1. Hair cells are classified as which type of receptor?
A) mechanoreceptor
B) chemoreceptor
C) osmoreceptor
D) photoreceptor
A
2. The sensation of taste is recognized by ligand binding to which of the following receptor types?
A) mechanoreceptor
B) chemoreceptor
C) osmoreceptor
D) photoreceptor
B
3. Vision in dim light is mediated through which type of receptor?
A) mechanoreceptor
B) chemoreceptor
C) osmoreceptor
D) photoreceptor
D
4. Signal transduction of an impulse to the thalamus for processing is accomplished by?
A) first-order neurons
B) second-order neurons
C) third-order neurons
D) fourth-order neurons
B
5. Signal transduction is fastest in which type of somatosensory nerve fiber?
A) type A
B) type B
C) type C
D) type D
A
6. Which subtype of Type A fibers transmits signals that are interpreted and perceived as pain?
A) alpha
B) beta
C) delta
D) none of these
C
7. Skin nerve impulses initiated in mechanoreceptors are transmitted along which type of fiber?
A) type A
B) type B
C) type C
D) type D
B
8. Unmyelinated fibers with the slowest rate of signal transmission are known as:
A) type A
B) type B
C) type C
D) type D
C
9. Which of the following described characteristics of the fiber type is likely to have the fastest rate of transmission?
A) small diameter, unmyelinated
B) small diameter, myelinated
C) large diameter, unmyelinated
D) large diameter, myelinated
D
10. The ability to identify the specific location of skin touch in two different areas is communicated through which pathway?
A) discriminative
B) anterior spinothalamic
C) lateral spinothalamic
D) posterior spinothalamic
A
11. Skin receptors communicating the sensation of heavy and continuous touch and pressure are known as:
A) Meissner corpuscle
B) Merkel discs
C) hair follicle receptor
D) Ruffini's ending
D
12. Detection of movement on the surface of the body is mediated by which of the following receptor types?
A) Meissner corpuscle
B) Merkel discs
C) hair follicle receptor
D) Ruffini's ending
C
13. Which of the following initiates the transmission of the vibration sensation?
A) Meissner corpuscle
B) Merkel discs
C) hair follicle receptor
D) Ruffini's ending
B
14. Blurred vision and loss of fine-tuning of focus may be due to impaired function of which one of the following eye structures?
A) lens
B) retina
C) trabecular network
D) lacrimal gland
A
15. Loss of color vision is most likely due to damage to which of the following?
A) central retina
B) peripheral retina
C) lens
D) cornea
A
16. Loss of night vision is most likely due to damage to which of the following?
A) central retina
B) peripheral retina
C) lens
D) cornea
B
17. Which of the following receptor types requires bright light for generation of nerve impulses?
A) free nerve endings
B) hair cells
C) rods
D) cones
D
18. Distal axonopathy and Wallerian degeneration are responses to injury in which component of the nervous system?
A) spinal
B) central
C) peripheral
D) cerebral
C
19. The absorption of light in receptors with differing combinations of retinene and opsin allow for light absorption generating of all of the following colors except:
A) red
B) green
C) blue
D) yellow
D
20. Eye movement allowing the ability to smoothly follow an object is known as:
A) saccades
B) pursuit
C) convergence
D) divergence
B
21. The aqueous humor is located:
A) in the anterior chamber, between the cornea and the lens
B) in the anterior chamber, between the iris and the lens
C) in the posterior chamber, between the cornea and the lens
D) in the posterior chamber, between the i
D
22. The error in refraction resulting from altered focus on an image in front of the retina due to lens thickness is:
A) myopia
B) hyperopia
C) amblyopia
D) presbyopia
A
23. Ocular muscle imbalance resulting in "lazy eye" is known as:
A) myopia
B) hyperopia
C) amblyopia
D) presbyopia
C
24. The most common type of cataract is:
A) nuclear
B) cortical
C) subscapular
D) suprascapular
A
25. Otitis media is a condition of the:
A) outer ear
B) middle ear
C) inner ear
D) none of these
B
26. Otitis externa, or swimmers ear, is a condition of the:
A) outer ear
B) middle ear
C) inner ear
D) none of these
A
Mastoiditis is a condition of the?
