diseases and zoonosis final

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IgG

most common antibody, elevated levels indicate a chronic infection, can cross placenta to provide passive immunity

IgM

produced when animal is first exposed to an antigen, temporary antibody that disappears within 2-3 weeks after initial infection

IgE

antibodies that bind to allergens and trigger histamine release from mast cells, basophils, and protects against some intestinal parasite

IgA

antibodies protect body surfaces such as mucosal surfaces of the intestinal and respiratory tracts, intranasal applications of vaccines create this type of antibody

True

Innate immunity is something already present in the body. Adaptive immunity is created in response to exposure to a foreign substance.

Vaccination of an animals to a specific virus

Which of the following is an example of artificial acquired immunity?

Where are WBCs produced

red bone marrow

the mandibular lymph node may be palpated

true

A modified live vaccine produces the weakest immune response

False

T-lymphocytes commonly migrate through the lymphatic and circulatory systems

True

Interferon and complement are part of the nonspecific (innate) immune response

True

Cillia lined mucous membranes, tears, saliva, stomach acid, and nasal discharge are all examples of mechanisms associated with

Both B and C
- trapping, moving, flushing out pathogens as part of the innate immune system
-Natural defense mechanisms of the innate immune system

Which of the following is true regarding humoral immunity?

The main cell type involved are B-lymphocytes, including plasma cells and memory cells

Passive immunity may occur in the following ways

all the above
- maternal antibodies
- convalescent plasma
- pass placental barrier

Which type of vaccine produces the strongest immune response

modified live

Peyer's patches are palpable lymph nodes

false

The sensitivity of a diagnostic test

is the ability of a test to detect very small levels of antibodies/antigens

All of the following are examples associated with the MALT lymphatic system, EXCEPT

lymph nodes

Signs of inflammation include redness, swelling, heat and pain

True

Antibody production is a rapid process that results in immediate elimination of the disease-producing antigen.

False

Five types of leukocytes

neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils, monocytes, lymphocytes

What type of immunity can be referred to as antigen-specific immunity

acquired

Which of the following is not a correct answer: Antibody:Antigen specificity tests use

Both A and C
- neutrophils to detect an infection
- antibodies to identify circulating in blood

There are over 50 recognized Cytokines which are classified into three groups. What are the three groups?

Interleukins, Interferons, and chemokines

What amino acids do cats require in their diet to avoid cardiomyopathy

Taurine

The myocardial dysfunction that occurs more commonly in cats in which the ventricular walls become thickened and the heart chamber capacity becomes smaller is:

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM)

Sinus arrhythmia occurs when the

heart and pulse rates increase with inspiration and decrease with expiration

A common complication of myocardial disease in the cat is:

thromboembolism

Adult heartworms block the _________________, causing ______________________heart failure

pulmonary arteries, right sided

A laboratory examination of a patient with diarrhea should always include

fecal exam

Cats that have been anorexic for longer than 48 hours for any reason are prone to

hepatic lipidosis

What may develop as a sequel to pancreatitis?

diabetes mellitus

_______________ is the most frequently seen disorder of the thyroid in dogs whereas _________________________ is more common in cats

hypothyroidism; hyperthyroidism

The treatment of choice for thyroid disease in cats is:

radioactive iodine (I131) therapy

Na/K ratios of less than 27:1 are indicative of what endocrine disease?

Addison's disease (hypoadrenocorticism)

Eclampsia occurs most commonly in dogs during what period?

late gestation

An insulinoma is a functional tumor of the _______ cells of the pancreas

Beta

With entropion, the eyelids

roll inward, toward cornea

Normal intraocular pressure (IOP) in the dog and cat is:

between 12-22 mmHg

What medication is used to increase tear production in the disease known as KCS (keratoconjunctivitis sicca)?

triple antiboitic ophthalmic

What is the most common cause of bilateral conjunctivitis in young kittens

Calicivirus

Because of the development of vaccine induced feline sarcomas, it is recommended to administer the feline rabies vaccine:

low on the right rear leg

What benign tumor is found exclusively in young dogs and is usually a rapidly growing, hairless mass found on the face or legs?

histiocytoma

Patients having mast cell tumors surgically removed are often pre-medicated with _________________ to block histamine released by tumor manipulation.

diphenhydramine

Most dermatophyte media change color with the growth of pathogenic organisms. The color change is from ______________ to __________________.

yellow;red

Approximately ______________ of Microsporum canis organisms will be fluorescent when examined with Wood's light

50%

Gingivitis and periodontitis are two types of _________________________

periodontal disease

A cauliflower-like growth near the oral cavity of a young dog might be a _______________

Papilloma

What is the most frequent side effect of NSAID administration in dogs and cats?

