Which of the following is the most likely candidate to initiate dialysis due to chronic kidney disease (CKD)?
A. A 46-year-old man with hypertension and GFR = 42 mL/min
B. A 64-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes and GFR = 28 mL/min
C. A 76-year-old man w
B. A 64-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes and GFR = 28 mL/min
Risk factors for acute glomerulonephritis include all of the following except:
A. bacterial endocarditis
B. Goodpasture's syndrome
C. Crohn's disease
D. polyarteritis
C. Crohn's disease
Poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis typically occurs how long following a bacterial pharyngitis infection?
A. 4-6 days
B. 1-2 weeks
C. 3-4 weeks
D. 2 months
B. 1-2 weeks
Diagnostic confirmation of glomerulonephritis typically requires:
A. urinalysis plus a CBC with diff
B. abdominal CT scan
C. kidney ultrasound
D. kidney biopsy
D. kidney biopsy
A 35-year-old man presents with edema of the face, hands, and ankles along with hypertension (175/115 mm Hg). He reports urine that is darkly colored and foamy. You suspect acute glomerulonephritis and would expect urinalysis results to include all of the
D. abnormally high glucose levels
A 47-year-old woman with lupus erythematosus is diagnosed with acute glomerulonephritis. Treatment options include all of the following except:
A. systemic corticosteroids
B. systemic antimicrobials
C. immune suppressors
D. plasmapheresis
D. plasmapheresis
A complication of glomerulonephritis is:
A. type 2 diabetes
B. nephrotic syndrome
C. pyelonephritis
D. bladder cancer
D. bladder cancer
Which of the following is most likely to be part of the clinical presentation of an otherwise healthy 27-year-old woman with uncomplicated lower urinary tract infection (UTI)?
A. urinary frequency
B. fever
C. suprapubic tenderness
D. lower gastrointestina
A. urinary frequency
The most common cause of sepsis in older adults is:
A. Common cold
B. Urinary tract infection
C. Urinary stasis
D. Kidney stone
B. Urinary tract infection
What is the usual clinical presentation of an adult patient with cystitis?
A. Acute onset of chills, fever, flank pain, headache, malaise, and costovertebral angle tenderness.
B. Signs and symptoms of fever, irritability, decreased appetite, vomiting, dia
D. Complaints of dysuria, urgency, frequency, nocturia, and suprapubic heaviness.
Which statement characterizes functional incontinence?
A. Leakage of urine during activities that increase abdominal pressure, such as coughing, sneezing, and laughing.
B. Occurrence of incontinence with overdistention of the bladder.
C. Mainly caused by
C. Mainly caused by factors outside the urinary tract, especially immobility, that prohibit proper toileting habits.
What are the two most common pathogens in community-acquired UTIs?
A. Escherichia coli and Proteus mirabills
B. Staphylococcus saprophyticus and Eschericia coli
C. Klebsiella and Proteus mirabills
D. Proteus mirabills and Staphylococcus saprophyticus
B. Staphylococcus saprophyticus and Eschericia coli
When prescribing oxybutinin (Ditropan) for the patient with overactive bladder symptoms, the nurse practitioner must consider which
disorder in the medical history before prescribing?
A. Narrow-angle glaucoma
B. Cough
C. Gallstones
D. Diabetes
A. Narrow-angle glaucoma
The clinical presentation of a client with urolithiasis would include:
A. A fever of 101� F or above
B. A gradual onset of nagging pain
C. Pain starting in the flank and localizing in the costovertebral angle
D. Marked leukocytes
C. Pain starting in the flank and localizing in the costovertebral angle
What is the most common cause of chronic renal failure (CRF)?
A. A combination of urological diseases
B. Glomerulonephritis
C. Hypertension
D. Diabetic nephropathy
D. Diabetic nephropathy
The most frequent sign of bladder cancer is:
A. Nocturia
B. Dysuria
C. Flank pain
D. Hematuria
D. Hematuria
The inability to empty the bladder, resulting in overdistension and frequent loss of small amounts of urine, describes which type of urinary incontinence?
