Never
When should you take a blood pressure on the side of an AV fistula, IV, shunt, mastectomy, or axillary lymph nose removal?
60-100 bpm
What is the normal heart rate for an adult?
80 bpm
What is the average heart rate for an adult?
35.9-38
What is the normal body temperature range in Celsius?
96.7-100.5
What is the normal body temperature range in Fahrenheit?
12-20 RPM
normal adult respiratory rate?
120/80
What is normal blood pressure?
rectal
what type of temperature is considered a "core" temperature?
axillary
What type of temperature is taken in the armpit?
temporal
What type of temperature is taken from the forehead to behind the earlobe?
sublingual pocket
Where is an oral temperature taken?
tympanic
What type of temperature is taken in the ear?
amplitude
What is another word for pulse quality?
rate, amplitude, rhythm
When assessing pulse, what 3 things are inspected?
+0
What amplitude value indicates lack of pulse?
+1
What amplitude value indicates a weak, or thready pulse?
+2
What amplitude value indicates a normal pulse?
+3
What amplitude value indicates a bounding pulse?
blood pressure
What are manual, automated, Doppler, direct electronic, and palpation used to assess?
temperature
what is assessed based on age, consciousness, concurrent treatments, and disease process?
tachycardia
heart rate above 100 bpm
bradycardia
heart rate less than 60 bpm
dysrhythmia
an irregular pattern of heartbeats
perfusion
The process by oxygenated blood passes through the body tissues
indirect contact
means of organism transmission through a fomite (inanimate object)
orthopena
Type of dyspnea in which breathing is easier when the patient sits or stands
direct contact
means of organism transmission by touching or kissing
excretion and secretion
What means of organism transmission occurs through bodily fluids?
equipment and supplies
What means of organism transmission occurs in the hospital setting that involves things that are used?
personal contact
Means of organism transmission in which someone is touched in the medical setting
medical asepsis
practices designed to reduce the number and transfer of pathogens; synonym for clean technique
HAI
Type of infection that is acquired as a result of hospitalization
exogenous
a type of HAI that is acquired from other people
endogenous
a type of HAI that comes from microbes harbored within the host
iatrogenic
an HAI that is acquired from a treatment or a diagnostic procedure
CAUTIs
Type of HAI caused by organisms on an invasive device inserted in to urethra
VAP
Type of HAI caused by organisms on an invasive device used for breathing
CLASBIs
Type of HAI caused by organisms on an invasive device used as a central line
central line associated bloodstream infection
What does CLASBI stand for?
inflammatory process
The body's second line of defense, a protective mechanism that eliminates the invading pathogen and allows for tissue repair to occur
cardinal signs
Redness, inflammation, heat, pain, and loss of function are considered what?
leukocytes
cardinal signs are caused by what moving to the site of injury?
WBCs and Leukocytes
What antibody blood tests are used to test for infection, and if are elevated confirm the diagnosis?
isolation
type of precautions that are used as a protective procedure that limits the spread of infectious diseases among hospitalized patients, hospital personnel, and visitors
standard
type of precautions used in the care of all hospitalized patients regardless of their diagnosis or possible infection status that apply to all blood, body fluids, secretions and excretions except sweat, non-intact skin, and mucous membranes.
transmission based
type of precautions used in addition to standard precautions for patients in hospitals used with patients that are suspected to be infected with pathogens that can be transmitted by airborne, droplet, or contact routes
PPE
gloves, masks, gowns, and protective eye gear are considered what?
safety
Washing your hands before patient contact is what type of principal of hygiene?
prevent falls
Using bed rails, gait belts, chair and bed alarms during patient care is what type of principal of hygiene?
determine self care abilities
What principal of hygiene is important to ensure a patient can adequately care for themselves in the absence of staff and family?
patient involvement
What principal of hygiene gives a patient autonomy over their hygiene preferences?
warmth
what principal of hygiene provides comfort to the patient?
providing a clean environment
What principal of hygiene is important to ensure the client is comfortable and their surroundings are as free as possible from dirt and disease?
good body mechanics
Principal of hygiene in which positioning and moving clients promotes safety for the client as well as for the health care providers
prevent odors
what principal of oral care is being practiced when a nurse provides mouthwash, breath mints, etc.?
prevent infections and tooth decay
what principal of oral care is being practiced when a nurse provides oral swabs, tooth brushing, and mouth cleaning wipes?
increase comfort
what principal of oral care is being practiced when a nurse provides oral care to a patient who is on a fluid restricted diet?
