Plasmodium spp.
5 Plasmodium species are:
1. P. vivax (80% of infections
2. P. falciparum
3. P. _______
4. P. ______
5. P. _________
Vector is the _________ anopheline mosquito.
malariae; ovale; knowlesi; female
True or false, the vector of Plasmodium spp. is a
male
anopheline mosquito.
False, it is a female anopheline mosquito.
Plasmodium spp cont . . .
Parasites feed on ____ ____ _____ _____________ as they mature:
red blood cell hemoglobin
Plasmodium spp cont . . .
The life cycle includes _________ & ________ stages.
A. _____________ (asexual)
It is the young trophozoite.
B. ___________ (asexual)
It is a trophozoite with dividing nuclei.
C. ________ __________ (asexual)
Contains merozoites
asexual; sexual; Merozoite; Schizont; Mature schizont; Gametocytes
Plasmodium spp. Life Cycle
Gametocytes includes mature male or female merozoites. It is a:
a. Sexual stage
b. Asexual stage
a. Sexual stage
Plasmodium spp. Life Cycle
Includes mature male or female merozoites.
a. Mature schizont
b. Schizont
c. Gametocytes
d. Merozoite
c. Gametocytes
Plasmodium spp. Life Cycle
It is a trophozoite with dividing nuclei.
a. Merozoite
b. Schizont
c. Gametocytes
d. Mature schizont
b. Schizont
Plasmodium spp. Life Cycle
It is the young trophozoite.
a. Schizont
b. Gametocytes
c. Mature schizont
d. Merozoite
d. Merozoite
Plasmodium spp. Life Cycle
Contains merozoites that invade RBCS.
a. Gametocytes
b. Mature schizont
c. Merozoite
d. Schizont
b. Mature schizont
Plasmodium sp. Life Cycle
The human host is an:
a. Definite host
b. Intermediate host
b. Intermediate host
Plasmodium sp. Life Cycle
The mosquito is a:
a. Intermediate host
b. Definite host
b. Definite host
What is the name of the most common m.o. known to cause benign tertian malaria & is widely distributed in tropics, subtropics, & temperate zones?
Plasmodium vivax
What is the most common m.o. known to cause benign tertian malaria & is widely distributed in the tropics, subtropics, & temperate zones?
Plasmodium vivax
Plasmodium vivax characteristics:
- Infection of __________ cells.
- _______________ of RBCs (one to two times the normal size).
- _____________ dots.
- Delicate ________
- Very ___________ ______________
- Schizont containing 12 to 24 ____________.
young; enlargement; Schuffner; ring; amoeboid trophozoites; merozoites
Plasmodium vivax characteristics cont:
- __________ occur.
- _____________ may cycle every 48 hours.
- Resting stages are called ______________.
Relapses; paroxysms; hypnozoites
Paroxysms are bouts of __________ & ________ every 36-48 hours.
signs; symptoms
What is the name of the m.o. known to cause malignant tertian malaria & is confined to tropical areas?
Plasmodium falciparum
Plasmodium falciparum characteristics:
- Invasion of all stages of _____ (heavy parasitemia)
- _________-like red dots (________ dots)
- Multiple _______ forms, some applique forms
- Crescent-shaped __________________
- Fever cycles every 36-48 hours
- No
RBCs; comma; Maurer; ring; gametocytes; relapses; organs
Plasmodium falciparum Diagnosis & Therapy
- Thick & thin blood __________ (gold standard)
- ________ or Wright stain is acceptable
- _______ anticoagulant tubes are preferred
- Rapid malaria tests (dipstick, cartridge)
- ____________ _______ _________ wit
films; Giemsa; EDTA; polymerase chain reaction; DNA
True or false, automated instruments are not designed to detect intracellular parasites.
TRUE
Plasmodium falciparum Diagnosis & Therapy
Therapy:
- ___________________ resistant P. falciparum is present in most endemic areas.
Chloroquine
What is the name of the m.o. species transmitted by ticks known to show ring forms that are phleomorphic with 1-3 chromatin dots & Maltese cross tetrads? However, it is rare, but seen in tropical countries.
Babesia spp.
______________ protozoa: Trypanosoma spp.
Hemoflagellate
Trypanosomiasis
4 different types of diseases depending on the area:
1. African _____________ ____________
2. _________ African
3. _________ African
4. ___________ Disease
sleeping sickness; East; West; Chagas'
What are the 4 stages of Trypanosoma spp.? (APET)
1. ___________ (young cyst)
2. ____________ (embryo)
3. _____________ (teenager)
4. _______________ (adult)
Amastigote; Promastigote; Epimastigote; Trypomastigote
What is the name of the most common m.o. known to cause Chagas' Disease?