A. Reflex incontinence
B. Stress incontinence
C. Overflow incontinence
D. Urge incontinence
C. Overflow incontinence
A factor contributing to stress incontinence is:
A. Bladder irritation from a urinary tract infection
B. Prostatic hypertrophy
C. A spinal cord lesion or trauma above S2
D. A decreased estrogen level
D. A decreased estrogen level
Joyce is being treated conservatively for her low back pain with NSAIDs, muscle relaxants, and physical therapy. She recently has been diagnosed with chronic kidney disease. Which of the following statements is true?
A. She should switch to a different NS
D. She could try acetaminophen, 650 mg three times daily.
A urinary tract infection is best detected by performing:
A. A nitrite dipstick test.
B. A urinalysis.
C. A urine culture.
D. Urine sensitivity.
C. A urine culture.
In an assessment of renal function, what is the maximum amount of urine in a 24-hour period that a client would produce for a diagnosis of anuria to be considered?
A. No urine output at all
B. Less than 100 mL
C. 100 to 150 mL
D. 151 to 200 mL
B. Less than 100 mL
Which diuretic acts by inhibiting sodium chloride reabsorption in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle?
A. Furosemide (Lasix)
B. Mannitol (Osmitrol)
C. Hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDiuril)
D. Acetazolamide (Diamox)
A. Furosemide (Lasix)
Clinical manifestations of metabolic alkalosis include:
A. Tetany.
B. Nausea and vomiting.
C. Weakness.
D. Bradycardia.
A. Tetany.
What is the percussion tone heard over a distended bladder?
A. Dullness
B. Resonance
C. Hyperresonance
D. Tympany
A. Dullness
About 80% of all cases of dysuria are caused by ascending bacterial infection of the urinary tract by which organism?
A. Klebsiella
B. Proteus
C. Escherichia coli
D. Staphylococcus saprophyticus
C. Escherichia coli
Most calcium phosphate kidney stones are caused by:
A. A high calcium intake.
B. A high phosphorus intake.
C. Primary hyperparathyroidism.
D. Hyperthyroidism.
C. Primary hyperparathyroidism.
Which nephrotoxic agent should be avoided in clients with chronic renal failure?
A. NSAIDs
B. Kayexalate
C. Calcium carbonate
D. Erythropoietin
A. NSAIDs
Which type of bloody urine is characteristic of bleeding from the upper urinary tract?
A. Grossly bloody urine
B. Urine with blood clots
C. Brown, smoky, or tea-colored urine
D. Blood noted at the beginning or end of the stream
C. Brown, smoky, or tea-colored urine
Which is the least expensive method for evaluating renal mass size?
A. Palpation
B. Ultrasound imaging
C. Computed tomography (CT)
D. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
C. Computed tomography (CT)
Why do middle-aged men not incur as many urinary tract infections as middle-aged women?
A. Women are more prone to urinary stasis than men.
B. Men have the bacteriostatic effect of prostatic fluid and a longer urethra.
C. Women have a higher urine pH.
D.
B. Men have the bacteriostatic effect of prostatic fluid and a longer urethra.
The most common reason a person would come to your office complaining of burning on urination is:
A. Prostatitis.
B. Urethritis.
C. A urinary tract infection.
D. A sexually transmitted disease.
C. A urinary tract infection.
Eric, age 5, has enuresis. The probable cause is:
A. Anatomical disease.
B. Neurological disease.
C. A psychological problem.
D. Maturational delay.
D. Maturational delay.
An acidic urine pH favors precipitation of which type of kidney stone?
A. Cystine stones
B. Calcium phosphate stones
C. Struvite stones
D. Magnesium stones
A. Cystine stones
The most common factor predisposing a woman to a urinary tract infection is:
A. The use of an oral contraceptive.
B. The use of a diaphragm.
C. Urinary stasis.
D. Calculi.
C. Urinary stasis.
Which of the following renal examinations identifies the size of the kidneys or obstruction in the kidneys or lower urinary tract and may detect tumors or cysts?
A. Computed tomography (CT)
B. Voiding cystourethrography
C. Renal arteriogram
D. Ultrasonogr
D. Ultrasonography
All of the following electrolyte disorders are commonly found in a person with chronic renal failure except:
A. hypernatremia
B. hypercalcemia
C. hyperkalemia
D. hypophosphatemia
D. hypophosphatemia
All of the following are common precipitating factors in acute renal failure except:
A. anaphylaxis
B. infection
C. myocardial infarction
D. type 1 diabetes
D. type 1 diabetes
Common causes of chronic renal failure include all of the following except:
A. type 2 diabetes
B. recurrent pyelonephritis
C. hypotension
D. polycystic kidney disease
C. hypotension
The use of which of the following medication can precipitate acute renal failure in a patient with bilateral renal artery stenosis?
