Genetics

In 1928, Frederick Griffith established that _______.

heat-killed bacteria harbor the constituent(s) necessary to convey genetic properties to living bacteria

To be certain that the extract prepared from virulent cells still contained the transforming principle that was present prior to lysis, Avery _______.

incubated nonvirulent cells with the complete extract

If Avery had observed transformation using only the extracts containing degraded DNA, degraded RNA, and degraded protein, but NOT the extract containing degraded polysaccharides, he would have concluded that ______

polysaccharides are the genetic material

The Hershey and Chase experiments involved the preparation of two different types of radioactively labeled phage. Which of the following best explains why two preparations were required?

It was necessary that each of the two phage components, DNA and protein, be identifiable upon recovery at the end of the experiment.

Which of the following statements best represents the central conclusion of the Hershey-Chase experiments?

DNA is the identity of the hereditary material in phage T2.

Which of the following outcomes would be most likely if the Hershey-Chase experiments were repeated without the step involving the blender?

Both preparations of infected bacteria would exhibit radioactivity

What observation did Griffith make in his experiments with Streptococcus pneumoniae?

The mouse did not survive when injected with a mixture of live, avirulent (smooth) Streptococcus pneumoniae and heat?killed, virulent Streptococcus pneumoniae

What results did Avery, McLeod, and McCarty obtain in their experiments with virulent bacteria?

DNase destroyed the transforming activity.

Identify three possible components of a DNA nucleotide

deoxyribose, phosphate group, thymine

True or False:
Guanine and adenine are purines found in DNA

true

Which of the following statements about DNA structure is true?

A
A. The nucleic acid strands in a DNA molecule are oriented antiparallel to each other, meaning they run in opposite directions.
B. Hydrogen bonds formed between the sugar?phosphate backbones of the two DNA chains help to stabilize DNA structure.
C. Nucl

What is the complementary DNA sequence to 5? ATGCTTGACTG 3??

5? CAGTCAAGCAT 3

true or false: In forming a nucleotide, phosphorus is most often attached to the nucleoside at the C?5? position of the sugar

true

Write the complementary sequence for the following DNA sequence, in order from 3' to 5':
5- CGATATTGAGCTAAGCTT -3

3- GCTATAACTCGATTCGAA -5

RNA differs from DNA in all of the following ways except by

The 5?-3? orientation of the polynucleotide strand

Of the following DNA strands in combination with their complementary strands (forming double helices), three undergo a hyperchromic shift with a T m of about 42�C. Which one has a T m of 52�C?

TCATGCGATC

What makes up the protein component of a nucleosome?

Two tetramers of histone proteins

What is the first order of chromatin packing?

Coiling around nucleosomes

true or false: The second order of chromatin packing occurs when nucleosomes coil together to form a fiber that is 300 nm in diameter.

False

That some organisms contain much larger amounts of DNA than are apparently "needed" and that some relatively closely related organisms may have vastly different amounts of DNA is more typical in ________.

eukaryotes than in prokaryote

Cytokinesis in animal cells is accomplished by constriction of the cell along the plane of cell division (formation of a cleavage furrow). In plant cells, which have cell walls, a completely different mechanism of cytokinesis has evolved.

A & C
A) Vesicles from the Golgi apparatus move along microtubules, coalesce at the plane of cell division, and form a cell plate.
B) The plasma membrane of the parent cell grows inward, eventually joining with the cell plate.
C) The cell plate consists o

When is DNA duplicated for cell division?

During the S period of interphase

true or false: The primary differences observed for plant cell mitosis relative to animal cell mitosis occur during telophase

true

Which list of steps in the eukaryotic cell cycle is given in the correct order? (step order listed left to right)

. . . G1 - S - G2 - M - G1 . . .

true or false: Haploid cells do not undergo mitosis.