A) outer ear
B) middle ear
C) inner ear
D) none of these
B
28. Which of the following structures is not involved in balance and equilibrium?
A) cochlea
B) semicircular canals
C) utricle
D) saccule
A
29. Labyrinthitis results in?
A) conductive hearing loss
B) distorted central vision
C) the sensation of deep, visceral pain
D) vertigo
D
30. Hearing loss limited to processes involving the middle ear is known as:
A) mixed hearing loss
B) sensorineural hearing loss
C) conductive hearing loss
D) central auditory processing disorder
C
31. Hearing is optimally restored by cochlear implants in which type of hearing loss?
A) mixed hearing loss
B) sensorineural hearing loss
C) conductive hearing loss
D) central auditory processing disorder
B
32. Pain originating outside the nervous system is known as:
A) nociceptive
B) neurogenic
C) neuropathic
D) none of these
A
33. Dull and burning pain sensations are transmitted by:
A) type A alpha fibers
B) type A delta fibers
C) type B fibers
D) type C fibers
D
1. This controls the regulation of many hormones:
A) endocrine system
B) neurotransmitters
C) limbic system
D) hypothalamic-pituitary axis
D
2. Which is true about the action of the hypothalamus on the posterior pituitary gland?
A) Hormones travel within blood vessels to this part of the pituitary
B) Hypothalamus produces antidiuretic hormone released from this part of the pituitary
C) Hypotha
B
3. Hormones travel from the hypothalamus to the anterior pituitary through this:
A) hypophyseal portal system
B) nerve axons
C) lymphatic system
D) systemic circulation
A
4. What household tool functions in a similar way to that of the negative feedback loop?
A) thermostat
B) dishwasher
C) microwave
D) toaster
A
5. Which of the following does not prevent the accumulation of hormones in the body?
A) degradation by enzymes
B) inactivation by the liver
C) inhibition of hormone release by somatostatin
D) elimination through the urine or feces
C
6. Which best explains why hormones only act on certain parts of the body?
A) receptor binding
B) negative feedback mechanisms
C) regulation by the hypothalamic-pituitary axis
D) tissue affinity
A
7. Which hormone pathway is represented by cells in the body that are able to both receive hormone stimulation and secrete the hormone to receptive neighboring cells?
A) paracrine pathway
B) endocrine pathway
C) autocrine pathway
D) synaptic pathway
C
8. You are stressed about your pathophysiology final exam. What hormone, released from the hypothalamus, initiates the stress response?
A) antidiuretic hormone
B) adrenocorticotropic hormone
C) corticotropin releasing hormone
D) cortisol
C
9. Catecholamines, stimulated and released by the sympathetic nervous system and adrenal glands, are also active in the stress response. Which of the following is not a catecholamine released during stress?
A) serotonin
B) dopamine
C) epinephrine
D) norep
A
10. Which of the following is not a beneficial action of cortisol in the alarm stage of the stress response?
A) releases lipids
B) increases circulating blood glucose
C) suppression of the immune response
D) inhibition of metabolism
D
11. Cortisol elevations are needed in the early stress response but persistent hypercortisolism is problematic because it induces:
A) glucose intolerance
B) protein anabolism
C) autoimmunity
D) an excessive inflammatory response
A
12. Your mother is told that she has a hormone receptor problem and her cells are not receptive to hormone stimulation. Why might her receptors not be functioning appropriately?
A) She has too many receptors
B) She has a high sensitivity to the hormone
C)
D
13. Your grandmother is diagnosed with renal failure. How would this impact her hormone levels?
A) There would be no effect on her hormone levels
B) She would have much higher levels of circulating hormones
C) She would have much lower levels of circulati
B
14. What action does excessive ADH secretion have on cellular fluid balance in SIADH?
A) intracellular fluid retention
B) excessive water losses
C) excessive circulating blood volume
D) extracellular fluid retention
A
15. Which laboratory indicator is found in diabetes insipidus?
A) excessive ADH levels
B) urine specific gravity less than 1.005
C) serum hypoosmolality
D) serum hyponatremia
B
16. What is the reason for excessive thyroid gland stimulation in Graves disease?
A) excessive TSH release from the pituitary
B) excessive thyrotropin releasing hormone from the hypothalamus
C) suppression of TSH release from the pituitary
D) antibodies b
D
17. Your grandmother, who has had a long history of hypothyroidism, has boggy, non-pitting edema around her eyes. This condition is referred to as:
A) myxedema
B) goiter
C) exophthalmos
D) mucositis
A
18. Which of the following is not a process that leads to Cushing syndrome?
A) long term use of prednisone
B) excess ACTH secretion
C) tumors of the adrenal gland
D) ectopic production of ADH
D
1. Your friend is told that she has polycystic ovarian syndrome. What physical changes could you notice that would support this diagnosis?