Trypanosoma cruzi
What is the name of the disease caused by Trypanosoma cruzi?
Chagas' Disease
What is the vector of Trypanosoma cruzi (Chagas' Disease)?
____________ bug aka the ___________ bug.
Reduviid; kissing
What are the primary reservoirs of Trypanosoma cruzi (Chagas' Disease)?
Opossums, dogs, cats, wild rodents
Trypanosoma cruzi (Chagas' Disease) illness can be ______________ (acute or chronic)
symptomatic
The adult stage of Trypanosoma cruzi is Trypomastigote & can be diagnostically seen in:
a. Blood
b. Urine
c. Tissue
a. Blood
The cyst stage of Trypanosoma cruzi is Amastigote & can be diagnostically seen in:
a. Blood
b. Urine
c. Tissue
c. Tissue
The adult stage of Trypanosoma cruzi is _______________ & can be diagnostically seen in blood.
a. Amastigote
b. Trypomastigote
c. Epimastigote
b. Trypomastigote
The cyst stage of Trypanosoma cruzi is _________________ & can be diagnostically seen in tissue.
a. Epimastigote
b. Trypomastigote
c. Amastigote
c. Amastigote
What type of samples will you receive at the laboratory to help diagnose Chagas' Disease?
Blood, ______ _______ aspirate, __________
lymph node; chagoma
The vector of Chagas' Disease is a Reduviid bug or kissing bug that does not bite, but sucks the blood with its' ____________ which can produce the infection. It occurs at night, which makes it a _____________ bug.
proboscis; nocturnal
There are 2 areas of African Trypanosomiasis. East & West. Both areas have 2 different m.o. What is the m.o. of East Africa?:
a. Trypanosoma brucei gambiense
b. Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense
b. Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense
There are 2 areas of African Trypanosomiasis. East & West. Both areas have 2 different m.o. What is the m.o. of West Africa?:
a. Trypanosoma brucei gambiense
b. Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense
a. Trypanosoma brucei gambiense
The vector of East & West African Trypanosomiasis is:
a. Kissing bug
b. Ticks
c. Tsetse fly
d. Reduviid bug
c. Tsetse fly
The primary reservoir of East African Trypanosomiasis are _______________.
animals
The primary reservoir of West African Trypanosomiasis are ______________.
humans
East (early invasion) & West African (late invasion) Trypanosomiasis affects the _________ _____________ ___________.
Central nervous system
Illness occurs
acute
ly (
early CNS invasion
), <9 months is:
a. East African Trypanosomiasis
b. West African Trypanosomiasis
a. East African Trypanosomiasis
Illness occurs
chronic
ally (
late CNS invasion
), months to years:
a. East African Trypanosomiasis
b. West African Trypanosomiasis
b. West African Trypanosomiasis
________________________ is very
prominent
in West African Trypanosomiasis.
Lymphadenopathy
Lymphadenopathy is very
___________
in East African Trypanosomiasis
minimal
East & West African Trypanosomiasis can be diagnostically seen at which stage? (Hint: Adult stage in blood)
Trypomastigote
Recommended specimens for East & West African Trypanosomiasis are: __________ aspirate, _________ ________ aspirate, blood, _____.
Chancre; lymph node; CSF
Parasitemia (quantitative content of parasites in the blood) is _______ in East African Trypanosomiasis.
a. High
b. Low
a. High
Parasitemia (quantitative content of parasites in the blood) is _______ in West African Trypanosomiasis.
a. High
b. Low
b. Low
Leishmania spp.
Disease spectrum:
- ________________ lesions (flattened plaque or ulcer)
- _________________ infections
- _______________ involvement
Cutaneous; mucocutaneous; visceral
2 phases of Leishmania spp.
1. ______________ - Intracellular parasite in humans (Hint: young cyst)
2. _______________ - Form found in vector
Amastigote; Promastigote
2 phases of Leishmania spp.
1. Amastigote - _______________ parasite in __________.
2. Promastigote - Form foundin __________.
Intracellular; humans; vector
Leishmania spp.
- ___________ from a lesion is smeared & stained.
- A rapid ___________ test is also available for the detection of anti-Leishmania _____________.
Exudate; dipstick; antibodies
What test is used to quickly diagnose Leishmania spp. by looking for antibodies against it?
Rapid dipstick test
What is the most common disease name caused in healthy individuals by Naegleria fowleri?