A. corticosteroids
B. Angiotensin II receptor antagonists
C. beta-adrenergic antagonists
D. Cephalosporins
B. Angiotensin II receptor antagonists
A 78-year-old man presents with fatigue and difficulty with bladder emptying. Examination reveals a distended bladder but is otherwise unremarkable. The blood urea nitrogen (BUN) is 88mg/dL (31.4 mmol/L); the creatinine is 2.8 mg/dL (247.5 umol/L). This c
D. postrenal azotemia
A 68-year-old woman with heart failure presents with tahycardia, S3 heart sound, and basilar crackles bilaterally. Blood pressure is 90/68mm Hg; BuN is 58 mg;dL, creatine is 2.4 mg/dL. This clinical presentation is ost consistent with:
A. prerenal azotemi
A. prerenal azotemia
Which of the following is found early in the development of chronic renal failure?
A. persistent proteinuria
B. elevated creatinine level
C. acute uremia
D. hyperkalemia
A. persistent proteinuria
You see a 63-year-old man with suspected upper gastrointestinal bleed. Expected laboratory findings would include:
A. elevated BUN; elevated serum creatinine
B. normal BUN; elevated serum creatinine
C. elevated BUN; normal serum creatinine
D. lower BUN; e
C. elevated BUN; normal serum creatinine
Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors can limit the progression of some forms of renal disease by:
A. increasing intraglomerular pressure
B. reducing efferent arteriolar resistance
C. enhancing afferent arteriolar tone
D. increasing urinary protein exc
B. reducing efferent arteriolar resistance
Objective findings in patients with glomerulonephritis include all of the following except:
A. edema
B. urinary red blood cell (RBC) casts
C. proteinuria
D. hypotension
D. hypotension
An increase in creatinine from 1 to 2 mg/dL is typically seen with a _____ loss in renal function
A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. 100%
B. 50%
Creatinine clearance usually:
A. approximates glomerular filtration rate (GFR)
B. does not change as part of normative aging
C. is greater in women compared with men
D. increases with hypotension
A. approximates glomerular filtration rate (GFR)
Creatinine is best described as:
A. a substance produced by the kidney.
B. a product related to skeletal muscle metabolism
C. produced by the liver and filtered by the kidney
D. a by-product of protein metabolism
B. a product related to skeletal muscle metabolism
Guidelines recommend considering initiating treatment with an erythropoiesis-stimulating agent (ESA) for patients with chronic renal failure and hemoglobin (hg) level:
A. less than 8.5 mg/dL
B. less than 9.0 mg/dL
C. less than 10 mg/dL
D. less than 11.5 m
C. less than 10 mg/dL
Compared to younger women, uncomplicated UTI in an elderly woman is more likely to be associated with each of the following signs and symptoms except:
A. new onset urinary incontinence
B. delirium
C. weakness
D. hematuria
D. hematuria
A 36-year-old afebrile woman with no health problems presents with dysuria and frequency of urination. Her urinalysis findings include results positive for nitrites and leukocyte esterase. You evaluate these results and consider that she likely has:
A. pu
B. a gram-negative UTI
The most likely causative organism in community-acquired UTI in women during the reproductive years is:
A. Klebsiella species
B. Proteus mirabilis
C. Escherichia coli
D. Staphylococcus saprophyticus
C. Escherichia coli
Which urine culture result is needed to confirm a UTI in an asymptomatic woman who has not had recent us of a urinary catheter?
A. 10^2 cfu/mL or more
B. 10^3 cfu/mL or more
C .10^4 cfu/mL or more
D. 10^5 cfu/mL or more
D. 10^5 cfu/mL or more
You see a 34-year-old woman with an uncomplicated UTI. She is otherwise healthy but reports having a sulfa allergy. Appropriate therapy would include:
A. TMP-SMX
B. amoxicillin
C. azithromycin
D. ciprofloxacin
D. ciprofloxacin
The notation of alkaline urine in a patient with a UTI may point to infection caused by:
A. Klebsiella species
B. P. mirabilis
C. E. coli
D. S. saprophyticus
B. P. mirabilis
Which of the following is the most accurate information in caring for a 40-year-old man with cystitis?