A) increased dark facial hair growth
B) She tells you she has a lot of pain with her periods
C) She tells you she is
A
2. Your friend with PCOS asks you why she has this condition. You explain:
A) The cause is from a sexually transmitted infection
B) The cause is unknown but probably has a genetic origin
C) The cause is from a previous miscarriage
D) The cause is from a p
B
3. What happens to the hormones in PCOS?
A) Excess androgen production from the ovaries results in multiple immature ovarian follicles
B) Increased progesterone secretion promotes anovulation
C) Decreased estrogen from the ovaries promotes cystic changes
A
4. What would be an expected finding for the menstrual cycle for a woman with PCOS?
A) menstrual periods every 21 to 28 days
B) shortened menstrual periods
C) greater than 12 menstrual periods per year
D) longer than 35 days between menstrual periods
D
5. Your friend with PCOS desires pregnancy. What can she expect for initial treatment?
A) anti-progesterone medications
B) anti-estrogen medications
C) drugs to suppress ovulation
D) injectable FSH and LH
B
6. It seems that every day you see another commercial for treating erectile dysfunction. What is the mechanism of action for most of these drugs?
A) promote nerve signaling to penile vessels
B) promote trapping of blood in the corporus cavernosa
C) promot
B
7. Which of the following hormone-based conditions can contribute to erectile dysfunction?
A) hyperthyroidism
B) spinal cord injury
C) hypogonadism
D) anxiety
C
8. The permanent cessation of menses is known as:
A) perimenopause
B) climacteric
C) menopause
D) menarche
C
9. How does the hypothalamus respond to decreased secretion of ovarian hormones with menopause?
A) increased secretion of GnRH
B) decreased secretion of LH and FSH
C) increased secretion of estrogen and progesterone
D) the hypothalamus does not respond
A
10. What systems are affected by menopause?
A) reproductive
B) skin
C) bone
D) all of these
D
11. Vaginal atrophy in menopause can cause this painful condition:
A) metorrhagia
B) dyspareunia
C) polymenorrhea
D) dystrophy
B
12. Women with vaginal atrophy should use this treatment:
A) lubrication during intercourse
B) over-the-counter pain medications
C) drink plenty of water
D) there is no mediating treatment
A
13. Why does bone loss occur with menopause?
A) from an excess of osteoblasts and deficiency of osteoclasts
B) from poor calcium intake in elderly women
C) from the effects of cytokines in the absence of ovarian hormones
D) There is no known cause for bon
C
14. Why should women avoid menopausal treatment with estrogen only?
A) need to replace many other hormones as well
B) increased risk for endometrial cancer
C) estrogen alone does not ameliorate the symptoms
D) estrogen will only treat hot flashes and not
B
15. How can BPH and prostate cancer be distinguished?
A) biopsy
B) PSA level
C) clinical manifestations
D) family history
A
16. What is the major role of the prostate?
A) It has no purpose or function
B) increase acidity of seminal fluid
C) increase sperm motility
D) protects the urethra
C
17. What are the most common clinical manifestations of BPH?
A) urinary frequency, incontinence, and retention
B) erectile dysfunction
C) renal failure
D) none of these
A
18. How is BPH tissue often described?
A) asymmetrical
B) soft
C) hard
D) cobblestone-like
B
19. What does pharmacologic treatment achieve with BPH?
A) relaxes the smooth muscle of the arteries, prostate, and bladder neck to relieve urinary obstruction
B) promotes erectile function
C) shrinks prostate tissue
D) none of these
A
20. What clinical manifestations are characteristic of ovarian cancer?
A) severe menstrual bleeding
B) irregular menstrual periods
C) often asymptomatic
D) severe abdominal pain
C
21. Your patient has undergone three in vitro fertilization cycles and is concerned about repeated trauma to the ovaries and risk for ovarian cancer. What would you recommend for early detection?
A) annual physical examination
B) serum CA-125 levels at an
D
22. What is the difference between seminomas and nonseminomas?
A) seminomas are benign
B) seminomas resemble primitive sperm cells
C) seminomas are much more severe
D) there is no difference
B
23. Which of the following is a major risk factor for testicular cancer?
A) cryptorchidism
B) hypospadius
C) sexually transmitted infections
D) diet high in fat
A
24. Which is the best-case scenario for your patient with testicular cancer?
A) carcinoma in situ
B) presence of primary mediastinal nonseminoma
C) high serum tumor markers
D) presence of metastases
A
25. Which is a common clinical manifestation for testicular cancer?
A) small, painless testicular mass
B) slight enlargement of the testicles
C) heaviness of the scrotum
D) all of these
D
1. Which of the following refers to the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide at the alveolar capillary junction?
