A. Suppurative conjunctivitis
A 19-year-old man presents with a chief complaint of a red, irritated right eye for the past 48hrs with eyelids that were "stuck together" this morning when he awoke. Examination reveals injected palpebral and bulbar conjunctiva and reactive pupils; visio
C. Allergen
A 19-year-old woman presents with a complaint of bilateral itchy, red eyes with tearing that occurs intermittently throughout the year and is often accompanied by a rope-like eye discharge and clear nasal discharge. This is most consistent with conjunctiv
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Common causative organisms of acute suppurative conjunctivitis include all of the following except:
A. Staphylococcus influenzae
B. Haemophilus influenzae
C. Streptococcus pneumoniae
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C. Polymyxin
Treatment options in suppurative conjunctivitis include all of the following ophthalmic preparations except:
A. Polymyxin B plus trimethoprim
B. Levofloxacin
C. Polymyxin
D. Azithromycin
D. Corticosteroid ophthalmic drops
Treatment options in acute and recurrent allergic conjunctivitis include all of the following except:
A. Cromolyn ophthalmic drops
B. Oral antihistamines
C. Ophthalmological antihistamines
D. Corticosteroid ophthalmic drops
B. Adenovirus
The most common virological cause of conjunctivitis is:
A. Coronavirus
B. Adenovirus
C. Rhinovirus
D. Human papillomavirus
D. No antibiotic therapy needed
Treatment of viral conjunctivitis can include:
A. Moxifloxacin ophthalmic drops
B. Polymyxin B ophthalmic drops
C. Oral acyclovir
D. No antibiotic therapy needed
C. Localized nasal mucosa trauma
Anterior epistaxis is usually caused by:
A. Hypertension
B. Bleeding disorders
C. Localized nasal mucosa trauma
D. A foreign body
C. Firm pressure to the area superior to the nasal alar cartilage
First-line intervention for anterior epistaxis includes:
A. Nasal packing
B. Application of topical thrombin
C. Firm pressure to the area superior to the nasal alar cartilage
D. Chemical cauterization
B. Hypertension
The most common clinical finding in patients with severe or refractory epistaxis is:
A. Type 2 diabetes mellitus
B. Hypertension
C. Acute bacterial sinusitis
D. Anemia
A. Initiating systemic prothrombotic therapy
A 22-year-old man with recurrent epistaxis episodes fails to respond to simple pressure. Alternative approaches include all of the following except:
A. Initiating systemic prothrombotic therapy
B. Nasal packing
C. Chemical cautery
D. Topical antifibrinoly
B. Purulent eye discharge
All of the following are components of the classic ophthalmological emergency except:
A. Eye pain
B. Purulent eye discharge
C. Red eye
D. New onset change in visual acuity
C. Angle-closure glaucoma
Mrs. Murphy is a 58-year-old woman presenting with a sudden left-sided headache that is most painful in her left eye. Her vision is blurred, and the left pupil is slightly dilated and poorly reactive. The left conjunctiva is markedly injected, and the eye
A. Prompt referral to an ophthalmologist
In caring for Mrs. Murphy, the most appropriate next action is:
A. Prompt referral to an ophthalmologist
B. To provide analgesia and repeat the evaluation when the patient is more comfortable
C. To instill a corticosteroid ophthalmic solution
D. To patch
D. Anterior uveitis
A 48-year-old man presents with a new-onset right eye vision change accompanied by dull pain, tearing, and photophobia. The right pupil is small, irregular, and poorly reactive. Vision testing obtained by using the Snellen chart in 20/30 OS and 20/80 OD.
D. Retinal detachment
Mrs. Allen is a 67-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes who complains of seeing flashing lights and floaters, decreased visual acuity, and metamorphosis in her left eye. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Open-angle glaucoma
B. Central retinal artery occlusi
D. Immediate referral to an ophthalmologist
For Mrs. Allen, the most appropriate next course of action is:
A. Placement of an eye shield and follow-up in 48 hours
B. Initiate treatment with an ophthalmic antimicrobial solution
C. Initiate treatment with a corticosteroid ophthalmic solution
D. Immed
B. Immediately removing any protruding foreign body from the eye
A 45-year-old man presents with eye pain. He reports that he was cutting a tree with a chainsaw when some wood fragments hit his eye. You consider all of the following except:
A. Educating the patient on the use of appropriate eye protection for primary p
A. Peripheral vision loss
Which of the following is a common vision problem in the person with untreated primary open-angle glaucoma (POAG)?