improve appetite and the taste of food
what principal of oral care is being practiced when a nurse provides oral care before eating?
increase circulation of the gums
what principal of oral care is being practiced when a nurse massages the gums of a patient?
initial
type of assessment performed shortly after the patient is admitted to a healthcare agency or service
focused
type of assessment performed where the nurse gathers data about a specific problem that has already been identified; the nurse can also identify new or overlooked problems from the initial assessment
emergency
type of assessment performed to identify life threatening problems when a psychological or physiologic crisis presents
time-lapsed
type of assessment performed that is scheduled to compare a patient's current status to the baseline data obtained earlier; ongoing over a period of time. i.e. a scheduled assessment in a long-term-care facility
objective data
information that is seen, heard, felt, or smelled by an observer; signs that can be measured
subjective data
things a person tells you about that you cannot observe through your senses; symptoms
shape and contour
this should be even and symmetrical during a lung assessment
breathing
what patterns should be looked at during a respiratory assessment?
palapate
how should you assess temperature, symmetrical breathing movements and muscle development during a respiratory assessment?
accessory muscles
the development of what are to be inspected during a respiratory assessment?
right to left and top to bottom
in what order do we auscultate adventitious breath sounds during a respiratory assessment?
PERRLA
pupils are equal, round, and reactive to light and accommodation
nystagmus
repetitive rhythmic movements of one or both eyes
extra ocular movements
what is assessed during an eye assessment when the penlight is moved in the cardinal directions?
peripheral vision
what are you assessing when you and the patient occlude the same eye, then move your hands from the outside in?
wheezing
(sibilant) adventitious breath sound in which a musical/squeaking, high pitched, continuous sounds are the sounds of air passing through a constricted/narrow airway?
inspiration and expiration
when do you auscultate wheezing (sibilant) breath sounds?
Rhonchi
also called sonorous wheeze, these are adventitious breath sounds that are low pitched, continuous sounds; coughing may clear the sound somewhat
secretions
rhonchi is caused by air passing around or through what?
crackles
adventitious breath sounds that are low to high pitched discontinuous sounds that sound like bubbling, crackling, or popping
fluid
what is one cause of crackles in the airway?
deflated small airways
what along with alveoli causes a crackling sound when opening in the airway?
stridor
adventitious breath sounds that are harsh, loud, and high pitched; caused by a narrowing of the upper airway (larynx or trachea) due to a foreign body
friction rub
adventitious breath sounds that are grating or a rubbing caused by inflamed pleura rubbing against the chest wall
lower lateral interior surface
over where is friction rub the loudest?
aortic
what area is assessed first during a cardiac assessment?
pulmonary
what area is assessed 2nd during a cardiac assessment?
Erb's point
what area is assessed 3rd during a cardiac assessment?
Tricuspid
what area is assessed 4th during a cardiac assessment?
Mitral
what area is assessed 5th during a cardiac assessment?
assess
what is the first step of the nursing process where patient data is collected in order to determine the need for healthcare and to validate and communicate patient data?
to avoid error, bias, and misinterpretation
what is the purpose of validating patient information during assessment?
diagnose
The 2nd step of the nursing process where NANDA statements are determined due to identifying the client's strengths, health problems, and predict possible future complications and resolve current heath problems
plan
The 3rd step of the nursing process where interventions are determined to identify expected outcomes and plan care
SMART goals
what goals in the planning phase of the nursing process are specific, measurable, attainable, realistic, and time bound?
Implement
The 4th step of the nursing process where interventions are carried out to assist the patient in achieving the desired outcome(s)
Evaluate
The last step in the nursing process where the nurse determines if SMART goals/interventions have been met/are effective; this is the stage where interventions may be adjusted/revised to fit the patient's needs; may occur at different times throughout the
ongoing data collection
the purpose of this is to determine if a patient has reached their goals or not; also used so that the nurse can continue to change goals in accordance with patient progress
cornea
when instilling eye drops, where should you not allow the eye drops to fall?
conjunctivial sac
where do you instill eye drops?
inner canthus
where does the nurse apply gentle pressure with a gloved finger to prevent drops from flowing into the tear duct during the instillation of eye drops?
Z-track method
a technique used when injecting an IM drug that can irritate the subcutaneous tissue; or to avoid the medication from leaking back along the needle tract and into the subcutaneous tissue
after needle removal
when using the Z-track method, when should you release the skin?
massage
what should you never do after using the Z-track method because it can force the medication to leak back into the needle track?