False

Each of the following events occurs during mitosis except _______

A
A) polar microtubules contract, pulling attached chromosomes toward the poles
B) chromosomes condense
C) microtubules assemble between centrioles
D) nuclear membrane breaks down

true or false:
The cell cycle consists of a shorter phase called interphase and a longer phase called mitosis, during which cell division takes place.

false

Which structure is not found in all mitotic cells?

D
A) Sister chromatids
B) Kinetochore
C) Spindle fibers
D) Centriole

What is the arrangement of chromosomes during metaphase?

Sister chromatids are aligned along the equatorial plane of the cell

The parent cell that enters meiosis is diploid, whereas the four daughter cells that result are haploid.
Which statement correctly describes how cellular DNA content and ploidy levels change during meiosis I and meiosis II? (Note: Ignore any effects of cr

DNA content is halved in both meiosis I and meiosis II. Ploidy level changes from diploid to haploid in meiosis I, and remains haploid in meiosis II.

Separation of sister chromatids occurs _______

at anaphase in mitosis and anaphase II in meiosis

true or false: The end result of meiosis is four haploid daughter cells.

true

Novel combinations of genes can arise from _______

reciprocal exchange of DNA between homologs during prophase I

true or false: A dyad is composed of two homologous chromosomes joined at a common centromere

False

A cell has 16 chromosomes. How many chromosomes would its daughter cells have after meiosis?

8

Which of the following statements about meiosis is true?

A
A) The second meiotic division is similar to mitosis in that the sister chromatids separate.
B) During meiosis, homologous chromosomes behave autonomously of one another.
C) The products of meiosis contain a diploid complement of chromosomes.
D) A tetra

Crossing over refers to _________

Genetic exchange between nonsister chromatids during meiosis

In humans, what is a fundamental difference between the production of female gametes and male gametes?

The production of female gametes involves an unequal division of cytoplasm

Which of the following would be true of a plant heterozygous for a single gene controlling flower color? (Assume complete dominance)

A
A) If crossed with another heterozygous plant, the majority of progeny will have the dominant flower color.
B) About half of all its progeny will display the recessive flower color.
C) It displays the recessive flower color.
D) It will produce gametes w

true or false: The 3:1 phenotypic ratio observed among progeny of an F1 X F1 cross requires random union of gametes.

true

Of the methods listed below, which would be the best way to determine which of two alleles of a gene is dominant to the other?

D
A) Count the number of recessive individuals resulting from a cross between two recessive parents.
B) Perform crosses between series of randomly selected pairs to see which phenotype occurs more frequently.
C) Observe the relevant phenotype among the pr

How could the botanist best determine whether the genotype of the green-pod plant is homozygous or heterozygous?

cross the green pod plant with the yellow pod plant

Independent assortment explains _______

why a collection of meiotic products that includes gametes of genotype Ab will also include gametes of genotype AB in roughly the same proportion

true or false: Independent assortment occurs only in cells that are heterozygous for two genes (AaBb) and not in cells that are completely homozygous (AABB or aabb).

false

Which of the following genotypes represents a gamete produced by a failure to segregate during meiosis in a cell of genotype AaBbCC?

AaBC

Which of the following phenomena is a consequence of Independent Assortment?

B
A) Smooth seed trait is dominant to wrinkled seed trait in peas.
B) The phenotypic ratio among phenotypes produced from an F1 X F1 dihybrid cross is 9:3:3:1.
C) Pure breeding plants, when mated with each other, produce completely homozygous offspring.
D

true or false: The 9:3:3:1 ratio exhibited in the F2 generation of a dihybrid cross is a genotypic ratio.

false

A pea plant is heterozygous for two genes; one controlling height, one controlling color. The genotype is written PpTt. Based on the Law of Independent Assortment, approximately what proportion of the pollen produced by this plant should have the genotype

1/4

true or false: A couple has two boys and is expecting a third child. The probability that the third child will be a boy is �

true

What is the probability of a family with six children having three boys and three girls?

20/64

Part C
If three differently colored dice are rolled at the same time, what is the probability that a 6 will be the outcome on each one?