A. Peripheral vision loss
B. Blurring of near vision
C. Difficulty with distant vision
D. Need for increased illumination
B. Elevated intraocular pressure
POAG is primarily caused by:
A. Hardening of the lens
B. Elevated intraocular pressure
C. Degeneration of the optic nerve
D. Hypotension in the anterior maxillary artery
A. Excessive cupping of the optic disk
Which of the following is most likely to be found on the funduscopic examination in a patient with untreated POAG?
A. Excessive cupping of the optic disk
B. Arteriovenous nicking
C. Papilledema
D. Flame-shaped hemorrhages
D. Blue eye color
Risk factors for POAG include all of the following except:
A. African ancestry
B. Type 2 diabetes mellitus
C. Advanced age
D. Blue eye color
A. Intraocular pressure greater than 25 mmHg
Key diagnostic findings in POAG include which of the following?
A. Intraocular pressure greater than 25 mmHg
B. Papilledema
C. Cup-to-disk ratio greater than 0.4
D. Sluggish pupillary
A. 1 to 2 years
Adults at high risk for POAG should undergo a complete eye exam every:
A. 1 to 2 years
B. 3 to 4 years
C. 5 to 6 years
D. 3 to 6 months
D. Mast cell stabilizers
Treatment options for POAG include all of the following topical ocular agents except:
A. Beta-adrenergic antagonists
B. Alpha2-agonists
C. Prostaglandin analogues
D. Mast cell stabilizers
B. A hordeolum
A 22-year-old woman presents with a "pimple" on her right eyelid. Examination reveals a 2mm pustule on the lateral border of the right eyelid margin. This is most consistent with:
A. A chalazion
B. A hordeolum
C. Blepharitis
D. Cellulitis
A. A chalazion
A 22-year-old woman presents with a "bump" on her right eyelid. Examination reveals a 2 mm, hard, non-tender swelling on the lateral border of the right eyelid margin. This is most consistent with:
A. A chalazion
B. A hordeolum
C. Blepharitis
D. Celluliti
B. Warm compresses to the affected area
First-line treatment for uncomplicated hordeolum is:
A. Topical corticosteroid
B. Warm compresses to the affected area
C. Incision and drainage
D. Oral antimicrobial therapy
B. Cellulitis of the eyelid
A potential complication of hordeolum is:
A. Conjunctivitis
B. Cellulitis of the eyelid
C. Corneal ulceration
D. Sinusitis
C. Warm compresses of the affected area
Initial treatment for a chalazion is:
A. Topical fluoroquinolone
B. Topical corticosteroid
C. Warm compresses of the affected area
D. Surgical excision
Meniere's Syndrome
Meniere's disease/Meniere's syndrome:
A 24-year-old man who experienced trauma to the head during a car accident.
Meniere's Disease
Meniere's disease/Meniere's syndrome:
A 45-year-old woman with no apparent underlying cause for the condition.
Meniere's Syndrome
Meniere's disease/Meniere's syndrome:
A 17-year-old who received aminoglycoside therapy for an intraabdominal infection.
C. This is largely a diagnosis of exclusion
Which of the following is true concerning Meniere's disease?
A. Neuroimaging helps locate the offending cochlear lesion
B. Associated high-frequency hearing loss is common
C. This is largely a diagnosis of exclusion
D. Tinnitus is rarely reported.
C. Distension of the tympanic membrane causing low-tone roaring tinnitus
Alterations in the ear involved in Meniere's disease include all of the following except:
A. Change in endolymphatic pressure
B. Breakage in the membrane separating the endolymph and perilymph fluids
C. Distension of the tympanic membrane causing low-tone
Not present in Meniere's disease
The Weber tuning test lateralizes to the affected ear.
Present in Meniere's Disease
The Rinne's test reveals that air exceeds bone conduction.