Gastric ulcers

Cardiac arrhythmias arising after surgery with GDV may be treated using:

lidocaine

The majority of feline intestinal neoplasias in the cat are?

Lymphosarcomas

Idiopathic hepatic lipidosis in adult, obese cats maybe triggered by:

All above
- stress
- diet change
- illness

A puppy is having a "machinery-like murmur that is best heard on the left side of the chest. What cardiovascular defect is most likely?

Patent ductus arteriosus

An owner reports that her Weimaraner puppy is regurgitating undigested food every time the puppy eats. The puppy is losing weight and is coughing. Which of the following abnormalities might this puppy be exhibiting?

persistent right aortic arch

While monitoring a dog under anesthesia, the technician notes different looking QRS complexes on the ECG. The technician should do which of the following:

All the above
- note the occurrence of the arrhythmia on the anesthesia record
-inform the doctor of the change in the ECG
-auscultate the heart directly and check femoral pulses

Pituitary gland and hypothalmus make up the _____________________ of the endocrine system.

the central control

Regulation of hormone levels within the body is through a ______________ feedback system.

negative

Hypothyroid disease and Cushing's disease are the only known diseases that cause a symptom of bilaterally symmetrical alopecias.

True

Hypothyroid disease is most commonly diagnosed in which of the following species?

canine

Hyperthyroid disease is more commonly diagnosed in cats and rarely in dogs.

True

OCD lesions are most commonly seen in large breed dogs in the

scapulohumeral joint

For OFA certification, dogs should be radiographed after reaching the age of:

2 years

Sudden hyperextension of the stifle joint in middle-aged, obese dogs can result in rupture of the

cranial cruciate ligament

What is the most frequently seen primary bone tumor in pet animals?

osteosarcoma

What type of support bandage provides good protection for a long bone fracture while radiographs are being taken?

Robert Jones Bandage

Mary has a large breed puppy and has been told by the breeder to give him supplements of calcium rich vitamins for fast growth. Is this a good idea

No, rapid growth is not ideal for breeds prone to hip dysplasia.

Which of the following statements is TRUE?

Most patellar luxations seen early in life are medial luxations

Which of the following statements is FALSE?

Hip dysplasia cannot develop in puppies born to female dogs without hip dysplasia

Which of the following statements is FALSE?

No relationship exists between excessive growth and the development of hip dysplasia

Hip dysplasia is not a progressive, degenerative joint disease (DJD)

False

1 / 1 point
Casts or splints may not prevent rotation or overriding of fractured long bones and may result in delayed healing.

true

Which tick species most commonly causes tick paralysis?

Dermacentor sp.

Which of the following is NOT included in the treatment of tick paralysis

antibiotics

Which of the following diseases does not include the sign of ascending flaccid paralysis?

Embolic ischemic myelopathy caused by Fibrocartilaginous Embolism

Phenobarbital takes __ days to reach an adequate concentration in the blood. Until this time, animals may continue to exhibit seizure activity

7-10

Which of the following is a FALSE statement concerning intervertebral disk disease (IVDD)?

The severity of the spinal cord injury depends on the weight of the animal

Which of the following would not be a cause of megaesophagus in the dog?

atlantoaxial subluxation

What percentage of intervertebral disks are estimated to be degenerative in a chondrodystrophic breed by one year of age?

75%

Approximately ______ of animals treated medically had recurrence of IVDD with more severe signs

40%

Until proven otherwise, animals with alteration of voice or laryngeal paralysis should be suspected of

rabies

In the absence of deep pain following a spinal cord injury for greater than 48 hours, the prognosis is:

poor

Wobbler Syndrome (cervical spondylmyelopathy) is seen primarily in

Dobermans

Abnormal mentation during a neurological exam localizes the lesion to the:

brain

The antibiotic drug class, fluoroquinolones (ex: enrofloxacin) can cause ototoxicity and deafness

True

Dogs and cats with vestibular disease will require large doses of corticosteroids for 3-6 weeks

False

According to your textbook, kittens should be at least _______ of age before testing for FIV.

6 months

The feline immunodeficiency (FIV) virus is primarily spread between cats via:

fighting/bite wound

Feline Leukemia virus (FeLV) and Feline Immunodeficiency virus (FIV) are:

retroviruses

The vaccine for __________ interferes with testing for that disease.