25-27
what gauge needle is used for intradermal injections?
1/4 - 1/2 in
what length needle is used for intradermal injections?
forearm
the inner surface of what is a site for intradermal injection?
under the scapula
what site located on the back can also be used for intradermal injection?
5-15
What is the angle of insertion used when administering an intradermal injection?
less than 0.5 mL
what is the maximum dose that can be injected via the intradermal route?
25-30
what gauge needle is used for subcutaneous injections?
3/8 - 1 inch
what length of needle is used for subQ injections?
upper arm
the outer aspect of the what can be used for subQ injections?
abdomen
what is the most common subq injection site that diabetics use?
thigh
the anterior what can be used as a site for subQ injections?
gluteal area
The upper ventral or dorsal what can be used for subQ injections?
45-90
angle of insertion of a subcutaneous injection
1 mL
no more than how much medication can be injected using the subcutaneous route?
20-25 gauge
what gauge needle is used for IM injections?
5/8 to 1 in
What length of needle is used for injection into the vastus lateralis?
5/8 - 1 1/2 in
what length of needle is used for injection into the deltoid?
1 1/2 in
what length of needle is used for injection into the ventrogluteal area?
tissue amount
length of a needle for IM injections are dependent on what?
3 mL
what is the maximum amount of medication that can be injected via the intramuscular route into the ventrogluteal area or the vastus lateralis?
72-90
at what angle is an IM injection administered?
ventrogluteal
IM injection site that is located by placing the palm of the hand over the greater trochanter of the patient's hip with the wrist perpendicular to the femur, pointing the thumb toward the patient's groin and the index finger toward the anterior superior i
vastus lateralis
IM injection site that is located by dividing the thigh into thirds vertically and horizontally; administer the injection in the outer middle third of the thigh
deltoid
IM injection site that is located by palpating the lower edge of the acromion process, a triangle is formed at the midpoint in line with the axilla on the lateral aspect of the upper arm with the base of the triangle at the acromion process
max dose injected
In the deltoid, what is the significance of the amount 1 mL?
standing
also called a routine order, this type of medication order is carried out as specified until it is cancelled; the doctor will have these for medications like pain or fever, for example
PRN
patient receives medication when it is requested or required; these orders are commonly medications like Tylenol, stool softeners, etc.
one time
these types of medication orders are used for a single dose and are not repeated until ordered again
stat
these types of medication orders that need to be given immediately and are also one time orders
EMR
type of documentation on the computer that contains the patient's PHI that is used only within that facility
EHR
type of documentation on the computer that contains the patient's PHI that is used nationally and facility to facility
source-oriented medical record
patient information is arranged according to who supplied the data- the patient, doctor, specialist, or someone else. Describes all problems and treatments on the same form in a simple chronological order.
progress notes
any of a variety of methods of notes that relate how a patient is progressing toward expected outcomes
narrative notes
progress notes written by nurses in a source-oriented record
problem oriented medical record
A record organized according to a patient's specific health problems. Four major parts - (1) Database, (2) Problem list, (3) The initial plan, (4) Progress Notes
SOAP
subjective, objective, assessment, plan; organizes entries in the progress notes of the POMR
SOAPIER
subjective, objective, assessment, plan, intervention, evaluation, revision
focus charting
a documentation system that replaces the problem list with a focus column that incorporates many aspects of a patient and patient care; the focus may be a patient strength or a problem or need; the narrative portion of focus charting uses the data (D), ac
PIE charting
documentation system that does not develop a separate care plan; the care plan is incorporated into the progress notes in which problems are identified by number, worked up using the problem (P)-intervention (I)-evaluation (E) format, and evaluated each s
Charting by exception
shorthand method for documenting patient data that is based on well-defined standards of practice; only exceptions to these standards are documented in narrative notes
case management model
promotes collaboration, communication, and teamwork among caregivers; makes efficient use of time; and increases quality by focusing care on carefully developed outcomes along a timeline
SBAR
consistent, clear, structured, and easy-to-use method of communication between healthcare personnel; it organizes communication by the categories of: Situation, Background, Assessment, and Recommendations.
