meat
What were horses first used for?
6000 years ago
Approximately how long age were horses domesticated?
Easily dominated
Which of the following is NOT a criteria for domestication?
2 billion dollars
What is the approximate economic impact of horses on NC's economy?
Equus Quagga
Which of the following is instinct?
Perrisodactyla
In what "order" do horses belong?
Hyracotherium
The name of the first "horse" is:
Scythians
What ancient civilization was the first to master archery on horseback (shooting backwards over the croup)?
Changed from ruminants to hindgut fermenters
Which of the following was NOT a trend that occurred through evolution of the horse?
Pliohippus
Which one was the first true monodactyl in history?
The Romans
What ancient society was the first to really race horses (and had specific breeds for horses, a racetrack, gambling, etc.)?
The Orient
Where was the stirrup invented?
Hittites
Which group in history used horses in chariot warfare and had a book written about conditioning of the chariot horse?
The Romans
Who invented "hipposandals"?
7 million
Approximately how many horses live in the US?
4, 3
Hyracotherium had _________ toes on each front foot and _________ toes on each hind foot.
Fire Protection
What was the major use of horses was greatly influenced by a flu outbreak?
Merychippus
Which "horse" name means, Ruminant horse, and is in fact, incorrect as this animal was not a ruminant!
Standardbred
What breed can both PACE and TROT?
Netherlands
Where did the Friesian originate?
Shetland
Which pony breed was used in the coal mines?
Obese
A horse that is considered an "8" on the Henneke body condition scoring is:
Untrained
A horse that is "green" is most likely:
Netherlands
Dutch Warmblood originates from:
Scotland
Clydesdale originates from:
Wales
Welsh pony originates from:
USA
Morgan originates from:
England
Thoroughbred originates from:
Spain
Lippizaner originates from:
Striped hooves, mottled skin, and sclera of eye visible.
Appaloosa's MUST have each of the following traits:
Jack and Mare
A mules is a cross between:
34
A miniature horse must be less than _________ inches in height.
5 years
At what age is a horse said to have "a full mouth"?
Level croup
An Arabian breed of horse most likely has which of the hindquarter conformations?
Parrot mouth
When the lower jaw is shorter than the upper jaw?
Short upright hoof and pastern angles
A horse with clubfoot has:
Back
Which gait is MOST similar to a trot with respect to footfall order? (ie. diagonal)
Forging
the term used in class to describe when the rear foot strikes the front foot on the same side of the body, and is also called over-reaching
Cross-firing
Which of the following movement faults would most likely occur in pacers?
Sickle-hocked
A horse with to much angle to its hock is said to be:
Toes in
A horse that is pigeon-toed ______
Left hind, right hind and left front together, right front
What is the footfall order of a right lead canter?
45
What angle to the horizontal should the shoulder be?
Step
The _________ is the distance between imprints of the two front feet (or two hind feet)
TRUE
The pace is a lateral gait in which both right or both left legs move in unison.
Over at the knee
What is another phrase to describe a horse that is buck kneed in front? (side view)
Monkey Mouth
What is the term used to describe when the lower jaw is juts out farther than the upper jaw?
12 ft
What is the approximate stride of a 16 hh horse at the canter (used when designing jumping courses)?
Pari-Mutuel betting
Certain amount of the wager goes to the track
Passage
Slow-motion trot
Piaffe
Trot in place
Quarter horse race
Which of the races would be over the fastest?
Lower
Western headset is generally __________ than the english.
England's Triple Crown
2000 Guineas, Epsom Derby, and St. Lager Stakes
FALSE
Canada still covers most of its police-work through the mounted units and cavalry of the Royal Canadian Mounted Police: TRUE or FALSE
Equitation
What discipline listed involves judging the rider's position?
Reining
What discipline has the horse and rider complete 1 of 10 approved patterns that include small slow circles and sliding stops?
Saddle Seat
What discipline includes classes such as: three-gaited, five-gaited, park, pleasure and equitation and was developed for breeds such as the American Saddlebred and Hackneys?
Western Pleasure
What discipline is judged based on rideability of the horse, manners and temperament at gaits such as the walk, jog, and lope?