Present in Meniere's Disease
Pneumatic otoscopy in the affected ear can elicit symptoms or cause nystagmus.
Not present in Meniere's disease
The Romberg test is negative.
Present in Meniere's Disease
A positive Fukuda marching step test.
B. Dix-Hallpike test
When elevating a patient with Meniere's disease, the procedure of observing for nystagmus while moving the patient from sitting to supine with the head angled 45 degrees to one side and then the other is called.
A. The Romberg test
B. Dix-Hallpike test
C.
D. Restricting fluid intake
Prevention and prophylaxis in Meniere's disease include all of the following except:
A. Avoiding ototoxic drugs
B. Protecting the ears from loud noise
C. Limiting sodium intake
D. Restricting fluid intake
Subjective perception of altered equilibrium
Dizziness
Perception that the person or the environment is moving
Vertigo
Rhythmic oscillations of the eyes
Nystagmus
Perception of abnormal hearing or head noises
Tinnitus
C. An ulcerated lesion with indurated margins
You inspect the oral cavity of a 69-year-old man who has a 100-pack per year cigarette smoking history. You find a lesion suspicious for malignancy and describe it as:
A. Raised, red and painful
B. A denuded patch with a removable white coating
C. An ulce
D. Oral Cancer
A firm, painless, relatively fixed submandibular node would most likely be seen in the diagnosis of:
A. Herpes simplex
B. Acute otitis media (AOM)
C. Bacterial pharyngitis
D. Oral cancer
C. Squamous cell carcinoma
Which of the following is the most common form of oral cancer?
A. Adenocarcinoma
B. Sarcoma-form
C. Squamous cell carcinoma
D. Basal cell carcinoma
B. Human papillomavirus type 16
An independent risk factor of oral cancer is infection with:
A. Human herpes virus type 1
B. Human papillomavirus type 16
C. Adenovirus type 16
D. Epstein-Barr virus
B. At regularly scheduled dental visits
Screening for oral cancer is recommended:
A. For high-risk patients only
B. At regularly scheduled dental visits
C. Every two years
D. To be conducted by qualified healthcare providers only
D. Imipenem - is an intravenous ?-lactam antibiotic. First member of the carbapenem class of antibiotics
Which of the following medications is not a penicillin form?
A. Amoxicillin
B. Ampicillin
C. Dicloxacillin
D. Imipenem
D. Epstein-Barr virus
A cutaneous reaction nearly always occurs with the use of amoxicillin in the presence of infection with:
A. Human herpes virus type 1
B. Human papillomavirus type 11
C. Adenovirus type 20
D. Epstein-Barr virus
A. Cephalexin
In a person with a well-documented history of systemic cutaneous reaction without airway impingement following penicillin use, the use of which of the following cephalosporins is most likely to result in an allergic response?
A. Cephalexin
B. Cefprozil
C.
B. The beta-lactams
Which of the following antimicrobial classes is associated with the highest rate of allergic reaction?