DVT prevention
Ted hose, leg exercises, turning in the bed, and anticoagulants are all used for what purpose in the hospital setting?
bowel function
this is slowed due to anesthesia and pain medicine associated with surgery
NPO bowel sounds
after surgery, a patient must remain ________ until ___________ _____________ are present
5 full minutes
The absence of bowel sounds is established after listening for how long?
paralytic ileus
Usually temporary paralysis of intestinal wall that may occur after abdominal surgery or peritoneal injury and that causes cessation of peristalsis; leads to abdominal distention and symptoms of obstruction
post op hemorrhage
symptoms of this are: restlessness, anxiety, frank bleeding (visible blood), hypo-tension, cold/clammy skin, weak thready and rapid pulse, this is an emergency, call for help immediately
Dehiscence
partial or total separation of wound layers as a result of excessive stress or wounds that have not healed
Evisceration
wound has complete separation with protrusion of organs/viscera
sterile gauze soaked in saline
using sterile gloves, what is used to cover a dehiscence BEFORE the HCP is notified?
care of an evisceration
for what do you use low Fowler's position, cover the wound with a sterile gauze/towel, keep the patient still, do NOT leave the patient (medical emergency) is used for what?
risk for evisceration complication
what do people who are obese, malnourished, smokers, anticoagulant users, have infected wounds, excessive coughing, vomiting, or straining all have in common after abdominal surgery?
wound infection
this results when a patient's immune system fails to control the growth of microorganisms
symptoms of wound infection
purulent drainage, increased drainage, pain, redness, swelling in and around the wound, increased body temperature and increased WBC, delayed healing, discoloration of the granulation tissue
primary intention
Wound healing where edges are well-approximated
secondary intention
Wound healing where edges can't be easily approximated and wound fills with granulation usually infected wounds and burns, takes longer to heal and forms more scar tissue
tertiary intention
The wound is purposely left open due to heavy infection or contamination to allow edema or infection to resolve or fluid to drain and then closed
Eschar
dead matter that is black, dry, leathery tissue
Exudate
fluid that accumulates in a wound; may contain serum, cellular debris, bacteria, and white blood cells
granulation
development of red, moist tissue made up of new blood vessels, indicating the progression of wound healing
stage 1
Pressure ulcer stage where skin is intact with non - blanchable redness of a small area of skin usually over a bony prominence
Stage 2
pressure ulcer stage with partial-thickness skin loss involving dermis
stage 3
pressure ulcer stage with full-thickness skin loss involving damage or necrosis to subcutaneous fat may be visible but bone, tendon, and muscle are not exposed, may have tunneling
stage 4
pressure ulcer with full-thickness tissue loss with exposed bone, muscle, or tendon; can have eschar or slough
Unstageable
full thickness tissue loss in which the base of the ulcer is covered by slough and/or eschar
drainage
what is described using color, amount, consistency, and odor?
serous
type of drainage that is clear, watery plasma
sanguineous
bloody drainage that is red in color and contains a large number of RBCs
Serosanguineous
drainage that is light pink to blood tinged and contains serum and RBCs
purulent drainage
comprised of white blood cells, liquefied dead tissue debris, and both dead and live bacteria, often thick with a musty or foul odor and varies in color from dark yellow to green. YUMMY
urine characteristics
color, odor, turbidity, pH, specific gravity, constituents
4.6-8.0
Normal pH range for urine
1.005-1.030
normal limits of the specific gravity of urine
80
percentage of UTIs related to an indwelling catheter
4-5
how many inches do you clean down the tubing of a Foley catheter when providing perineal care for a patient with an indwelling catheter?
urinary meatus
using soap and water, start cleaning the perineal area of a patient with a Foley catheter here
sterile technique
Foley/indwelling catheters are inserted using this to prevent CAUTIs
polyuria
excessive urination and is a common symptom of diabetes
anuria
absence of urine production
nocturia
excessive urination during the night
oliguria
Decreased urine output
glycosuria
presence of glucose/sugar in the urine
Straight Catherization
used to drain the bladder for shorter periods; helps prevent CAUTIs
indwelling catheter
also called a Foley catheter, this remains inside the body for a prolonged time based on need
basal metabolic rate
the body's resting rate of energy expenditure; the amount of energy required to carry on involuntary activities of the body at rest (metabolic, cell, and tissue energy)
1/2
your basal metabolism makes up more than ______ of the energy you expend in a day
0.9
the female basal metabolic rate is _______ cal/kg/hr
1
the male basal metabolic rate is _______ cal/kg/hr
regular
type of diet where the patient can eat whatever is tolerate
vegetarian
type of diet consisting of plants and plant based foods
Clear liquid
type of diet that consists of liquids you can see through or gelatin
full liquid
Clear liquid diet, plus any other food that can be poured at room or body temperature
mechanically altered
Diet in which the consistency and texture of food are modified, making it easier to chew and swallow
pureed
type of diet where food is put through the blender or food processor to make it smooth
consistent carbohydrate
Total daily carbohydrate content is consistent; emphasizes general nutritional balance.