Bronc Riding
In what discipline does the rider attempt to stay on for at least 8 seconds?
Hunters
Which discipline did Dr. Pratt-Phillips used to compete in with her horse Jay?
Trotters Triple Crown
Kentucky Futurity, Yonkers Trot, and Hambletonian
Tapetum Lucidum
What is the name of the specialized reflective structure at the back of the horse's eye that allows them to have excellent night vision?
EIPH (Exercise Induced Pulmonary Hemorrhage)
The drug Lasix can help with what condition? (hint- this drug increases urination, which would be helpful because it decreases the blood volume and therefore can decrease pressure in the vessels)
Deep digital
Which of the following is an example of a flexor tendon?
Left Laryngeal Hemiplagia
What is the proper term for roaring?
Trapezius
Which of the following muscles would be NOT be important for moving the hind end of the horse? (hint - it is associated with the front end)
Skin and Coat
Which of the following systems is MOST involved in temperature regulation in the horse?
Equine Infectious Anemia
What disease is identified with a Coggins test?
Tetanus
Which of the following is prevented with a "toxoid" vaccine?
Rabies
What disease can be spread by racoons, foxes, and skunks and can be transmitted to both horses and humans (zoonotic)?
Large Strongyles
Which of the following can do serious damage because they migrate through tissues including the liver and cranial mesenteric artery?
Active, Passive
___________immunity occurs when the animal's body is able to create it's own immunity (i.e. has a fully functional immune system), while _________immunity is immunity obtained through another, outside source (such as a mare's first milk, or colostrum, for
Intraocular (into eye)
Which of the following is NOT a common method of vaccine delivery in horses?
EPM (Equine Protozoal Myeloencephalitis
Which of the following diseases is caused by a protozoa that requires various hosts before entering the horse?
Pinworms
Which of the following would be most likely to result in itching around the tail?
Skin tint, capillary refill time, and gum color/moisture
Ways to assess a horse's circulation or hydration status (i.e. test to see if he is dehydrated)?
Equine Encephalomyelitis
Which of the following infectious diseases has three forms called Eastern, Western, and Venezuelan?
Corneal Ulcer
Which of the following describes a lesion or trauma to the covering of the
eye over the iris and pupil? (Can develop into a bacterial, viral, or fugal
infection.)
Floating
The name of the method used by veterinarians to file sharp edges and irregularities off of a horses teeth as they grow is called:
Bots
Which of the following could truly be considered both an external and internal parasite?
Rhinopneumonitis (Herpes Virus)
Which of the following diseases can be one of two forms (respiratory or neurologic) and a case of the neurological form was recently seen in NC at the vet school? Hint: The vaccine for this disease doesn't protect against the neurologic form, only respira
Strangles
Which of the following conditions is associated with severe abscessation and swelling of the lymph nodes under their jaw?
Core Vaccines
Rabies, tetanus, equine encephalomyelitis
30-40 bpm
What is the average heart rate of a mature horse?
Abcess
A collection of pus (dead white blood cells) under the skin or hoof of a horse is:
Potomac Horse Fever
Which of the following infectious diseases causes severe diarrhea and colic (i.e. primarily effects the gastrointestinal system)?
25%
If you breed 2 overos, what is the chance that the foal will have lethal white foal syndrome?
25%
If two palominos are bred, what are the chances of getting a cremello?
100%
If you breed a cremello and a chestnut, what are the chances of getting a palomino foal?
TRUE
True or False: Heritability refers to the extent that genetics affects the outward appearance of a trait.
Select one:
50%
If a mare has the genotype Ee and the sire has the genotype EE, what is the percentage chance that a foal would be EE?
Ridgling
What is it called when one testicle does not descend and remains inside the body?
Pasture Mating
Which breeding method has the highest chance of injury to the stallion and mare, but has a high chance of the stallion "catching" the mare in heat?
Melatonin
What hormone is involved in daylight/nighttime regulation of the mare's reproductive cycle?
Testes
Where is testosterone produced?
Height
Which of the following traits would have the highest heritability?