A. This is a common condition in men of this age.
B. A gram-positive organism is the likely causative pathogen
C. A urological evaluation should be cons
C. A urological evaluation should be considered.
Evidence-based factors that prevent or minimize the risk of UTIs include all of the following except:
A. male gender
B. longer urethra-to-anus length in women
C. Timed voiding scheduled
D. zinc-rich prostatic secretions
C. Timed voiding scheduled
Hemorrhagic cystitis is characterized by:
A. irritative voiding symptoms
B. persistent microscopic hematuria
C. the presence of hypertension
D. elevated creatinine and BUN levels
A. irritative voiding symptoms
A 44-year-old woman presents with pyelonephritis. The report of her urinalysis is least likely to include:
A. WBC casts
B. positive nitrites
C. 3+ protein
D. rare RBCs
C. 3+ protein
An example of a first-line therapeutic agent for the treatment of pyelonephritis is?
A. amoxicillin with clavulanate.
B. trimethoprim - sulfamethoxazole
C. ciprofloxacin
D. nitrofurantoin
C. ciprofloxacin
With fluoroquinolone use, length of antimicrobial therapy during uncomplicated pyelonephritis is typically:
A. 5 days
B. 1 week
C. 2 Weeks
D. 3 Weeks
B. 1 week
Risk factors for UTI in women include:
A. postvoid wiping back to front
B. low perivaginal lactobacilli colonization
C. hot tub use
D. wearing snug-fitting pantyhose
B. low perivaginal lactobacilli colonization
All of the following can negatively impact perivaginal lactobacilli colonization except:
A. recent antimicrobial use
B. exposure to the spermicide nonoxynol-9
C. estrogen deficiency
D. postcoital voiding
D. postcoital voiding
In children and the elderly, which of the following conditions can contribute to bladder instability and increase risk of a UTI?
A. constipation
B. upper respiratory tract infection
C. chronic diarrhea
D. efficient bladder emptying
A. constipation
Which of the following is not a gram-negative organism?
A. E. coli
B. K. pneumoniae
C. P. mirabilis
D. S. saprophyticus
D. S. saprophyticus
You see a 70-year-old woman in a walk-in center with a chief complaint of increased urinary frequency and dysuria. Urinalysis reveals pyuria and positive nitrites. She mentions she has a "bit of kidney trouble, not too bad." Recent evaluation of renal sta
C. Ciproflaxacin
Long-term use of which medications has been possibly associated with increased risk for bladder cancer?
A. pioglitazone
B. saxagliptin
C. rosuvastatin
D. clopidogrel
A. pioglitazone
Which of the following is not a risk factor for bladder cancer?
A. occupational exposure to textile dyes
B. cigarette smoking
C. occupational exposure to heavy metals
D. long-term aspirin use
D. long-term aspirin use
A 68-year-old man presents with suspected bladder cancer. You consider that its most common presenting sign or symptom is:
A. painful urination.
B. fever and flank pain
C. painless gross hematuria
D. palpable abdominal mass
C. painless gross hematuria
In a person diagnosed with superficial bladder cancer without evidence of metastases, you realize that:
A. the prognosis for 2-year survival is poor
B. a cystectomy is indicated
C. despite successful initial therapy, local recurrence is common
D. systemic
C. despite successful initial therapy, local recurrence is common
Persistent microscopic hematuria would be the primary finding in about ____ % of individuals with bladder cancer?