1/216

You would like to know whether the progeny of a pair of mated fruit flies are distributed among the resulting four phenotypic classes in a 1:1:1:1 ratio. You perform a chi-square test and obtain a p value of 0.04. Assuming you have done the test correctly

A
A) The differences between the observed and expected counts are too large to be attributed to chance.
B) Approximately 4% of the offspring lie outside the range of values expected for a 1:1:1:1 ratio.
C) The phenotypic ratio is actually 9:3:3:1
D) The t

true or false:
The larger the number of total individual counts in a chi-square test, the higher the degrees of freedom (df).

false

The expected ratio of phenotypes among the progeny of a test cross is 1:1:1:1. Out of 200 total resulting progeny, 48 occur in one of the four phenotypic classes. Given this information, which of the following must also be true?

C
A) The progeny of this cross do not conform to a 1:1:1:1ratio.
B) Since 48 is so close to the expected value, there is no need to calculate chi square before drawing a conclusion about the ratio.
C) The value of observed - expected for this cell = -2.
D

Assume that a black guinea pig crossed with an albino guinea pig produced 5 black offspring. When the albino was crossed with a second black one, 4 black and 3 albino offspring were produced. What genetic explanation would apply to these data?

Albino = recessive; black = dominant.

The fundamental Mendelian process that involves the separation of contrasting genetic elements at the same locus would be called

segregation.

true or false: Assuming complete dominance, a 3:1 phenotypic ratio is expected from a monohybrid sib or self-cross.

true

true or false: A 9:3:3:1 phenotypic ratio is expected from a dihybrid testcross

false

With incomplete dominance, a likely ratio resulting from a monohybrid cross would be ________

1:2:1

How many different phenotypes are possible in a one gene/three allele system that displays codominance

6

Which of the following is the most likely example of codominance?

B
A) A pure-breeding tall plant is crossed to a pure-breeding short plant. All their progeny are of medium height.
B) A pure-breeding plant with red flowers is crossed to a pure-breeding plant with white flowers. All their progeny have flowers with some r

true or false: The color dilution gene in horses is an example of incomplete dominance

true

In a mating between individuals with the genotypes IAi � ii, what percentage of the offspring would be expected to have the O blood type?

50%

In a mating between individuals with the genotypes IAIB � ii, what percentage of the offspring would be expected to have the O blood type?

0%

what contains all of the necessary information for virus protection?

isolated viral DNA is directly inserted into bacterial cells

found throughout the cell

protein

found only in the nucleus

DNA

DNA is composed of

nucleotides

nucleotides are composed of ? (3)

1. nitrogen containing base
2. pentose (5-carbon sugar)
3. phosphorous group

chemical that carries heredity?

DNA

pyrimidine ring is a single or double ring?

single

purine ring is a single or double ring?

double

difference between a nucleoside and a nucleotide

nucleoside: sugar base
nucleotide: sugar base + phosphate

Who concluded that there were 2 sugar phosphate backbones in a helix, with nitrogenous base pairs in the molecules interior?

Rosalind Franklin

Rosalind Franklin used what to study DNA?

x-ray crystallography

w many hydrogen bonds are there between Adenine and Thymine?

2

how many hydrogen bonds are there between Guanine and Cytosine?

3

density of DNA depends on?

relative G+C content (the higher the G+C , the denser)

True or false: there is a relationship between G+C content and buoyant density?

true

denatured

double stranded DNA becomes single stranded

The melting point of DNA is determined when?

half of the DNA in a sample becomes single-stranded

True or false: The more G+C in DNA the more hydrogen bonds

True

______ denatures?

heat

_________ renatures?

cooling

time in which half o the DNA is reannealed; indicates how complicated (the number of base pairs) a genome is

C t 1/2

DNA is forced to migrate through a semi-solid substance in the presence of an electric field

electrophoresis

Is DNA negatively or positively charged?