> Calories based on attaining and maintaining healthy weight.
> High fiber and heart healthy fats encourages; sodium and saturated fats limited
-Type 1 and Type 2 diab
Na Restricted
sodium restricted diet
500-3000
milligrams per day allowed on an Na+ restricted diet
renal
type of diet with High calorie, high carbohydrate, low protein, low potassium, low sodium, and fluid restricted to intake = output + 500 ml
NPO
Nothing by Mouth
Prior to/after surgery, medical tests, inability to chew/swallow
NG tube length
this is measured from tip of nose to earlobe to xiphoid process
Aspirate stomach contents and check pH
how do you check for proper placement of an NG tube?
NG tube placement
ways to check this are: xray to confirm proper placement, monitor output (color and amt), monitor nasal skin around tube, monitor tubing for kinks & "plugs", continue to assess BS's and abdominal girth, pain, **aspirate contents & irrigate the tube w/ 30
4
the proper pH level of aspirated stomach contents is _______ or lower
NG tube
comfort measures for this are: oral hygiene q2-4hrs, clean nares, provide throat lozenges, anesthetic throat lozenges, anesthetic sprays
lactose
the only animal source of carbohydrates in the diet
plants
carbohydrates serve as the structural framework for these
carbohydrates
these are the most abundant and least expensive source of calories in the world
90
this percentage of carbohydrates are digested because they are more easily digested than protein or fat
income
carbohydrate intake correlates with this: if you have less of it, you eat more carbs
Carbohydrate composition
carbon, hydrogen, oxygen make up this
simple carbohydrates
monosaccharides and disaccharides are what?
complex carbohydrates
polysaccharides are what?
energy
the primary function of carbohydrates is this
45-65
What percent of your diet per day should be carbohydrates?
22
number of basic building blocks or amino acids in protein
9
number of essential amino acids
diet
protein must be obtained from this
13
number of amino acids that are non-essential
nitrogen
the body will make the 13 amino acids as long as this is present
complete
a protein that contains all the essential amino acids
incomplete
a protein that is missing one or more of the essential amino acids
nitrogen balance
the amount of nitrogen consumed compared with the amount excreted in a given time period
catabolism
Metabolic pathways that break down molecules, releasing energy, breaking down tissues
Anabolism
Constructive metabolism; the process of building up larger molecules from smaller ones; tissue is being repalced
neutral nitrogen balance
When catabolism and anabolism are occurring at the SAME rate.
positive nitrogen balance
state in which the body retains more nitrogen than it loses
negative nitrogen balance
Condition occurring when the body excretes more nitrogen than it takes in.
proteins
Nutrients the body uses to build and maintain its cells and tissues; supports new growth
formation structures
proteins are needed for the _______________ of all body___________
0.8
g/kg of desirable body weight that should be proteins
10-35
this is the total amount of caloric intake that should be proteins
lipids
Fats are also called __________.
water
fats are insoluble in this; so they are also insoluble in blood
95
percentage of diet that is in the form of triglycerides
saturated
Fats with the maximum number of hydrogens; soldid at room temperature, are animal fats; high in cholesterol
Unsaturated
Fat with less than the maximum number of hydrogens in one or more of its fatty acid chains; lower in cholesterol, liquid at room temperature
trans fats
An unsaturated fat that is partially hydrogenated; raise cholesterol levels
Cholesterol
this is only contained in animal products, but is an important precursor to steroid hormones and vitamin D
HDL
healthy type of cholesterol
LDL
bad cholesterol
20-30
this is the percentage of the diet for total cholesterol intake
50-60
Percentage of water in adult body
2200-3000
mLs of water per day required for an adult
fecal impaction
a mass of dry, hard stool that remains packed in the rectum and cannot be expelled
digital stool removal
this is done to a patient with fecal impaction by lubricating a gloved finger, loosening around the edges and removing in small pieces while being cognizant of the vagus nerve and bradycardia
fecal occult
Test to screen for hidden blood in the stool
blue
a positive fecal occult test will turn this color
2
this is the number of different places to take a stool sample from
Tap water
type of enema that is hypotonic; stimulates evacuation; never repeat due to water toxicity risk
soap suds
type of enema that uses pure castile soap and tap water or saline that acts as an irritant to promote peristalsis
normal saline