FIV

_____________ and ______________ are very similar viruses that both infect rapidly dividing cells, especially the crypt cells of the intestinal mucosa.

Canine Parvovirus and Feline Panleukopenia

______________________ is a disease that occurs in cats if a mutation of Feline Corona Virus occurs. The disease may occur in a "wet" or "dry" form and is almost always fatal (although there is a new antiviral drug currently being researched that early st

FIP

Patients with canine parvovirus and white blood cell counts less than 2,000 usually have a ___________ prognosis.

poor

Which of the following animals is the definitive host for Toxoplasma gondii

cat

Which of the following is NOT tested for with the Idexx snap 4Dx test

Canine parvovirus

Ehrlichia canis infections can be diagnosed by finding the organisms in the

white blood cells

Treatment for rickettsial diseases is commonly

doxycycline

the vaccine for lyme disease is a core vaccine

false

term for lack of milk production

agalactia

hormone responsible for milk let down

oxytocin

The best way to prevent male reproductive system problems such as prostatic abscesses or testicular tumors is to

castrate the animal at early age

What is the treatment of choice for male dogs with prostatic hypertrophy

castration

The normal gestation period for dogs and cats is between

62-65 days

It is often difficult to determine whether a mammary tumor is malignant by visual inspection

true

Female dogs receiving an ovariohysterectomy before their first cycle will develop fewer mammary tumors later in life than those dogs that are spayed later in life

true

Having an isolation protocol in place is important as this will help

limit the spread of infectious diseases

Wearing gloves when handling a sick puppy or kitten will help limit potential exposure of a zoonotic disease to yourself, but will also help limit the spread of potential infectious diseases. Wearing gloves when handling immunocompromised patients may als

true

All of the following diseases are zoonotic diseases, EXCEPT

parvo

It is normal during whelping for a dog to have contractions and to actively be straining / pushing for 4 hours before seeking veterinary care.

false

What type of testicular tumor may cause an increased production of estrogen resulting in bone marrow suppression

Sertoli cell tumor

How can many reproductive system diseases be prevented

both (spay prior to first or second heat cycle, and neuter at an early age

A five year old dog has an exudative, serosanguineous wound that is nonresponsive to antibiotics and corticosteroid therapy. This should alert the clinician to the possibility of what type of problem

fungal

The life span of the adult Dirofilaria immitis in the cat is approximately _____________

2 years

The preferred spot for thoracocentesis is the ________ space

seventh intercostal

The most common systemic mycotic disease in cats is caused by:

Cryptococcus

This diagnostic testing must be performed to obtain a definitive diagnosis of a pulmonary neoplasia

histology

Technicians can transmit respiratory viruses to uninfected cats by contact with hands and clothes.

true

The feline herpesvirus responsible for feline viral rhinotracheitis (FVR) is hardy and will remain in the environment for years

false

The term for bleeding from the nose is

epistaxis

Which of the following is NOT a function of the kidney

drug metabolism

The two most common types of uroliths in the cat are

calcium oxalate and struvite

Urethral closure in the female dog is primarily related to

the smooth muscle surrounding the entire urethra

Which of the following drugs is nephrotoxic

amikacin

The term for the build-up of nitrogenous waste products in the blood is

azotemia

Feline urethral plugs are made largely of

small concretions of minerals and large amounts of matrix

The main treatment for acute renal failure patients is

IV fluid therapy

In cats that present with the gait disturbance of cervical ventroflexion, which electrolyte needs to be checked

potassium

Urine collected by cystocentesis should contain no microorganisms

true

The type of urolith that can be dissolved through diet change is calcium oxalate

false

Technicians can transmit respiratory viruses to uninfected cats by contact with hands and clothes

true

When exuberant granulation tissue is removed, it will bleed profusely, but the horse will show few signs of pain.

true

Another name for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease in horses is