A. The macrolides
B. The beta-lactams
C. The aminoglycosides
D. The sulfonamides
B. Refer to allergy and immunology for evaluation
A 36-year-old man presents for his initial visit to become a patient in a primary care practice. He is generally in good health with a history of hyperlipidemia and is currently taking an HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor. He reports that he is "allergic to jus
D. Fixed drug eruptions
Serious allergic reactions caused by the use of trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole include all of the following except:
A. Anaphylaxis
B. Stevens-Johnson syndrome
C. Toxic epidermal necrolysis
D. Fixed drug eruptions
C. Moxifloxacin
A 27-year-old woman presents with acute bacterial rhinosinusitis that has failed to respond to 5 days of treatment with amoxicillin. She reports that she experienced an allergic reaction to levofloxacin a few years ago that caused a rash as well as swelli
B. If he experiences any allergic reaction, he should stop taking the antibiotic and contact a healthcare provider immediately
You prescribe a regimen of doxycycline to treat an acute exacerbation of chronic bronchitis for a 56-year-old man. This is his first exposure to this antimicrobial. You advise that:
A. He should not experience an allergic reaction since he has no reported
D. M. Catarrhalis
A 45-year-old man presents with otitis externa. Likely causative pathogens include all of the following except:
A. Enterobacteriaceae
B. P. Aeruginosa
C. Proteus spp
D. M. Catarrhalis
A. Frequent air travel
Risk factors for otitis externa include all of the following except:
A. Frequent air travel
B. Vigorous use of cotton swab
C. Frequent swimming
D. Cerumen impaction
C. Fluoroquinolone
Appropriate oral antimicrobial therapy for otitis externa with an accompanying facial cellulitis suitable for outpatient therapy includes a course of an oral:
A. Macrolide
B. Cephalosporin
C. Fluoroquinolone
D. Penicillin
B. Increased ear pain with tragus palpation
Physical examination findings in otitis externa include:
A. Tympanic membrane immobility
B. Increased ear pain with tragus palpation
C. Tympanic membrane erythema
D. Tympanic membrane bullae
A. The presence of an immunocompromised condition
A risk factor for malignant otitis externa includes:
A. The presence of an immunocompromised condition
B. Age younger than 21 years
C. A history of a recent upper respiratory tract infection (URI)
D. A complicated course of otitis media with effusion
B. X-ray imaging
Diagnostic approaches commonly used to identify malignant otitis externa include all of the following except:
A. CT Scan
B. X-ray imaging
C. Radionucleotide bone scanning
D. Gallium scanning
66: respiratory syncytial virus - yes
67: herpes simplex virus 2 - no
68: influenza virus - yes
69: rhinovirus - yes
Indicate which of the following viruses are implicated in causing acute otitis media (AOM).
66: respiratory syncytial virus
67: herpes simplex virus 2
68: influenza virus
69: rhinovirus
70: S. Pneumoniae - yes
71: H. Influenzae - Yes
72: E. Coli - No
73: M. Catarrhalis - yes
Indicate which of the following bacteria are commonly implicated in causing acute otitis media (AOM).
70: S. Pneumoniae
71: H. Influenzae
72: E. Coli
73: M. Catarrhalis
D. Aggressive ear canal hygiene
Risk factors for AOM include all of the following except:
A. Upper respiratory tract infection
B. Untreated allergic rhinitis
C. Tobacco use
D. Aggressive ear canal hygiene
B. Tympanic membrane immobility
Expected findings in AOM include:
A. Prominent bony landmarks
B. Tympanic membrane immobility
C. Itchiness and crackling in the affected ear
D. Submental lymphadenopathy
B. Levofloxacin
A 25-year-old woman has a 3-day history of left ear pain that began after 1 week of URI symptoms. On physical examination, you find that she has AOM. She is allergic to penicillin (use results in a rapidly developing hive-form reaction accompanied by diff
A. Cefpodoxime
A reasonable treatment option for AOM in an adult who is develops GI upset while taking amoxicillin is:
A. Cefpodoxime
B. Erythromycin
C. Cephalexin
D. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
D. Respiratory fluoroquinolones
Drug-resistant S. Pneumoniae is least likely to exhibit resistance to which of the following antimicrobial classes?
A. Advanced macrolides
B. Tetracycline forms
C. First-generation cephalosporins
D. Respiratory fluoroquinolones
A. High rate of beta-lactamase production
Characteristics of M. Catarrhalis include:
A. High rate of beta-lactamase production
B. Antimicrobial resistance resulting from altered protein-binding sites
C. Often being found in middle ear exudate in recurrent otitis media
D. Gram-positive organisms
C. Some isolates exhibit antimicrobial resistance via production of beta-lactamase
Which of the following is a characteristic of H. Influenzae?
A. Newer macrolides are ineffective against the organism.
B. Its antimicrobial resistance results from altered protein-binding sites within the wall of the bacteria
C. Some isolates exhibit anti
B. Mechanism of antimicrobial resistance usually via altered protein-binding sites held within the microbe's cell.
Which of the following is a characteristic of S. Pneumoniae?
A. Mechanism of antimicrobial resistance primarily because of the production of beta-lactamase
B. Mechanism of antimicrobial resistance usually via altered protein-binding sites held within the
C. Fever
Which of the following is absent in otitis media with effusion?
