls for service so they can respond more quickly to the most serious
merit based compensation, or pay for performance
From the reform era of policing the police professionalism model emphasized all of the following except: a. merit based compensation, or pay for performance b. implementing technology c. limiting police officer discretion through policy guidelines d. cent
investigate tax and welfare fraud
Historically, STATE police agencies were created to do all of the following except: a. investigate crimes that cross jurisdictional boundaries within the state b. break strikes and labor movements c. provide law enforcement in rural and other areas that d
Metropolitan
Which of the following is not one of the three eras of American policing? a. Reform b. Metropolitan c. Political d. Community
US Marshals Service
Which of the following is not an agency organized under the Department of homeland Security? a. US Secret Service b. US Customs and Border Protection c. US Marshals Service d. US Immigration and Customs Enforcement
rules and regulations
In exercising discretion, police officers may be influenced by all of the following subjective factors except a. values b. beliefs c. personality d. rules and regulations
high profit margins for private security companies
According to the text, all of the following growth factors have been recognized for spurning the private security industry except a. high profit margins for private security companies b. fear of terrorism c. crime in the workplace d. budget cuts for state
preventing crime
According to the text the most controversial responsibility of the police involves a. enforcing laws b. providing services c. preserving the peace d. preventing crime
courage
Which of the following is not a category of ethical dilemma listed in the text? a. loyalty b. duty c. courage d. honesty
deadly or lethal force
Force applied by a police officer that is likely intended to cause death is known as a. less that lethal force b. non-deadly force c. aggressive force d. deadly or lethal force
field training
The segment of a police recruit's training that takes place on the beat is referred to in the text as: a. practicum b. an internship c. probation d. field training
socialization
The process through which a police officer is taught the values and expected behavior of the police subculture is called: a. assimilation b. acculturation c. socialization d. adaptation
police cynicism
The suspicion that citizens are weal, corrupt, and dangerous is called: a. police defense mechanism b. police cynicism c. subculture trait d. police skepticism
segregating citizens from police to thwart corruption
Which of the following is not associated with community policing? a. promoting police--community partnerships b. addressing issues each as fear of crime c. solving problems d. segregating citizens from police to thwart corruption
reactive
Arrests made by police officers that occur when officers respond to calls for service are best described as: a. reactive b. proactive c. directed d. controlled
20%
According to the text paperwork takes up nearly ___ percent of a patrol officer's time. a. 10% b. 15% c. 20% d. 40%
have an advantage in hiring and promotion
Police recruits with college or university experience are generally believed to: a. be overqualified for entry level work b. be the same as those without higher education c. have an advantage in hiring and promotion d. be better suited for crime lab work
community model of policing
In todays' policing a return to foot patrol in order to "connect: with members of the community is a tactic consistent with: a. community model of policing b. professional model of policing c. political model of policing d. traditional model of policing
chain of command
According to the text, delegation of authority is critical component of a. accountability b. efficient management c. chain of command d. span of control
being the subject of disciplinary action for the first time
Which of the following is not a ritual which indoctrinates officers into the police subculture? a. attending the police academy b. making the first felony arrest c. witnessing a traumatic incident for the first time d. being the subject of disciplinary ac
separating policing from politics
Which of the following is not one of the characteristics of community policing listed in the text? a. separating policing from politics b. proactive policing c. viewing police work as more than a "day-to-day" proposition d. recognition of the crime contro
Tennessee v Garner (1985)
In which case did the US Supreme Court set the limits for the use of deadly force by law enforcement officers? a. Gaines v Miller (1963) b. Tennessee v Garner (1985) c. Graham v Connnor (1989) d. Rovario v United States (1957)
forensics
The application of science to establish facts and evidence during crime scene investigations is known as a. forensics b. genetics. c. ballistics d. CODIS
True
T/F: Police can make a warrantless search, without probable cause, if the subject of the search voluntarily consents.
True
T/F: The case precedent for "stop and frisk" was established in Terry v Ohio.
False
T/F: The plain view doctrine allows clearly visible evidence to be seized at any time. There are no other restrictions to this doctrine.
True
T/F: A stop or temporary detention can be made on reasonable suspicion, but probable cause is needed to make an arrest.
False
T/F: If evidence would have been inevitably discovered, it can be used in the court even if illegally obtained. The evidence would be admissible providing it would have been found by legal means and it was clearly going to be discovered.