type of enema that is the safest due to equal osmotic pressure; volume stimulates persitalsis
low volume hypertonic
used by clients who cannot tolerate high-volume enemas
commercially prepared
oil retention
lubricates the rectum and colon for easier passage of stool
medicated
type of enema that provides medications that are absorbed through the rectal mucosa
isotonic
movement in which muscles shorten (contract) and move walking, jogging, etc
isometric
exercise in which muscle tension occurs without a significant change in muscle length (Yoga, etc)
isokinetic
exercise involving muscle contractions with resistance varying at a constant rate; lifting weights, rehab exercises
aerobic
sustained exercise that increases heart and lung fitness; may also alleviate depression and anxiety running, jogging, skiing, biking, jumping rope
cardiovascular and respiratory
these functions are improved when you exercise
cardiac efficiency
this is increased when you exercise due to increased cardiac output
heart rate and bp
these are decreased when you exercise
venous return
this is increased when you exercise
Alignment
base of support on soles of feet distributing weight evenly through soles and heels, abdominal muscles held upward and buttocks downward
postural
reflexes that help us maintain a normal upright posture
rest
decreased state of activity with the consequent feeling of being refreshed
sleep
an altered state of consciousness
NREM
non-rapid eye movement sleep; encompasses 75% of total sleep
1 and 2
the stages of sleep where the person is easily aroused and is light sleep
3 and 4
stages of sleep where the person is in a deep sleep state
REM sleep
Rapid eye movement sleep, a recurring sleep stage during which vivid dreams commonly occur. Also known as paradoxical sleep, because the muscles are relaxed (except for minor twitches) but other body systems are active. People are not easily aroused durin
emotional and mental equilibrium
REM sleep is essential to this
90-100
how many minutes long is the sleep cycle?
acute
localized, sharp pain that ends when healing occurs, lasts less than 6 months
chronic
episode of pain that lasts for 6 months or longer; may be intermittent or continuous; lasts beyond healing period; not localized in one area
cutaneous
superficial pain usually involving the skin or subcutaneous tissue
somatic
Pain that originates from skeletal muscles, ligaments, or joints
visceral
a poorly localized, dull, or diffuse pain that arises from the abdominal organs, or viscera
referred
pain that is felt in a location other than where the pain originates
Nocioceptor
normal process for feeling pain
Neuropathic
pain that results as a direct consequence of a lesion or disease affecting abnormal functioning of the peripheral nervous system (PNS) or central nervous system (CNS)
intractable
severe pain that is extremely resistant to relief measures
psychogenic
pain for which no physical cause can be identified
electrolytes
minerals that carry electrical charges that help maintain the body's fluid balance and break apart into ions; necessary for metabolism and other functions
cations
positively charged ions
anions
negatively charged ions
cations of electrolytes
Na+ K+ Ca+ H+ Mg+
symptoms of hypokalemia
weak pulse, nausea, vomiting, decreased specific gravity of urine, dysrhythmias, muscle cramps, weakness, fatigue, parasthesias
Anions of electrolytes
Cl- HCO3-, phosphate
Hypokalemia
deficient level of potassium in the blood
fluid imbalance
this occurs when the body's compensatory mechanisms are unable to maintain a homeostatic state; involves either volume or distribution of water or e-lytes
hypovolemia
decreased blood volume
Hypervolemia
increased blood volume
Symptoms of hypovolemia
hypotension, increased heart rate, dry mouth, excessive thirst, weight loss, confusion, lethargy, somnolence, increased HCT, decreased sodium
symptoms of hypervolemia
Increased BP
Bounding pulse
Increased respirations and shallow
Neck veins are distended
Edema
Pale cool skin
Urine is dilute and increased volume
rapidly gains weight
Moist crackles in the lungs and dyspnea JVD, decreased HCT
3rd space shift
shifts of fluid transcellular compartment; the body weight will not change since the fluid is still in the body, but a deficiency of ECF will occur
HC2O3 = carbonic acid
Carbonic acid-sodium bicarbonate buffer system; most common acid in the body's fluid, regulated by the lungs
HCO3
hydrogen carbonate (bicarbonate), the most common base in bodily fluids; regulated by the kidneys
sodium
bicarbonate typically attaches to this
phosphate buffer system
this is more alkaline and can convert to NaH2PO4
protein buffer system
Plasma proteins and hgb combine with or liberate H+ ions
Samone
prettiest girl eva. on a whole nufa level