PAM (Primary Amoebic Meningoencephalitis)
What is the name of the most common m.o. name known to cause PAM (Primary Amoebic Meningoencephalitis) in healthy individuals?
Naegleria fowleri
The infective stage for Naegleria fowleri is:
a. Cysts
b. Trophozoites
c. Flagellated forms
d. Promitosis
b. Trophozoites
Naegleria fowleri
- ___________ enter nasal cavity & migrate to the brain.
- ________________ forms are:
1. Amoeboid
2. Flagellate
- ________ are round with a ______ __________ wall.
- Rapidly causes fatal _______.
Amoebae; Trophozoite; Cysts; thick double; PAM
Naegleria fowleri
- Amoebae enter _______ ________ & migrate to the _____.
- Trophozoite forms are:
1. ___________
2. _____________
- Cysts are round with a thick __________ wall.
- Rapidly causes fatal _______.
nasal cavity; brain; Amoeboid; Flagellate; double; PAM
Naegleria fowleri h as 2 Trophozoite forms, which are:
Amoeboid & Flagellate
The protozoan that causes a STD is ________________ ______________, which is flagellate, but does not go in the blood. It likes the pH of the vaginal canal & likes to stay there. It produces _______________ (like BV or Gardnerella vaginalis "clue cells")
Trichomonas vaginalis; vaginitis
Trichomonas vaginalis
- Shape & size: _______- shaped
- Motility: _______, rapid
- Number of nuclei: ____
- Visibility: not visible in ___________ mounts
pear; jerky; 1; unstained
Trichomonas vaginalis
- Seen in: urine, __________ discharge, & ________ smears; ____________ extends 1/2 length of body, ___________ easily seen.
urethral; vaginal; membrane; axostyle
The
infective
(moving)
stage
of Trichomonas vaginalis is:
a. Cyst
b. Trophozoite
c. Merozoite
d. None of the above
b. Trophozoite
The
infective active stage
belonging to Protozoan is:
a. Trophozoite
b. Cyst
c. Merozoite
d. None of the above
a. Trophozoite
Trichomonas vaginalis
Usual location: Vagina (male, __________)
Striking clinical findings: ____________, ___________ ___________ (thin white urethral discharge in male)
Stage usually recovered during clinical phase: _________________ only, NO cyst.
urethra; leukorrhea; pruritus vulvae; trophozoite
Very distinct characteristics under a microscope of Trichomonas vaginalis is that the m.o. has 1 ___________ flagella on one side & 3-5 flagella on the other side!
terminal
Trichomonas vaginalis has ___ nucleus, but is not visible in unstained mounts. The m.o. can be found in a fresh urine sample!
a. 1
b. 3
c. 0
d. 5
a. 1
What is the name of the most common m.o. that does NOT produce vaginitis like Trichomonas vaginalis?
Pentatrichomonas (Trichomonas) hominis
Toxoplasmosis
A. Patients who are ___________________:
- No clinical symptoms are observed in most patients.
- Some will have an __________ infection (lymphadenopathy).
immunocompetent; acute
Toxoplasmosis
B. Patients who are ___________________:
- _____ is primarily involved.
- _____________ can develop.
- _______________ is prevalent.
immunocompromised; CNS; myocarditis; pneumonitis
Toxoplasma gondii belongs to a large phylum called the _____________ group (no movement & has an intracellular stage)
Apicomplexa
What is the panel of tests for the m.o. that can cross the placenta during pregnancy & cause congenital diseases? They are tests that must be performed during 28 weeks prenatal testing.
TORCHS
TORCHS, the panel to test for m.o. that can cross the placenta during pregnancy stands for?
T - __________________ ___________
O - Others
R - ___________
C - ____________________ (herpes)
H - _______ Type 2
S - _________.
Toxoplasma gondii; Rubella; Cytomegalovirus; Herpes; Syphilis
Toxoplasmosis cont . . .
1. ______________
- Is severe if the mother acquires the organism during the first or second ____________.
- Symptoms include ___________________, cerebral ____________, & _______________.
Congenital; trimester; retinochoroiditis; calcification; hydrocephaly
Toxoplasmosis cont . . .
2. ____________
Congenital or acquired ________________ infection develops.