False
T/F: Any tip to the police from a citizen can always be used to make a stop. Even if the tip was delivered anonymously and no other facts were present. Anonymous tips constitute probable cause.
True
T/F: Police officers may use personal observations, training, and experience to establish probable cause.
False
T/F: According to the text the US Supreme Court has ruled that anticipatory search warrants are unconstitutional.
False
T/F: A police officer must verbally communicate, "You are under arrest" to validate an arrest of a suspect.
False
T/F: Miranda warnings must be administered during stop and frisks even though no arrest had been made. The warning must also be given during traffic stops for vehicle code violation.
True
T/F: An affidavit is a written statement of facts expressing probable cause that and must be sworn to, in front of a person empowered to administer the oath.
True
T/F: One of the requirements to obtain a search warrant is that a police officer must first establish probable cause that a crime has or will be committed.
True
T/F: The fifth Amendment of the Bill of Rights guarantees protection against self-incrimination.
True
T/F: For legal purposes a person is in custody when they feel or think they are not free to leave. Actions by law enforcement officers that would make a person feel they are not free to leave can be interpreted as custody.
False
T/F: A search warrant, even it it is found to be technically invalid, may still produce admissible evidence under the Knock and Announce exception.
True
T/F: Direct questioning of a suspect to gather evidence of criminal activity and try to gain an admission or confessions interrogation.
True
T/F: When police pat down the outer area of a person's clothing to look for weapons, they are conducting a frisk.
True
T/F: The Fourth Amendment prohibits unreasonable searches and seizures. There are no other limitations on searches providing they are reasonable.
True
T/F: Evidence obtained in violation of the accused's rights under the Fourth, Fifth, or Sixth Amendments is subject to the exclusionary rule.
True
T/F: Questioning a suspect, about their involvement in a crime, once he or she is in custody is called a custodial interrogation.
additional investigation or testing must confirm the illegal nature of the item
Which of the following is not a criterion (requirement) of a valid plain view seizure? A) the item must be discovered inadvertently B)additional investigation or testing must confirm the illegal nature of the item C)the officer must be legally in a positi
detail the specific times that surveillance will be conducted
Which of the following is not a criterion (requirement) to obtain a valid warrant for electronic surveillance? A) detail the specific times that surveillance will be conducted B)show probable cause that a specific crime has been or will be committed C) de
Nix v Williams
The US Supreme Court established the inevitable discovery exception to the exclusionary rule by its ruling in A)Rochin v CA (1952) B)App v Ohio (1961) C) Weeks v US (1914) D) Nix v Williams
Rochin v CA
The US Supreme Court established the "shocks the conscience" standard, regarding searches by its ruling in A) County of Riverside v McLaughlin (1991) B)Rochin v CA (1952) C)App v Ohio (1961) D) Weeks v US (1914)
Mapp v Ohio
The US Supreme Court's ruling in __ abolished the practice called the "silver platter doctrine," which applied the exclusionary rule to all law enforcement officers. A) County of Riverside v McLaughlin (1991) B)Rochin v CA (1952) C)App v Ohio (1961) D) We
Mapp v Ohio
The US Supreme Court made the exclusionary rule applicable to all state cases in A) County of Riverside v McLaughlin (1991) B)Rochin v CA (1952) C)App v Ohio (1961) D) Weeks v US (1914)
US v Leon
The US Supreme courts ruling in __ created the good faith exception to the exclusionary rule. A)CA v Greenwood (1988) B) Wilson v Arkansas (1995) C)Terry v Ohio (1968) D)US v Leon (1984)
Terry v Ohio
The US Supreme Court ruling in __ defined "reasonable" suspicion in stop-and-frisk situations. A)CA v Greenwood (1988) B) Wilson v Arkansas (1995) C)Terry v Ohio (1968) D)US v Leon (1984)
officer has administered the Miranda warning
Which of the following is not an element of arrest? A)officer has the intent to arrest B)officer has the authority to arrest C)officer has administered the Miranda warning D) officer detained the suspect
Schneckcloth v Bustamonte (1973)
The US Supreme Court set the standard for consent searches in A)Katz v US (1967) B)Carroll v US (1925) C)Chimel v CA (1969) D) Schneckcloth v Bustamonte (1973)
Chimel v CA
The US Supreme Court limited the scope of search during arrest to the area within the suspects "immediate control" in A)Katz v US (1967) B)Carroll v US (1925) C)Chimel v CA (1969) D) Schneckcloth v Bustamonte (1973)
Carroll v US