A) perfusion
B) respiration
C) ventilation
D) diffusion
D
2. What is the major role of oxygen?
A) maintains acid-base balance in the body
B) necessary for cellular metabolism
C) triggers chemoreceptors in the body
D) all of these
B
3. Which measure of ventilation is the maximal amount of air that can be moved in and out of the lungs with forced inhalation and exhalation?
A) vital capacity
B) forced expiratory volume
C) tidal volume
D) total lung capacity
A
4. Which of the following increases the affinity of oxygen to hemoglobin?
A) iron
B) heme
C) myoglobin
D) magnesium
A
5. Which of the following refers to cellular deprivation of oxygen?
A) hypoxemia
B) hypercapnia
C) hypoxia
D) all of these
C
6. Which of the following early signs could alert you to the presence of hypoxia, particularly in children?
A) restlessness
B) cyanosis
C) lethargy
D) coma
A
7. Which is an example of where a person could have hypoxia without hypoxemia?
A) asphyxiation
B) carbon monoxide poisoning
C) myocardial infarction
D) chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
C
8. How would you know if you had hypoxemia or hypercapnia?
A) measure oxygen saturations
B) perform pulmonary function testing
C) measure arterial blood gases
D) observe for signs and symptoms
C
9. Your patient describes a sensation of shortness of breath and the inability to get enough air. This is documented as:
A) dyspnea
B) orthopnea
C) hemoptysis
D) aspiration
A
10. You notice that your patient has a barrel chest. This is most likely a result of:
A) smoking
B) chronic costochondritis
C) chronic alveolar distention
D) hypoxia
C
11. Upon auscultation of your patient's lung sounds, you notice a high-pitched wheezing sound. This is due to:
A) airway constriction
B) bronchodilation
C) fluid accumulation in the lungs
D) asthma
A
12. Your 4-month old cousin is diagnosed with gastroesophageal reflux. She spits up frequently after feedings and is irritable for about 1 hour after eating. At her last health check up, the practitioner mentioned that she is at risk for pneumonia. What w
D
13. Which of the following diagnostic findings is related to the accumulation of the products of inflammation during typical pneumonia?
A) pneumothorax
B) consolidation
C) hemoptysis
D) exudation
B
14. What is the route of transmission for tuberculosis?
A) airborne droplet nuclei
B) respiratory droplet transmission
C) direct contact
D) vector transmission
A
15. Which of the following is not characteristic of infection with tuberculosis?
A) The tuberculosis bacillus is slow growing
B) A humoral-mediated immune response is critical for destruction of the bacillus
C) The tuberculosis bacilli do not produce toxi
B
16. Which of the following is defined as an irreversible enlargement of the air spaces beyond the terminal bronchioles, most notably in the alveoli, resulting in destruction of the alveolar walls and obstruction of airflow?
A) chronic obstructive pulmonar
D
17. Which of the following is not a change in the bronchi and bronchioles related to chronic bronchitis?
A) chronic inflammation in the airways
B) hypertrophy of bronchial mucous glands
C) fibrosis
D) squamous cell metaplasia
B
18. Which of the following manifestations are more commonly found in chronic bronchitis as compared to emphysema?
A) lymphadenopathy
B) cough
C) dyspnea
D) cyanosis
D
19. What is the major problem at the cellular level in cystic fibrosis?
A) electrolyte and water transport
B) mucus obstruction
C) infection
D) pancreatitis
A
20. Which clinical manifestation, when found in newborns, may indicate the presence of cystic fibrosis?
A) coughing
B) yellow, seedy, loose stools
C) cyanosis
D) meconium ileus
D
Which sensory receptor is responsible for impulses resulting in the sensation of touch?
a. Mechanoreceptor
b. Chemoreceptor
c. Nociceptor
d. Osmoreceptor
A
Which somatosensory neurons are responsible for communication of sensory information from the thalamus to the cerebral cortex and are present in the greatest quantity?
a. First-order
b. Second-order
c. Third-order
d. Interneuron
C
The most likely site of pathology leading to alterations in balance is:
a. The outer ear
b. The middle ear
c. The inner ear
d. The tympanic membrane
C
Which type of pain involves a typical pattern of impulse conduction and originates outside of the nervous system?
a. Neurogenic
b. Nociceptive
c. Neuropathic
d. Analgesic
B
Hyperopia is a condition characterized by:
a. Alterations in eye movement.
b. Infection of the conjunctiva.
c. Increased sensitivity to light.
d. Error in refraction.