A. 10
B. 20
C. 30
D. 40
B. 20
Preferred therapy for non-muscle-invasive bladder cancer without evidence of metastases is:
A. cystectomy
B. intravesical chemotherapy only
C. transurethral resection with intravesical chemotherapy
D. systemic chemotherapy
C. transurethral resection with intravesical chemotherapy
Patients with urge incontinence often report urine loss:
A. with exercise
B. at night
C. associated with a strong sensation of needing to void
D. as dribbling after voiding
C. associated with a strong sensation of needing to void
Patients with urethral stricture often report urine loss:
A. with exercise
b. during the day
C. associated with urgency
D. as dribbling after voiding
D. as dribbling after voiding
Patients with stress incontinence often report urine loss:
A. with lifting
B. at night
C. associated with a strong sensation of needing to void
D. as dribbling after voiding
A. with lifting
Factors that contribute to stress incontinence include:
A. detrusor overactivity
B. pelvic floor weakness
C urethral stricture
D. urinary tract infection (UTI)
B. pelvic floor weakness
Factors that contribute to urge incontinence include:
A. detrusor overactivity
B. pelvic floor weakness
C urethral stricture
D. urinary tract infection (UTI)
A. detrusor overactivity
Pharmacological intervention for patients with urge incontinence include:
A. doxazosin (Cardura)
B. tolterodine (Detrol)
C. finasteride (Proscar)
D. pseudoephedrine
B. tolterodine (Detrol)
Match the most appropriate behavioral intervention with each form of urinary incontinence:
Urge incontinence:
A. Having an assistant who is aware of cues and helps with toileting activities
B. establishing a voiding schedule and gentle bladder stretching
B. establishing a voiding schedule and gentle bladder stretching
Match the most appropriate behavioral intervention with each form of urinary incontinence:
stress incontinence:
A. Having an assistant who is aware of cues and helps with toileting activities
B. establishing a voiding schedule and gentle bladder stretchin
C. Kegel exercises and pelvic floor rehabilitation with biofeedback
Match the most appropriate behavioral intervention with each form of urinary incontinence:
functional incontinence incontinence:
A. Having an assistant who is aware of cues and helps with toileting activities
B. establishing a voiding schedule and gentle
A. Having an assistant who is aware of cues and helps with toileting activities
Which form of urinary incontinence is most common in elderly persons?
A. stress
B. urge
C. iatrogenic
D. overflow
B. urge
Common adverse effects of musculotropic relaxants used in the treatment of urinary incontinence include:
A. dry mouth and constipation
B. nausea
C. headaches
D. syncope
A. dry mouth and constipation
You see an 82-year-old woman with early onset dementia and urge incontinence. Which of the following medications is least likely to contribute to worsening mental status?
A. oxybutynin (Ditropan)
B. tolterodine (Detrol)
c. darifenacin (Enablex)
d. solifen
c. darifenacin (Enablex)
A 64-year-old woman presents with urge incontinence and has not been able to tolerate treatment with anticholinergic agents. You recommend the use of which of the following? More than one can apply.
A. botulinum toxin injections
B. fesoterodine fumarate (
A. botulinum toxin injections
C. mirabegron (Myrbetriq)
Risk factors for renal stones include all of the following except:
A. male gender
B. vegetarian diet
C. family history of renal stones
D. obesity
B. vegetarian diet
Medications known to increase the risk of renal stones include all of the following except:
A. hydrochlorothiazide
B. moxifloxacin
C. topiramate
D. indinavir
B. moxifloxacin
The most common renal stones are composed of:
A. calcium
B. uric acid
C. sodium
D. iron
A. calcium
Struvite stones are typically found in people:
A. with type 2 diabetes
B. who live in colder climates
C. who abuse alcohol
D. with a history of kidney infections
D. with a history of kidney infections
Common symptoms of renal stones include all of the following except:
A. pink, red, or brown urine
B. sharp pain in the back or lower abdomen
C. marked febrile response
D. pain while urinating
C. marked febrile response
The preferred method to identify the location of small renal stone is:
A. x-ray
B. abdominal ultrasound
C. CT scan
D. radionuclide scan
C. CT scan
You see a 58-year-old man diagnosed with a kidney stone who reports pain primarily during urination. You consider all of the following except:
A. improved hydration
B. alpha blocker use
C. prescribing a diuretic
D. analgesia use
C. prescribing a diuretic
A 63-year-old man presents with abdominal pain, pain during urination, and red urine. Imaging reveals a renal stone in the ureter. An appropriate treatment option would be:
A. percutaneous nephrolithotomy
B. shock wave lithotripsy
C. insertion of a nephro
B. shock wave lithotripsy
The most effective strategy for preventing renal stones is:
A. daily exercise
B. adequate hydration
C. limiting coffee consumption
D. smoking cessation
B. adequate hydration
You see a 58-year-old woman who is being treated for a renal stone. Analysis of a stone passed in the urine reveals that it is composed of calcium oxalate. In counseling the patient about preventing future stones, you consider all of the following except:
D. if calcium supplements are needed, this medication should be taken on an empty stomach
What is the desired therapeutic action of inhaled corticosteroids when used to treat COPD?