The US Supreme Court ruled that law distinguishes among automobiles, homes, and persons in questions involving police searches in A)Katz v US (1967) B)Carroll v US (1925) C)Chimel v CA (1969) D) Schneckcloth v Bustamonte (1973)
the party giving consent must be advised they have the right to refuse
Which of the following is not true for consent searches? A)Consent must be voluntary B)consent has to be given by an authorized party C)the party giving consent must be advised they have the right to refuse D) officers are not required to have probable ca
the names of the officers who will execute the search
All of the following information must be included in a search warrant affidavits except A)the names of the officers who will execute the search B)specific locations to be searched C)the specific items to be seized D)a probable cause statement showing a cr
when reasonable suspicion exists
In all of the following circumstances, a warrantless search is permissible except A)when consent is given B)when the items in question are plain view C)when the search is incident to lawful arrest D) when reasonable suspicion exists
4th amendment
Protection from unreasonable search and seizure is provided under the A) 4th Amendment B)5th Amendment C) 6th Amendment D) 8th Amendment
5th amendment
Protecting a person from self-incrimination is provided under the A) 4th Amendment B)5th Amendment C) 6th Amendment D) 7th Amendment
a suspect is in custody and being questioned/interrogated
Miranda is required when A)a suspect is being arrested B)a suspect is being questioned C) a suspect is being booked D)a suspect is in custody and being questioned/interrogated
Katz v US
The US Supreme Court established the recognized standard for a reasonable expectation of privacy in A)Katz v US (1967) B)Carroll v US (1925) C)Chimel v CA (1969) D) Schneckcloth v Bustamonte (1973)
CA v Greenwood
The US Supreme Court's ruling in __ denied the appellant's claim to a reasonable expectation of privacy when it came to his garbage bags. A)CA v Greenwood (1988) B) Wilson v Arkansas (1995) C)Terry v Ohio (1968) D)US v Leon (1984)
True
T/F: Adult probation officers act as community protectors while juvenile probation officers are expected to take the role of mentor.
True
T/F: Regarding Juvenile offenders automatic transfers are also known as judicial waivers.
True
T/F: The child savers proposed treatment, not punishment, for juvenile delinquents.
True
T/F: Police have more power in their handling of juveniles than they do with adults due to the in loco parentis doctrine.
True
T/F: Roper v Simmons prohibits the execution of offenders who were under age 18 when they committed their crimes.
True
T/F: The prevalence of girls as offenders in the juvenile justice system is increasing.
False
T/F: Low-visibility decision making is not relevant in police handling of juveniles.
True
T/F: Youth often join gangs as a form of protection from other gangs.
True
T/F: Transfer to adult court can occur automatically or by judicial waiver.
False
T/F: The older a person is, the more likely they are to exhibit criminal behavior.
True
T/F: Training schools tend to mirror conditions of adult correctional facilities.
True
T/F: "Graduated Sanctions" essentially means that the punishment should fit the crime.
Parental Illiteracy
Which of the following is not listed in the text as a family risk factor for juvenile delinquency? A)Lack of parental role model B)Parental Illiteracy C)Parent/sibling drug/alcohol abuse D)extreme economic deprivation
As a last resort
When judges sentence juvenile offenders, removing the child from his/her home should be considered A)the first choice B)only in felony cases C)only on serious violent felony cases D)as a last resort
Murder
According to the Uniform Crime Report statistics, which of the following crimes is associated with a lower juvenile arrest rate in 2007? A)aggravated assault B)arson C)murder D)forcible rape
Decreased by 44%
Uniform Crime Reports date for 1994-2007 indicates that juvenile violent crime A)Increased by 25% B)remained relatively stable C)decreased by 44% D)increased by 5%
Adjudication hearing
The process in which the juvenile court determines whether or not there is evidence to support the petition is called A)intake B)detention hearing C)adjudication hearing D)disposition hearing
Girls are treated more leniently than boys for status offenses
Which of the following is not true regarding girls and offending? A)Girls are treated more leniently than boys for status offenses B)The number of girls in the juvenile justice system is increasing C)Girls are treated less harshly than boys for delinquent
Training schools
Which of the following is not listed in the text as a category of residential treatment programs? A)foster care B)family group homes C)training schools D)group homes
diversion