A. Fluid in the middle ear
B. Otalgia (ear pain)
C. Fever
D. Itch
A. Symptomatic treatment
Treatment of otitis media with effusion usually includes:
A. Symptomatic treatment
B. Antimicrobial therapy
C. An antihistamine
D. A mucolytic
A. Streptococcus pyogenes pharyngitis
An 18-year-old woman has chief complaint of a "sore throat and swollen glands" for the past 3 days. Her physical examination includes a temperature of 101 degrees F (38.3 degrees C), exudative pharyngitis, and tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy. Rig
B. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
Treatment options for streptococcal pharyngitis for a patient with penicillin allergy include all of the following except:
A. Azithromycin
B. Trimethoprim- sulfamethoxazole
C. Clarithromycin
D. Clindamycin
C. Saliva and droplet contact
S. Pyogenes is transmitted primarily through:
A. Sexual intercourse
B. Skin-to-skin contact
C. Saliva and droplet contact
D. Contaminated surfaces
B. Treatment failure rates approach 20%
You are seeing a 25-year-old man with S. Pyogenes pharyngitis. He asks if he can get a "shot of penicillin" for therapy. He has not history of drug allergy. You consider the following when counseling about the use of intramuscular penicillin:
A. There is
B. Appropriate antimicrobial therapy helps to facilitate more rapid resolution of symptoms
With regard to pharyngitis caused by group C streptococci, the NP considers that:
A. Potential complications include glomerulonephritis
B. Appropriate antimicrobial therapy helps to facilitate more rapid resolution of symptoms
C. Infection with these orga
C. Peritonsilar abscess
A 26-year-old man presents with a progressively worsening sore throat with dysphasia, trismus, and unilateral otalgia. His voice is muffled, and examination reveals an erythematous, swollen tonsil with contralateral uvular deviation. The most likely diagn
B. 24
Patients with strep throat can be cleared or return to work or school after ____ hours of antimicrobial therapy.
A. 12
B. 24
C. 36
D. 48
B. Candida albicans
Common causative organisms of peritonsilar abscess include all of the following except:
A. Fusobacterium necrophorum
B. Candida albicans
C. Group C or G streptococcus
D. Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus (GABHS)
B. The rash often peels during recovery
When advising a patient with scarlet fever, the NP considers that:
A. There is increased risk for poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis
B. The rash often peels during recovery
C. An injectable cephalosporin is the preferred treatment option
D. Throat cultu
B. 3 to 5 days
The incubation period for S. Pyogenes is usually:
A. 1 to 3 days
B. 3 to 5 days
C. 6 to 9 days
D. 10 to 13 days
D. 3 weeks
The incubation period for M. Pneumoniae is usually:
A. Less than 1 week
B. 1 week
C. 2 weeks
D. 3 weeks
M. Pneumoniae
A 17-year-old man with a bothersome dry cough, lymphadenopathy, and tonsillar enlargement
Respiratory virus
A 34-year-old with cough, nasal discharge, hoarseness, conjunctival inflammation and diarrhea
A. Infection with a strain of streptococcal pharyngitis producing beta-lactamase
All of the following are common causes of penicillin treatment failure in streptococcal pharyngitis except:
A. Infection with a strain of Streptococcus producing beta-lactamase
B. Failure to initiate or complete the antimicrobial course
C. Concomitant inf
B. Carditis and arthritis
The symptoms of rheumatic fever include:
A. Severe, intermittent headaches
B. Carditis and arthritis
C. Hepatic dysfunction
D. Generalized rash
C. Antimicrobial therapy minimizes the risk of glomerulonephritis
A 23-year-old man is diagnosed with pharyngitis caused by S. Pyogenes serotype 4. Which of the following statements is false regarding this patient?
A. Antimicrobial therapy will reduce the risk of developing rheumatic fever
B. Onset of glomerulonephritis
A. 2 days
The rash associated with scarlet fever typically occurs how long after the start of the symptomatic infection?