Heaves

Thrush, a bacterial infection of the sulci of the frog is caused by

Fusarium necrophorum

Which of the following is the medication to treat fescue toxicosis in mares

doperidone

The etiological agent for Strangles is

Streptococcus equi

Which of the following is NOT a core vaccine for all adult horses

Equine influenza

The most common tumor of the skin in horses is

squarmous cell carcinoma

The most common viral respiratory disease seen in horses is

equine viral rhinopneumonitis

Which of the following conditions has both a bacterial and fungal component

rain rot

The etiological agent for Equine Protozoal Myeloencephalitis (EPM) is

Sarcocystis neurona

What is the most common foot abnormality found in sheep and goats

overgrowth of hoof wall

Diets for sheep should contain limited amounts of this element

copper

The presence of this bacterium in food may result in food poisoning in humans. In goats and sheep, it is associated with feeding of silage and grazing on wet, boggy pasture

listeria

Which of the following medications should be avoided if the cornea is ulcerated

dexamethasone

Nutritional secondary hyperparathyroidism involves a dietary imbalance in

calcium and phosphorus

Which of the following organisms is NOT zoonotic

coccidosis

What is the most common predisposing factor for urolithiasis in a buck, ram, or wether

too much concentrate in diet

Overeating disease" is caused by which of the following conditions

Clostridium infection

Contagious ecthyma (orf) is caused by a ________________ and is __________________

parapoxvirus; zoonotic

Nonbred pet does with enlarged udders may be suffering from:

pseudopregnancy

A large herd of goats was kept housed in a barn all winter to be protected from heavy snowfall. Approx. 99% of them came down with signs of pleuropneumonia. What bacterium is most likely responsible for this outbreak?

Mycoplasma

White muscle disease is caused by lack of

Selenium

Goiter may be seen in animals whose diet is low in

Iodine

Which of the following is the treatment for polioencephalomalacia

thiamine injection

Anything living or non-living that serves as a long-term habitat for a disease-causing organism

reservoir

A fomite is zoonotic transmission exposure by contact with

an inanimate object or surface that is contaminated with zoonotic pathogens acquired from an infected animal

Organisms transmitted through bite wounds of special concern:

both Pasteurella multocida and Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)

A live animal that transmits an infectious agent from one host to the next is a:

vector

The spread of disease from parent to offspring is considered

vertical transmission

Veterinarians report zoonotic diseases directly to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)

false

Which animals are protected by ADA and the owner has the right to bring the animal into public establishments?

service animals

What are considered to be benefits of companion animals? (Select all correct responses)

Companionship
physiological health benefits
psychological health benefits
social and behavioral health benefits

A live animal that transmits a pathogen from one host to the next and is necessary for the pathogen's life cycle is a

biological vector

Which zoonotic disease is caused by the bacterium Yersinia pestis, is spread by infected fleas from wild rodents, and most cases in the US (while rare) are seen west of the Rocky Mountains.

plague

Two of the most common common syndromes associated with bite wounds are

simple wound infection and cellulitis

Select the two viruses in which wild mice are asymptomatic carriers:

Hantavirus
Rabies

Place in chronological order the steps one should take when a human has a bite wound:

1. clean wound
2. cover wound
3. check rabies status of animal
4. seek medical attention

Select the two fungal diseases that can be transmitted in bite wounds

-Blastomycosis
-Sporotrichosis

The rabies virus replicates in what part of the victim's body?

muscle

Cutaneous larva migrans

is caused by hookworms, such as Ancylostoma

Which of the following is TRUE concerning fungal culture?

A positive result is indicated by growth and color change that both occur within 24 hours, but can take up to 14 days after obtaining sample

This type of mite is pruritic and not very host-specific, as it is seen in many domestic species and can be zoonotic

sarcoptes

Which of the following is NOT a name for the bacterial infection caused by Chlamydophila psittaci?

Crytococcosis

The fungal disease associated with immunocompromised humans and exposure to pigeon feces is:

Cryptococcosis

The fungal disease associated with immunocompromised humans and exposure to pigeon feces is:

food contamination with oocysts
- transplacental
- meat
- fecal-oral

The gold standard diagnostic test for dermatophytosis is

Fungal culture using Dermatophyte Test Media

The most common bacterial cause of human diarrhea in the US is

Campylobacter jejuni

The two diagnostic forms of Giardia are:

cysts and trophozoites

The causative agent for Lyme disease is __________ and the carrier for this agent is the ______________.

Borrelia burgdorferi; white-footed mouse

This highly infective and zoonotic protozoan is seen in young animals, particularly calves and is difficult to treat

Cryptosporidium parvum

Which of the following is considered a tick-borne organism found in dogs

Ehrlichia

The type of antibody produced first during recent exposure, that is short-lived is:

IgM

A disadvantage of paired serum testing for tick-borne diseases is:

it requires both acute and convalescent samples, which takes several weeks for results

Which of the following is NOT included in the ELISA 3Dx snap test for dogs?