Juveniles leave correctional facilities by serving their complete sentence or A)early release programs B)parole C)diversion D)probation
Used books and supplies
Which of the following is not listed in the text as a school risk factor for juvenile delinquency? A)academic frustration/failure B)used books and supplies C)learning disability D)disciplinary problems
education
Which of the following is not a diversion program? A)restitution B)education C)treatment and aid D)probation
Judicial waiver
Juveniles can be transferred to adult court by A)law enforcement petition B)indictment C)direct placement D)judicial waiver
Judicial waiver
The most common method of waiving a juvenile to adult court is through a(n) A)legislative waiver B)automatic waiver C)judicial waiver D)prosecutorial waiver
alcohol and drug use
Which of the following is not listed in the text as a community risk factor for juvenile delinquency? A)availability of firearms B)lack of social and economic opportunities C)high crime D)alcohol and drug use
juries are not used
The Illinois juvenile court is demonstrative at the differences between adult and juvenile courts in that A)there are no judges B)there is no bailiff or other security personnel C)there is no court reporter D)juries are not used
Fare v Michael C
In which case did the US Supreme Court clarify law enforcement responsibilities with regard to Miranda warnings and juveniles? A)Roper v Simmons B)New Jersey v TLO C) Board of Education v Earls D)Fare v Michael
Schall v Martin
In which case did the US Supreme Court uphold the practice of preventative detention for juveniles when the juveniles are deemed a "risk" to the community safety or to their own welfare? A)Roper v Simmons B)New Jersey v TLO C)Fare v Michael C D)Schall v M
New Jersey v TLO
In which case did the US Supreme Court hold that school officials may search a student on mere "reasonable suspicion" that the student has violated school regulations? A)Roper v Simmons B)New Jersey v TLO C)Board of Education v Earls D)Fare v Michael C
Roper v Simmons
In which case did the US Supreme Court forbid the execution of offenders under the age of 18? A)Roper v Simmons B)New Jersey v TLO C)Board of Education v Earls D)Fare v Michael C
The right to public hearing
Which of the following was not a right bestowed on juvenile defendants as a result of In re Gault? A)right to counsel B)right to written notice of charges C)right to a public hearing D)right to confront and cross-examine witnesses
Kent v US
Which case was the first US Supreme Court decision to extend due process rights to children in juvenile courts? A)Kent v US B)In re Gault C)In re Winship D)Breed v Jones
In re Winship
In which case did the US Supreme Court raise the burden of proof for acts of juvenile delinquency from "preponderance of the evidence" to "beyond a reasonable doubt?" A)Kent v US B)In re Gault C)In re Winship D)Breed v Jones
Breed v Jones
In which case did the US Supreme Court hold that double jeopardy prevented trying a juvenile in adult court for an offense already adjudicated in a juvenile court? A)Kent v US B)In re Gault C)In re Winship D)Breed v Jones
McKeiver v Pennsylvania
In which case did the US Supreme Court rule that juveniles do not have the right to a jury trial in a juvenile court proceeding? A)Kent v US B)In re Gault C)In re Winship D)McKeiver v Pennsylvania
In Re Gault
In which case did the US Supreme Court hold that juveniles are entitled to the basic procedural safeguards of the 14th amendment, making the the single most important juvenile justice case? A)Kent v US B)In re Gault C)In re Winship D)Breed v Jones
True
T/F: The due process function of the court is concerned with protecting individuals from the unfair advantage that the government has with its vast resources.
False
T/F: Magistrates are no longer relevant in the American court system.
True
T/F: The U.S. Supreme Court uses judicial review to make criminal justice policy.
True
T/F: Keeping up with paperwork generated during a trial, including transcripts and evidence, is the responsibility of the court clerk.
True
T/F: Jurisdiction applies to geography and subject matter.
True
T/F: The purpose of the arraignment is to allow the defendant an opportunity to hear the charges against him or her, and enter a plea.
False
T/F: Bail is a constitutional right.
True
T/F: Nolo contendere means "I will not contest it" referring to the criminal charges.
True
T/F: Overcharging is a tool used to induce a defendant to plead guilty.
False
T/F: The grand jury is responsible for determining guilt or innocence.
False
T/F: The Sixth Amendment right to counsel applies only to trials (judge and jury).
False
T/F: In the preliminary hearing, the magistrate or judge denies if there is reasonable cause (the legal standard being probable cause) the defendant has committed the crime as charged.