A. 2 days
B. 4 days
C. 7 to 10 days
D. 2 to 3 weeks
C. TMP-SMX
Treatment of scarlet fever in a 19-year-old woman with no allergy to penicillin can include all of the following except:
A. Penicillin
B. Cefdinir
C. TMP-SMX
D. Cefpodoxime
S. Pyogenes
A 26-year-old woman with sore throat and fever, swollen tonsils covered with exudate, palatial petechial, and anterior cervical lymphadenopathy.
C. "After a rain shower
A 25-year-old woman who has seasonal allergic rhinitis likes to spend time outdoors. She asks you when the pollen count is likely to be the lowest. You respond:
A. "Early in the morning."
B. "During breezy times of the day."
C. "After a rain shower."
D.
B. IgE antibodies
The physiological response causing allergic rhinitis is primarily mediated through:
A. IL-10
B. IgE antibodies
C. Anti-IgM antibodies
D. Anti-TNF antibodies
Most common seasonal allergen
Pollens
Most common indoor allergen
Pet dander
Most common perennial allergen
Dust mites
Most common indoor allergen
Mold spores
C. A few days to a week
You prescribe nasal corticosteroid spray for a patient with perennial allergic rhinitis. What is the anticipated onset of symptom relief with its use?
A. Immediately with the first spray
B. 1 to 2 days
C. A few days to a week
D. 2 or more weeks
D. Loratadine
Which of the following medication is most appropriate for allergic rhinitis therapy in an acutely symptomatic 24-year-old machine operator?
A. Nasal cromolyn
B. Diphenhydramine
C. Flunisolide nasal spray
D. Loratadine
B. Action on the histamine-1 (H1) receptor sites
Antihistamines work primarily through:
A. Vasoconstriction
B. Action on the histamine-1 (H1) receptor sites
C. Inflammatory mediation
D. Peripheral vasodilation
A. Vasoconstriction
Decongestants work primarily through:
A. Vasoconstriction
B. Action on the H1 receptor sites
C. Inflammatory mediation
D. Peripheral vasodilation
D. Oral antihistamine
Which of the following medications affords the best relief of acute nasal itch?
A. Anticholinergic nasal spray
B. Oral decongestant
C. Corticosteroid nasal spray
D. Oral antihistamine
B. Decongestant nasal spray
According to the Allergic Rhinitis and Its Effects on Asthma (ARIA) treatment guidelines, which of the following medications affords the best relief of acute nasal congestion?
A. Anticholinergic nasal spray
B. Decongestant nasal spray
C. Corticosteroid na
D. Cromolyn nasal spray
According to ARIA treatment guidelines, which of the following medications affords the least control of rhinorrhea associated with allergic rhinitis?
A. Anticholinergic nasal spray
B. Antihistamine nasal spray
C. Corticosteroid nasal spray
D. Cromolyn nas
B. Anticholinergic effect
Ipratropium bromide (Atrovent) helps control nasal secretions through:
A. Antihistamine action
B. Anticholinergic effect
C. Vasodilation
D. Vasoconstriction
C. Cardiovascular disease
Oral decongestant use should be discouraged in patients with:
A. Allergic rhinitis
B. Migraine headache
C. Cardiovascular disease
D. Chronic bronchitis
C. Mast cell stabilizer
Cromolyn' mechanism of action is as a/an:
A. Anti-immunoglobulin E antibody
B. Vasoconstrictor
C. Mast cell stabilizer
D. Leukotriene modifier
B. An inflammatory inhibitor
In the treatment of allergic rhinitis, leukotriene modifiers should be used as:
A. An agent to relieve nasal itch
B. An inflammatory inhibitor
C. A rescue drug
D. An intervention in acute inflammation
A. Topical mast cell stabilizer with a topical antihistamine
According to the Global Resources in Allergy (GLORIA) guidelines, which of the following is recommended for intervention in persistent allergic conjunctivitis?
A. Topical mast cell stabilizer with a topical antihistamine
B. Ocular decongestant
C. Topical
A. When allergy symptoms are controlled with environmental management
Allergen subcutaneous immunotherapy should be considered in all of the following except:
A. When allergy symptoms are controlled with environmental management
B. When allergy symptoms persist despite optimal use of appropriate medications
C. When there is
A. Short course of an oral corticosteroids
Which of the following is most appropriate for the treatment of moderate-to-severe allergic rhinitis and conjunctivitis when symptoms are not controlled with current therapy?