Anaplasmosis

Which of the following is FALSE concerning Leptospirosis?

Diagnosis of this disease is based on urine culture and sensitivity

Bacteria that cause Ehrlichiosis bind to and are named for the type of cell they infect. These cells are

Leukocytes

Which of the following is TRUE regarding Giardiasis

It is caused by a flagellated protozoan

The small animal vaccines that are useful in preventing zoonosis, as well as infectious disease include:

Lepto and Rabies vaccines

Which of the following are recommended for screening and treatment for zoonotic diseases (Select all that apply)

-Screening pet birds for Chlamydophila psittaci
-Wound Culture and Sensitivity
-Routine Fecal Diagnostics
-Urine Culture for Leptospirosis

The most deadly form of Anthrax in humans is:

plmonary

Pregnant women are advised to avoid processed meats, such as hot dogs and lunch meats to reduce the risk of:

listeriosis

Common ways to identify viruses include:

antigen/antibody testing and gene amplification

Viruses are

noncellular

In general, DNA viruses mature in the _______, whereas RNA viruses replicate in the _______

nucleus; cytoplasm

What disease can cause cyclic (undulant) fever in humans and can be contracted from cattle?

Brucellosis

Diarrhea is a common clinical sign of a variety of diseases. Which of the following is zoonotic?

Campylobacteriosis

Which of the following can cause abortions in ruminants and are zoonotic? (Select all that apply.

-Brucellosis
Campylobacteriosis
Chlamydiosis
Listeriosis

The migration of Strongylus spp. parasites causes thromboemboli in:

mesenteric artery

Which gland in the endocrine system is involved in Equine Cushings Syndrome

pituitary

An enlarged atrium may predispose the horse to this arrhythmia

atrial fibrillation

What arrhythmia is demonstrated by ECG in a healthy, resting performance horse

second degree atrioventricular block

Which of the following would most accurately diagnose a cardiac defect?

echocardiography

If an animal is positive for EIA, what is the next step for the animal

retesting by the state veterinarian

Diets low in __________ are recommended for insulin-resistant horses.

carbs

Topical treatment of the equine eye is difficult and it is often necessary to place a catheter sub-conjunctivally to facilitate multiple daily treatments.

true

Horses with recurring laminitis may have

all above

The treatment for Equine Cushings Syndrome is:

pergolide

Long-term use of ophthalmic atropine might result in some horses developing

colic

Signs of dysmaturity in foals may be linked to dysfunction of the:

thyroid

What step should be taken when a horse with an eye problem is seen in the pasture?

bring the horse out of the light; then call the vet

What test is used for a definitive diagnosis of Hypoadrenocorticism (Addison's disease)?

ACTH

Serum calcium levels greater than 12mg/dl (hypercalcemia) indicate disease of which endocrine gland?

parathyroid

Canine Dilated Cardiomyopathy is:

all above

Acquired active immunity results from:

vaccination of an animal to specific virus

All of the following are commonly prescribed drugs for cardiovascular diseases EXCEPT:

metoclopramide

The term for a temporary loss of consciousness due to impaired cerebral blood flow is:

syncope

The drug prescribed for many GI disturbances that binds to ulcerated areas and protects the mucosa from further damage is

sucralfate

Progressive Retinal Atrophy can be treated with surgery if diagnosed in puppies less than six months of age

false

Glaucoma is defined as:

increased intraocular

An owner reports that her Weimaraner puppy is regurgitating undigested food every time the puppy eats. The puppy is losing weight and is coughing. Which of the following congenital abnormalities might this puppy be exhibiting

Persistent Right Aortic Arch (PRAA)

A puppy is having a "machinery-like" murmur that is best heard on the left side of the chest. What cardiovascular defect is most likely

patent ductus ateriosus

Sinus arrhythmia occurs when the:

Heart and pulse rates increase with inspiration and decrease with expiration.

Patients having mast cell tumors surgically removed are often pre-medicated with what drug to block histamine released by tumor manipulation?

Diphenhydramine

The term for overflow of tears is

epiphora

All of the following are congenital cardiac diseases EXCEPT

Dilated Cardiomyopathy (DCM)

Adipose tissue is an endocrine organ

true

What cell produces antibodies

plasma cells

An increased trypsin-like immunoreactivity test result indicates dysfunction of what organ

pancreas

Tetralogy of Fallot is a congenital malformation involving four distinct heart defects.

true

What zoonotic disease in dogs can result in acute renal failure with or without hepatic involvement?

leptospirosis