True
T/F: The United States Supreme Court does not require a trial by jury for defendants charged with misdemeanor crimes.
False
T/F: A lay witness has professional training or experience qualifying him/her to testify on a certain subject.
True
T/F: Evidence is anything used to prove the existence or nonexistence of a fact.
True
T/F: Sentencing disparity occurs when different offenders receive different sentences for similar offenses.
True
T/F: The idea that by punishing one person the larger community will be deterred is known as general deterrence.
True
The seriousness of the crime is the primary factor in a judge's sentencing decisions.
Supreme Court Justices
Jurisdiction in the American court system applies to al of the following except A) subject-matter of the cause B) geography C) state and federal courts D) Supreme Court justices
writ of certiorari
What type of request foes the Supreme Court issue to lower courts as an order to review the case record?
conference notes and transcripts
All of the following are found in a U.S. Supreme Court decision except A) the decision B) conference notes and transcripts C) concurring opinions D) dissenting opinions
established the right to counsel in a criminal trial
The U.S. Supreme Court's decision in Gideon v. Wainwright (1963) A) transformed pretrial interrogations B) set the condition under which the death penalty is allowable C) established the right to counsel in a criminal trial D) ruled the death penalty to b
reviewing courts concerned with questions of law or procedure
Courts having appellate jurisdiction act as A) reviewing courts concerned with questions of law or procedure B) courts of origination for the appeal C) reviewers of fact D) deciders of guilt or innocence
the separate but interrelated system of federal and state courts
The term dual court system refers to A) the system of courts of original jurisdiction and courts of appeal B)the separate but interrelated system of federal and state courts C) the disposition of offenders is handled by both judges and juries D) civil and
due process and criminal control
The criminal justice system's underlying values include A) due process and crime prevention B) due process and equity C) due process and crime control D) due process and rehabilitation
negotiator
During pretrial activites, the judge assumes the role of A) referee B) teacher C) negotiator D) court administrator
jury selection
During pretrial activities a judge may handle all of the following except A) review probable cause for arrest B) review to determine if evidence to justify detention exists C) bond issues D) jury selection
sufficient evidence for conviction
What is the most important factor a prosecutor considers when deciding on criminal prosecution? A) existing caseloads B) police certainty of guilt C) sufficient evidence for conviction D) the victim's wishes
adversarial
The American justice system is classified as A) democratic B) autocratic C) symbolic D) adversarial
grand jury
Who is responsible for issuing an indictment A) judge or magistrate B) prosecutor C) grand jury D) attorney general
serves as advocate for the defendant
What is the defense attorney's largest responsibility? A) ensure a not guilty verdict B) facilitate an advantageous plea bargain C) file motions to dismiss charges D) serves as advocate for the defendant
Nolle Prosequi
What action is used by prosecutors to dismiss cases? A) plea bargain B) nolle prosequi C) nolo contendere D) appeal
jail overcrowding
Which of the following is not a factor the prosecutor considers when deciding whether or not to proceed with a prosecution? A) whether or not there is sufficient evidence for conviction B) whether or not the defendant is willing to testify against his or
his or her client discloses information about a crime that has not yet been committed
Under what circumstance may an attorney break attorney-client privilege? A) his or her client discloses information about a crime that has not yet been committed B) the client confesses to crimes that remain officially unsolved C) the client confesses to
beyond a reasonable doubt
The standard of guilt in criminal trial is A) clear and convincing evidence B) preponderance of the evidence C) without a doubt D) beyond a reasonable doubt
a citizen must be a registered voter
Which of the following is not a requirement to serve in a jury? A) a citizen must be 18 years of age B) a citizen must be able to read, write, and comprehend English C) a citizen must be a registered voter D) a citizen must be free from felony convictions
the state prepares a second criminal trial for the same defendant and the same crime
In which of the following circumstances does double jeopardy apply? A) when the defendant will be charged both criminally and civil B)when the first trail ends in a hung jury C) when the defendant will be charged in both state and federal criminal court D
disparities can be attributed to extralegal variables such as gender, race, or socioeconomic status
The text explains that sentencing discrimination results when A) mitigating or aggravating circumstances have a disproportionate effect on sentencing B) disparities can be attributed to extralegal variables such as gender, race, or socioeconomic status C)
probation officers
Presentence investigation reports are compiled by A) probation officers B) prosecutors C) defense attorneys D) the court clerk
mitigating circumstances
Circumstances that allow for a lighter sentence to be handed down are A) aggravating circumstances B) extenuating circumstances C) mitigating circumstances D) compassionate circumstances
false
T/F: Only offenders convicted of misdemeanor offenses are eligible for probation.