D
Infection of the middle ear is also known as:
a. Mastoiditis
b. Vestibulitis
c. Otitis media
d. Labrynthitis
C
Sensorineural hearing loss is:
a. Often permanent, resulting from disease, trauma, or genetic defect.
b. Localized to the middle ear and is often temporary.
c. Due to alteration in auditory signal processing in the brain.
d. A response to immobility of th
A
The mechanism of action of opioid analgesics is:
a. Blockade of serotonin reuptake at the synaptic cleft
b. Inhibition of cyclooxygenase enzymes and prostaglandin production
c. Stimulation of large fibers to modulate pain transmission
d. Modulate pain at
d
Which one of the following eye conditions is the result of increased intraocular pressure?
a. Retinopathy of prematurity
b. Glaucoma
c. Wet macular degeneration
d. Dry macular degeneration
b
Balance and body position are the function of
a. Utricle
b. Saccule
c. Semicircular canals
d. All of the above
D
Damage to the cochlear hair cells may result in
a. Hearing loss
b. Loss of balance
c. Lack of proprioception
d. None of the above
A
Fibromyalgia is diagnosed by
a. Loss of bone mass
b. Muscle inflammation
c. Weight loss
d. Multiple tender points
D
Which of the following is a symptom?
a. Pain
b. Hearing loss
c. Loss of proprioception
d. None of the above
A
Which of the following reports of pain level (0 to 10) is considered moderate, requiring medications?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
C
Neuromatrix pain theory states
a. Specific stimuli cause predictable pain responses
b. Specific stimuli results in prevention of impulse crossing in spinal cord
c. Neural network integration of multiple inputs determines pain perception
d. Pain perception
C
1. Which of the following is not a major role of hormones?
a. Growth stimulation
b. Erythrocyte synthesis
c. Fluid balance and regulation
d. Metabolic rate regulation
b
2. The release of hormones from glands is most often controlled by:
a. Negative feedback mechanisms
b. Nephrogenic mechanisms
c. Ectopic hormone production
d. Active transport
a
3. The most common cause of endocrine disorders is:
a. Surgical removal of endocrine glands
b. Infection
c. Adenomas
d. Immunodeficiency
c
4. Excess cortisol is represented by which condition?
a. Addison disease
b. Cushing syndrome
c. Diabetes insipidus
d. Hyperthyroidism
b
5. Diabetes insipidus, if left untreated, will rapidly develop into:
a. Malignant hypertension
b. Diabetic coma
c. Dehydration
d. Metabolic alkalosis
c
6. A patient is asked to collect a 24-hour urine test to check a hormone level. Why is the 24-hour urine needed?
a. To measure female reproductive hormone levels
b. To obtain a measurement of hormone secretion over time
c. It is easier than obtaining a bl
b
7. You are experiencing constipation, dry skin, weight gain, and cold intolerance. Which condition are you most likely experiencing?