negatively

DNA migrates at a speed directly proportional to its

length

chromosomes

transmit/carry genes to new cells, either through mitosis or meiosis

chromosomes

provide a template for genetic information reading

chromosomes of a virus consist of

single stranded DNA
double stranded DNA
single stranded RNA
double stranded DNA

the single or double stranded nucleic acid of viruses can be ______ or ______?

circular or linear

bacterial chromosomes are?

double stranded DNA and circular

bacterial chromosomes are located in the ?

nucleoid

if a DNA molecule supercoils, the size...?

shrinks

what maintains supercoiling

topoisomerases

topoisomerases

cut one or both strands of DNA, twist the helix, and reconnect the ends

eukaryotic chromosomes are found in the

nucleus

when cells are not dividing, chromosomes are uncoiled to form

chromatin

how many chromosomes are in the human body

46

Names of Histones

H1, H2A, H2B, H3, H4

what plays an important role in producing repeating units along the chromatin axis necessary for proper chromatin structure

histones

chromatin is composed of linear rays of spherical particles/beads called

nucleosomes

regions of chromatin containing DNA and H2A, H2B, H3, and H4

nucleosomes

nucleosomes contain DNA wound around histone _____ assembled using two of each histone

octamers

the linker/spacer DNA is often bound by ?

histone H1

necleosomes coil into

solenoids

centromere

constricted region of a chromosome that functions to move the chromosome during mitosis or meiosis

telomere

the end of a chromosome that works to protect the end of the DNA molecule

metacentric

centromere is located in the middle

submetacentric

centromere is located between middle and end

acrocentric

centromere is located close to end

telocentric

centromere is located at the end

sedimentation equilibrium centrifugation reveals

satellite DNA

if chromosomes have the same banding patterns that means they have the same

genetic material

homologous chromosomes

each pair of matching chromosomes

homolog

each chromosome of a pair

diploid (2n)

cells contain homologous chromosomes

haploid (n)

cells contain only 1 homolog of each pair

what are the only haploid cells?

gammetes (sperm and egg)

strands of chromatin are uncoiled and dispersed in ______ cells?

non dividing

all chromosomes tightly coil and condense in ____ cells

dividing

In the cell cycle, before cell division, DNA is _____ each daughter cell receives an __________

replicated; exact copy of DNA

each duplicated chromosome has 2

sister chromatids

sister chromatids are attached via?

centromere

mitosis produces

genetically identical daughter cells

asexual reproduction mitosis or meiosis?

mitosis

gametes

haploid products of meiosis

meiosis ______ the chromosome number

reduces, diploid to haploid

meiosis reduces genetic material by

1/2

what preserves the number of chromosomes, producing genetically identical daughter cells

mitosis

what reducesthe number of chromosome sets from 2 to 1 producing 4 genetically distinct cells that differ

meiosis

what produces genetic variation

meiosis

biparental inheritance

diploids contains 2 copies of each gene- one copy from each parent

genetic recombination

crossing over between nonsister chromatids

independent assortment

the specific chromosome that you inherit from each pair of homologous chromosomes is random

specialized cells that set aside early during development for the production of gametes

germ cells

p generation

true breeding parents

F1 generation

hybrid offspring of the P generation

F2 generation

offspring of F1 generation

alleles

alternative versions of a gene

variation in the _____ of a gene ca lead to different versions of an allele

nucleotide sequence

dominant allele

determines the organisms appearance

law of segregation

the 2 alleles for a heritable character separate during gamete formation and end up in different gametes

genotype

genetic makeup of an individual

phenotype

physical expression of the genetic makeup

homozygous

when 2 alleles for a trait are the same

heterozygous

2 different alleles for a gene

true or false: all homozygotes are true breeding

true

monohybrid cross

cross between heterozygotes of a single character

chromosomal theory of inheritance

the separation of chromosomes during meiosis could be the basis for Mendel's principles of segregation and independent assortment

product rule

probability that 2 or more independent events will occur together is the product of their individual probabilities

sum rule

probability of obtaining any single outcome, where that outcome can be achieved in more than 1 way, is equal to the individual probabilities of all such events