true
T/F: Those who cannot afford to pay for electronic monitoring may not be eligible for it.
false
T/F: Because of low budgets, probation agencies do not have the resources to provide full services to all offenders.
true
T/F: Drug courts are the fastest growing form of pretrial diversion in the United States.
true
T/F: The work of probation officers has become more dangerous.
true
T/F: Probation revocation is a three-part process.
true
T/F: Prison organizations often resemble police organizations as both systems rely on a chain of command.
true
T/F: High rates of incarceration have a disproportionate impact on voting rights in minority groups.
true
T/F: Private prison facilities can be run more efficiently than facilities run by state government.
false
T/F: There is almost as much physical aggression in women's prisons as there is in men's prisons.
true
T/F: Race is the primary element in the formation of prison gangs.
true
T/F: Most states rely on parole boards to evaluate an inmate for conditional release or parole.
judge
Conditions of probation are established by a A) judge B) prosecutor C) jury D) probation officer
shock incarceration
Boot camps are a form of A) pretrial diversion B) shock incarceration C) intensive probation supervision D) split sentence
all fifty states and the federal government
Today, home monitoring programs are offered by A) the federal government and all states except Ohio and Michigan B) the federal government and all states except New Mexico and Texas C) all fifty states but not the federal government D) all fifty states an
a judge as a "neutral and detached" body
The sentence handed down at a probation revocation hearing is determined by A) the probation officer B) a panel of probation administrators C) a judge as a "neutral and detached" body D) a mediator appointed by the court
probation revocation hearings
Most of the rules of evidence that govern regular criminal trials do not apply to A) judges B) sentence hearings C) probation evocation hearings D) attorneys
drug offenses
One of the primary explanations for recent rapid growth in prison populations is the increasing number of people incarcerated for A) sex offenses B) drug offenses C) terrorist threats D) probation violations
custodial
Since the 1930s, what prison model has dominated the most restrictive positions? A) custodial B) rehabilitation C) reintegration D) just deserts
reintegration
Which prison model is most likely to serve as a training ground for offenders to return to the community? A) custodial B) rehabilitation C) reintegration D) just deserts
custodial, rehabilitative, and reintegrative
According to the text, three general models exist in the United States. These models are A) incapacitate, rehabilitative, and reintegrative B) restrictive, rehabilitative, and reintegrative C) custodial, rehabilitative, and reintegrative D) retribution, r
no need for an expensive ran hierarchy/chain of command
Which of the following is not cited in the text as a reason why private prisons can often be run more cheaply and efficiently than public prisons? A) reduced bureaucracy B) competitive bidding C) no need for an expensive ran hierarchy/chain of command D)
seven
How many million Americans spend at least one day in jail each year? A) one B) three C) five D) seven
87
What percent of jail inmates in the U.S. are male? A) 50 B) 65 C) 87 D) 99
hierarchy
Violence in prison is a tool fro establishing A) anarchy B) validation C) sequestration D) hierarchy
grace, contract of consent, and custody
The concepts on which parole is based include A) leniency, efficiency, and practicality B) grace, contract of consent, and custody C) trust, encouragement, and control D) opportunity, reward, and necessity
prisonization
An inmate's assimilation into the prison culture is known as A) prisonization B) orientation C) cultural diversification D) infiltration
11
What percentage of paroled offenders are returned to prison due to parole revocation for from the commission of a new crime? A) 5 B) 11 C) 38 D) 75
representation by counsel
Which of the following is not listed in the text as a due process right to which prisoners are entitled when being disciplined by a penal institution? A) an opportunity to call witnesses B) an opportunity to speak at the hearing C)representation by counse
to oversee the offender while on parole
Which of the following is not considered a parole board responsibility? A) to make a determination regarding release on parole B) to make a determination regarding the conditions of parole C) to oversee the offender while on parole D) to revoke parole if
lack of employment and housing opportunities
According to the text, which of the listed factories is identified as having an impact on an offenders' ability to reenter free society? A) the offender's celebrity-like starts as a parolee B) a "bothersome" parole officer C) lack of employment and housin
a pardon
A form of executive clemency which clears the record of the offender is A) oracle B) a pardon C) compassionate realest D) discretionary release