a. Hyperthyroidism
b. Addison disease
c. Cushing syndrome
d. Hypothyroidism
d
9. Which type of hormone is not produced in the adrenal cortex?
a. Mineralcorticoids
b. Glucocorticoids
c. Adrenal sex hormones
d. Neurotransmitters
d
10. Diagnosis of SIADH is based on which of the following?
a. Hyponatremia
b. Hypertonicity
c. Increased urine volume
d. Dilute urine with a low sodium content
A
8. Which of the following occurs with elevated levels of cortisol?
a. Fatty acids are mobilized
b. Glucose levels are suppressed
c. Plasma protein levels increase
d. Inflammation increases
a
1. Which of the following is caused by the release of insulin?
a. Decreased blood glucose level
b. Increased blood glucose level
c. Increased lipid breakdown
d. Increased protein breakdown
A
2. Which of the following is not true of type 1 diabetes?
a. Can be treated with oral glycemic agents
b. Pancreas is completely unable to produce insulin
c. Acute onset
d. Definite genetic link
A
3. Which of the following is not true about type 2 diabetes?
a. Accounts for up to 95% of diabetics
b. Gradual onset
c. Significant weight loss occurs as a symptom
d. Risk factors are hypertension, family history, and obesity
c
4. Which of the following is not a sign of DKA?
a. Kussmaul respirations
b. Dehydration
c. Ketonuria
d. Low blood glucose level
d
5. Which laboratory test is the best predictor of blood glucose control over the previous few months?
a. HbA1c
b. Fasting blood glucose
c. Urinalysis
d. Feasting (postprandial) blood glucose
a
6. Neuropathies are a potential complication of diabetes. Why do these occur?
a. Infection in the nerves
b. Thickening and ischemia of the vessels that supply the nerve fibers
c. Inability to provide continuous glucose to the brain and spinal cord
d. Exce
b
7. What is the major difference between the Somoygi effect and the dawn phenomenon?
a. One is caused by the release of certain hormones
b. One occurs between 4 and 9 a.m.
c. One triggers insulin resistance and the release of glucose from the liver
d. One
d
8. What would happen if your patient did not have alpha cells of the pancreas?
a. They would not be able to secrete insulin
b. They would not be able to secrete somatostatin and gastrin
c. They would not be able to secrete glucagon
d. They would not be ab
c
9. What would be an unusual sign in a child that may alert the parent to the presence of diabetes?
a. Bedwetting in a child that was previously dry through the night
b. Irritability
c. Asking for water to drink in the middle of the night
d. All of these
d
Your patient is complaining of menopausal hot flashes and other symptoms. Which of the following would you recommend as a nonpharmacologic method for the relief of these symptoms?
a. Increase spicy foods
b. Increase caffeine intake
c. Use relaxation techn
c
Your neighbor is taking an anatomy and physiology course and asks you what would happen if a person did not have ovarian interstitial cells. What would you say?
she would not be able to secrete estrogen
Your family is worried because your cousin has a testosterone deficiency. What would you notice for clinical manifestations?
Clear skin, free of acne
Your pregnant friend is complaining of nausea, headaches, constipation, indigestion, and swelling. What hormone is wrecking havoc in her body?
Progesterone
Which of the following would be illustrative of a mobility impairment leading to infertility?
Presence of leiomyoma
You 16-year-old niece confides in you that she has not had a period for 2 months. She does not think she is pregnant and denies having sexual intercourse. What is another likely explanation?
Severe emotional stress
Dave and his wife have been trying to conceive for the past 2 years. They go on a long awaited vacation and he wants to sit in the hot tub. Why is this not recommenced for men who are trying to conceive?
Spermatogenesis requires a cooler body temperature than that found with the core body temperature
The smooth area at the base of the bladder between the openings of the two ureters and the urethra that serves as a functional sphincter is called:
Trigone
Which of the following does not affect diffusion capacity?
A. PaO2 & PaCO2
B. Aveolar Surface Area
C. Density of Aveolar membrane
D. Volume of air in atmosphere
d
Total obstruction of the airway by aspirated material is manifested by:
A. Hoarse cough
B. Rapid loss of conciousness
C. Dyspnea (labored breathing)
D. Inflammation of the mucousa
b
A reduced number of RBC's in the blood results in the following change in the SaO2 of the blood:
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. The number of RCB's would not effect it
D. Decrease only if osmotic pressure of the blood was also decreased
b
Which is the major cause of respiratory failure?
A. Aspiration
B. Atelectasis
C. Sepsis
D. All of these
b
physema differs from chronic bronchitis in emphysema:
A. Characterized by mucous production & inflammation
B. Obstructs large passage ways
C. Obstructs aveoli
D. No differences
c
You have admitted a 20-year old male to ER with a history of asthma. He is having an acute asthma attack and is wheezing. What is causing these acute symptoms?
A. Relaxation of bronchial smooth muscle with dry mucous membranes
B. Constriction of the bronc
b
Which of the following are clinical manifestations of hypoxemia?
A. Cyanosis
B. Cough
C. Chest pain
D. Hemoptysis
a
How would you know you have hypoxemia?
A. Radiograph
B. PaO2 Measurement
C. PaCO2
D. All of the Above
b
Which of the following can trigger acute respiratory disease syndrome?
A. Severe lung infection
B. Inhaling toxic fumes
C. Aspiring stomach contents into lungs
D. All of the above
b
Which is the major problem in cystic fibrosis?
A. Formation of cysts in fibrotic tissue
B. Pancreatitis
C. Lung injury
D. Electrolyte & water transport
d