A. Short course of an oral corticosteroids
B. Single dose of a long-acting paren
A. Upper respiratory tract infection symptoms persisting beyond 7 to 10 days
Which of the following findings is most consistent with the diagnosis of acute bacterial rhinosinusitis (ABRS)?
A. Upper respiratory tract infection symptoms persisting beyond 7 to 10 days
B. Mild midfacial fullness and tenderness
C. Preauricular lymphade
B. S. Pneumoniae
The most common causative bacterial pathogen in ABRS in a 40 year-old adult is:
A. M. Pneumoniae
B. S. Pneumoniae
C. M. catarrhalis
D. E. Coli
D. Recent history of epistaxis
Risk factors for ABRS include all of the following except:
A. Viral infection
B. Allergies
C. Tobacco use
D. Recent history of epistaxis
A. Amoxicillin-clavulanate
Which of the following is a first-line therapy for the treatment of ABRS in an adult with no recent antimicrobial use?
A. Amoxicillin-clavulanate
B. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
C. Clarithromycin
D. Moxifloxacin
D. High dose amoxicillin with clavulante
Which of the following represents a therapeutic option for ABRS in an adult patient with no recent antimicrobial care with treatment failure after 72 hours of appropriate doxycycline therapy?
A. Clindamycin
B. Clarithromycin
C. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazo
B. Moxifloxacin
A 34-year-old man with penicillin allergy presents with ABRS. Three weeks ago, he was treated with doxycycline for "bronchitis." You now prescribe:
A. Clarithromycin
B. Moxifloxacin
C. Cephalexin
D. Amoxicillin
C. Prompt referral for sinus imaging with a CT scan
A 45-year-old person with severe ABRS has shown no clinical improvement after a total of 10 days of antimicrobial therapy. Initially treated with doxycycline for 5 days, he was then switched to levofloxacin for the past 5 days. This is his third episode o
C. Oral decongestant
According to the latest evidence, all of the following have demonstrated efficacy in relieving symptoms of ABRS except:
A. Saline nasal spray
B. Nasal corticosteroid
C. Oral decongestant
D. Acetaminophen
C. 30 to 50 days
An 18-year-old woman presents with a chief complaint of a 3 day history of "sore throat and swollen glands." Her physical examination includes exudative pharyngitis, minimally tender anterior and posterior cervical lymphadenopathy, and maculopapular rash.
C. Oropharyngeal secretions
The Epstein-Barr virus is primarily transmitted via:
A. Skin-to-skin contact
B. Contact with blood
C. Oropharyngeal secretions
D. Genital contact
B. Lymphocytosis with atypical lymphocytes
Which of the following is most likely to be found in the laboratory data of a person with infectious mononucleosis?
A. Neutrophilia with reactive forms
B. Lymphocytosis with atypical lymphocytes
C. Thrombocytosis
D. Macrocytosis
B. Prednisone
You examine a 25-year-old man who has infectious mononucleosis with tonsillar hypertrophy, exudative pharyngitis, poor fluid intake due to difficultly swallowing, and a patent airway. You prescribe:
A. Amoxicillin
B. Prednisone
C. Ibuprofen
D. Acyclovir
D. Amoxicillin
In patients with infectious mononucleosis, which medication should be avoided due to a risk of rash development?
A. Acetaminophen
B. Sulfamethoxazole
C. Erythromycin
D. Amoxicillin
C. At least 50%
What percentage of patients with infectious mononucleosis has splenomegaly during the acute phase of the illness?
A. At least 10%
B. About 25%
C. At least 50%
D. Nearly 100%
B. 1" x 3" x 5
The size of a normal spleen is approximately:
A. 1" x 1" x 3"
B. 1" x 3" x 5"
C. 2" x 4" x 6"
D. 3" x 5" x 7
B. At least 1 month
Because of a risk for splenic rupture, persons who have recovered from infectious mononucleosis should wait how long before participating in collision or contact sports?
A. At least 2 weeks
B. At least 1 month
C. At least 3 months
D. At least 6 months