A. reversal of fixed airway obstruction
B. improvement of central respiratory drive
C. reduction of airway inflammation
D. mucolytic activity
C. reduction of airway inflammation
After inhaled corticosteroid is initiated, improvement in control is usually seen:
A. on the first day of use.
B. within 2 to 8 days.
C. in about 3 to 4 weeks.
D. in about 1 to 2 months.
B. within 2 to 8 days.
A 21-year-old man with no identifiable TB risk factors and a 10-mm induration. Does this patient have a reactive TST?
A. Yes
B. No
B. No
Which of the following systemic corticosteroid doses is most potent?
A. methylprednisolone 8 mg
B. triamcinolone 10 mg
C. prednisone 15 mg
D. hydrocortisone 18 mg
C. prednisone 15 mg
Which of the following is consistent with the NAEPP comment on the use of inhaled corticosteroids (ICS) for a child with asthma?
A. The potential but small risk of delayed growth with ICS is well balanced by their effectiveness.
B. ICS should be used only
A. The potential but small risk of delayed growth with ICS is well balanced by their effectiveness.
A 47-year-old man with no confusion, BUN = 17 mg/dL, respiratory rate = 32/min; and blood pressure = 110/72 mm Hg. Based on the CURB-65 criteria, indicate whether the patient should be treated as an inpatient or outpatient.
A. Inpatient
B. Outpatient
B. Outpatient
According to the American Thoracic Society/Infectious Disease Society of American (ATS/IDSA) Consensus Guidelines on the Management of Community-Acquired Pneumonia in Adults, which of the following is the most appropriate antimicrobial for treatment of co
B. high-dose amoxicillin with doxycycline
Cough associated with acute bronchitis can typically last up to:
A. 1 week
B. 2 weeks.
C. 3 weeks.
D. 3 months.
C. 3 weeks.
Little systemic absorption of mast cell stabilizers occurs with inhaled or intranasal use.
A. True
B. False
A. True
Which of the following statements is false regarding the use of omalizumab (Xolair)?
A. Its use is recommended for patients with mild persistent asthma to prevent asthma flares.
B. The medication selectively binds to IgE to reduce exacerbations.
C. Labele
A. Its use is recommended for patients with mild persistent asthma to prevent asthma flares.
Risk factors for pneumonia caused by P. aeruginosa include all of the following except:
A. mechanical ventilation
B. cystic fibrosis.
C. community residence.
D. chronic tracheostomy.
C. community residence.
In the treatment of asthma, leukotriene receptor antagonists should be used as:
A. controllers to prevent bronchospasm.
B. controllers to inhibit inflammatory responses.
C. relievers to treat acute bronchospasm.
D. relievers to treat bronchospasm and infl
B. controllers to inhibit inflammatory responses.
Compared with TST, potential advantages of the QuantiFERON-TB Gold test (QTF-G) include all of the following except:
A. ability to have entire testing process complete with one clinical visit.
B. results are available within 24 hours.
C. interpretation of
D. provides a prediction as to who is at greatest risk for active disease development.
The aging process begins to affect the kidneys with a progressive loss of nephron units by age
a. 40
b. 50
c. 60
d. 70
a
Cloudy urine is usually indicative of which of the following conditions?
a. urinary stasis
b. UTI
c. kidney stone
d. common cold
b
13 y/o with 3 day hx of red urine. You want her to go home for a few days and return for lab work. In teaching her what to avoid, you know she has misunderstood the directions when she tells you she shouldn't ingest any:
a. blackberries
b. ibuprofen
c. re
d
Urine specific gravity is increased in clients with
a. dehydration
b. diabetes insipidus
c. chronic renal failure
d. overhydration
a
Cardiovascular failure is a major cause of which type of acute renal failure?
a. Prerenal
b. Intrarenal
c. Postrenal
d. Petirenal
a
Vascular disease, glomerulonephritis, interstitial nehpritis, and acute tubular necrosis can cause which type of acute renal failure?
a. Prerenal
b. Intrarenal
c. Postrenal
d. Petirenal
b
External and intrarenal obstruction and bladder rupture can cause which type of acute renal failure?