EeAa
Which of the following could be the genotype of a bay horse?
0%
If you breed 2 cremellos, what are the chances you'd get a palomino?
32
A horse has __________ pairs of chromosomes
1st
Which stage of parturition ends with the water breaking?
dystocia
What is the term for difficult foaling?
Follicles
What produces estrogen?
Corpus luteum
What produces progesterone?
50%
If you breed a horse that displays mild signs of HYPP to a horse with no signs, what is the chance you'd have a foal that could show mild signs of HYPP?
Grey
The allele "G" when dominant produces what color of horse?
Sire
Which parent determines the gender of the offspring?
CID
Which disease results in no immunity for a foal?
63
How many chromosomes do hinnies usually have?
Cervix
This is tightly closed except during parturition to prevent bacteria from getting into the uterus.
FALSE
The recipient mare for embryo transfer should be high quality because her genetic material is also passed to the foal. (TRUE or FALSE)
Cowper's gland
Give an example of an accessory sex gland of the stallion (be sure to include the word "gland" in your answer if appropriate!)
Energy
Which of the following would not be found on a typical feed tag?
FALSE
Digestion is when the nutrients pass into the bloodstream from the gastrointestinal tract. (TRUE or FALSE)
Vitamin K
Which vitamin is involved in blood clotting and is synthesized by microbes in the large intestine?
Anhidrosis
Refers to the condition when a horse can no longer sweat.
TRUE
Cardiac output is the amount of blood pumped by the heart per minute, and per unit body weight is almost twice the amount in a horse, compared to a human. (TRUE or FALSE)
glycogen
Polysaccharide storage myopathy is a condition where the ______________ in the muscle is abnormal.
Water
Which nutrient is the most overlooked?
Vitamins A, K, E, and D
Fat soluble vitamins (include the word vitamin in your answer, like "vitamin ____") (not the formal name, just the letter!)
Lactating mare
Feeding a straight legume hay would be most suitable for what type of horse?
Iodine
Which of the following minerals is required for normal thyroid function?
TRUE
A grass hay typically has less protein and calcium than a legume hay. (TRUE or FALSE)
Forage
What is the most important feedstuff in your horse's diet?
Vitamin C
Which nutrient would likely be required for older horses, but is not required by younger ones?
FALSE
A horse competing in an endurance race is most likely to fatigue due to lactic acid buildup in his muscles (TRUE or FALSE)
Carbohydrates
Lactic acid is a byproduct of anaerobic metabolism of what?
Sensitization
What term involves becoming more responsive to a stimulus as a result of experience?
Sharing resources
Which of the following is NOT an advantage to the formation of bands in wild horse populations?
Flee
Because horses are prey animals, their first instinct in times of danger is to...
It is born with ready learned behaviors for immediate survival.
What does it mean when we say that the horse is a precocious species?
Increasing the likelihood of a behavior
Appetitive reinforcement refers to:
Habituation
What term involves becoming less responsive to a stimulus as a result of experience?
Spending most of their time in a stall
Stereotypies are most likely to occur in horses that are...
Using a rump rope to teach horse how to lead
Which of the following is an example of negative reinforcement?
Oral enrichment, increase turn-out time, and allow social interaction with other horses.
Effective ways to prevent horses from developing stereotypies.
Accelerated wear of incisors
Which of the following is a serious side-effect of cribbing?
Aversion to handler, confusion, and aggression
Possible results of using punishment in horses?
Foraging and eating
What activity to mature horses spend most of their time doing?
Ears pinned back
Which of the following body postures/facial expressions will be displayed by an aggressive horse?
Teaching a horse to move forward when they feel the pressure of a spur
Which of the following would be an example of sensitization?
When he feels concerned or trapped
Which of the following situations is most likely to cause a horse to rear while being handled or ridden by a human?
Stall walking
Which stereotypy is MOST often helped with the use of mirrors?
Classical
__________ conditioning occurs when an established behavior occur in response to a new stimulus.
During the first 48-96 hours of life
When should imprint training be performed?
A conditioned stimuli
Causes a learned response
Asking you horse to stop pawing
Which of the following training methods will not work?