a. Prerenal
b. Intrarenal
c. Postrenal
d. Petirenal
c
79 y/o has been on dialysis for 6 years due to CKD. She has been on an oral iron preparation and now asks you if she should think about switching to the IV form. How do you respond?
a. If it ain't broke don't fix it
b. There are more side effects with IV
d
Clinical manifestations of metabolic alkalosis include (choose all that apply):
a. tetany
b. nausea and vomiting
c. weakness
d. bradycardia
e. hypotension
f. tachycardia
g. confusion
h. decreasing LOC
i. hyperreflexia
j. dysrhythmias
k. seizures
l. respir
a, e, f, g, h, i, j, k, l
Clinical manifestations of metabolic acidosis include (choose all that apply):
a. tetany
b. nausea and vomiting
c. weakness
d. bradycardia
e. hypotension
f. tachycardia
g. confusion
h. decreasing LOC
i. hyperreflexia
j. dysrhythmias
k. seizures
l. respira
b, c, d
Most calcium phosphate kidney stones are caused by
a. high dietary calcium intake
b. high phosphorus dietary intake
c. primary hyperparathyroidism
d. hyperthyroidism
c
You should be concerend about the use of diuretics, chronic renal failure, a high protein diet, gout, leukemia, or lymphoma when a serum uric acid level is
a. 4.0 mg/dL
b. 5.0 mg/dL
c. 6.0 mg/dL
d. greater than 7.0 mg/dL
d
13 y/o says that her mother has polycystic kidney diease and asks about her chances of developing it. How do you respond?
a. It is hereditary, but if you develop it, a cure is possible
b. It is hereditary and unfortunately, incurable, but there are many m
b
A PT has been on peritoneal dialysis and is going to the operating room for placement of an arteriovenous (AV) fistula to begin hemodialysis. How do you respond when she asks you what this is?
a. This is where an artery and a vein are sewn together intern
a
Which of the following groups is most prone to developing nephrolithiasis?
a. White men
b. White women
c. Black men
d. Black women
a
6 y/o appears with abdominal distention and pain, an abdominal mass on the right side, fever, and slight hematuria. There is no precipating event. What do you suspect?
a. UTI
b. Appy
c. Wilm's tumor
d. Interstinal obstruction
c
In an assessment of renal function, what is the maximum amout of urine in a 24-hour period that a client would produce for a diagnosis of anuria to be considered?
a. no urine output at all
b. less than 100mls
c. 100-150 mls
d. 151-200 mls
b
Which of the following renal hormones regulates intrarental blood flow by vasodilation or vasoconstrictions?
a. Renin
b. Prostaglandins
c. Bradykinins
d. Erythropoietin
b
The clinical presentation of a client with urolithiasis would include:
a. gradual onset of nagging pain
b. marked leukocytes in the urine
c. a fever of 101 F or above
d. pain starting in the flank and localizing in the costovertebral angle
d
A renal mass was accidentally found on a 70 y/o man, during his hospitalizaion for an episode of diverticulitis. Which of the following statements is true?
a. The malignancy risk is related to the size of the lesion
b. the treatment of choice is a radical
a
About 80% of all cases of dysuria are caused by ascending bacterial infection of teh urinary tract by which organism?
a. Klebsiella
b. Proteus
c. E. Coli
d. Staphylococcus saprophyticus
c
What is the most common cause of chronic renal failure (CRF)?
a. glomerulonephritis
b. HTN
c. diabetic nephropathy
d. combination of urological diseases
c
Which nephrotoxic agent should be avoided in clients with CRF?
a. NSAIDs
b. Kayexalate
c. Calcium carbonate
d. erythropoietin
a
Which type of bloody urine is characeristic of bleeding from the upper urinary tract?
a. grossly bloody urine
b. urine with blood clots
c. brown, smoky, or tea-colored urine
d. blood noted at the beginning or end of the stream
c
PT with stress urinary incontinence, is desperate for some relief and asks for your help. She already takes several pills a day and does not really want to take any more, but she wants to do something about her problem. What do you suggest?
a. Propantheli
c
The most frequent sign of bladder cancer is:
a. hematuria
b. flank pain
c. nocturia
d. dysuria
a
29 y/o female is having an iV pyelogram. In teaching her about the procedure, you tell her that an IVP:
a. takes about 30mins and uses x-rays to show the structures of the kidney, ureters, and bladder after injection of a dye that is rapidly excreted in t
a