Ocular; chorioretinitis
The natural habitat of Toxoplasma gondii can be found in the feces of ________, wild & domestic ___________.
cats; felines
In the Toxoplasma gondii life cycle, humans can be infected ___________!
directly
In the Toxoplasma gondii life cycle, the
infective
stage are:
a. Cysts
b. Oocysts
c. None of the above
b. Oocysts
Tachyzoites & Bradyzoites in bone marrow or tissue belong to which m.o.?
a. Leishmania spp.
b. Naegleria fowleri
c. Toxoplasma gondii
d. Trypanosoma cruzi
c. Toxoplasma gondii
Diagnosis of Toxoplasma gondii
1. _____________ method
- Is the most common.
- Identifies Toxoplasma gondii _____________ (ELISA).
2. _____________ _________ ___________ (_______)
3. Examination of biopsy specimens, buffy coats, or CSF
4. Isolation in tis
Serologic; antibodies; Polylmerase chain reaction (PCR)
Parasites are from which kingdom?
Archaebacteria
Eubacteria
Protista
Fungi
Plantae
Animal
Animal
Animal Kingdom Parasites
The word '______________' is a general term meaning 'worm', but there are many different types of worms.
helminth
Animal Kingdom Parasites
Prefixes are therefore used to designate types:
Platy: helminths for ______-worms
Nemat: helminths for _______-worms
flat; round
Animal Kingdom Parasites
Prefixes are therefore used to designate types:
________: helminths for flat-worms
________: helminths for round-worms
Platy; Nemat
Animal Kingdom Parasites
- All helminths are ______________ _______________ ________________ from the animal kingdom with tube-like or flattened bodies exhibiting _______________ _______________.
- Many helminths are ______-___________ organisms in ______
multicellular eukaryotic invertebrates; bilateral symmetry; free-living; aquatic; terrestrial; plants
Animal Kingdom Parasites
3 major assemblages of parasitic helminths are recognized:
1. Nemathelminthes (________) & the
2. Platyhelminthes (_________).
A. Cestoda (_________)
B. Trematoda (______)
nematodes; flatworms; tapeworms; flukes
Animal Kingdom Parasites
3 major assemblages of parasitic helminths are recognized:
1. ______________________ (nematodes) & the
2. __________________ (flatworms).
A. ________ (tapeworms)
B. _____________ (flukes)
Nemathelminthes; Platyhelminthes; Cestoda; Trematoda
Animal Kingdom Parasites
There are 2 different groups in the parasitic Platyhelminthes (flatworms), which are:
A. ___________ (tapeworms)
B. _______________ (flukes)
Cestoda; Trematoda
Animal Kingdom Parasites
There are 2 different groups in the parasitic Platyhelminthes (flatworms), which are:
A. Cestoda (______________)
B. Trematoda (_________)
Tapeworms; flukes
Animal Kingdom Parasites
Nematode cycle:
______ - _______ & _________ larvae
egg; male; female
Animal Kingdom Parasites
____________ cycle:
egg - male & female larvae
Nematode
Animal Kingdom Parasites
Cestode life cycle:
_______ cestode cycle _______ - _____________
adult; egg; metacestode
Animal Kingdom Parasites
________ life cycle:
adult cestode cycle egg - metacestode
...
Animal Kingdom Parasites
Trematode cycle:
Egg-___________-sporocyst-redia-____________-(_________________)-adult
miracidium; cercaria; metacercaria
Animal Kingdom Parasites
_____________ cycle:
Egg-miracidium-sporocyst-redia-cercaria-(metacercaria)-adult
Trematode
Animal Kingdom Parasites
Trematode cycle:
____-miracidium-___________-________-cercaria-(metacercaria)-______
egg; sporocyst; redia; adult
Which life cycle has an egg, male & female larvae that are shaped like spaghetti & have a monogamous relationship for life?
A. Trematode life cycle
B. Nematode life cycle
C. Cestode life cycle
B. Nematode life cycle
Which life cycle includes segmented parasites (like fettuccine)?
A. Trematode life cycle
B. Nematode life cycle
C. Cestode life cycle
C. Cestode life cycle
Which life cycle has many stages, is very intricate, & includes a miracidium, cercaria, & metacercaria adult?
A. Trematode life cycle
B. Nematode life cycle
C. Cestode life cycle
A. Trematode life cycle
Nematodes
- Are ____-_____________
- Are elongated & cylindrical
- Well-developed ___________ tract & ______________ system.
non-segmented; digestive; reproductive
Nematodes
- Adult worms have separate _______
- _______ are usually found in stool samples
- ____________ stages vary with the species
sexes; eggs; infective
Nematodes
- ______ worms have separate sexes
- Eggs are usually found in _______ samples
- Infective stages vary with the _______
Adult; stool; species
Remember that all helminths in the animal kingdom are ____________ ___________ _____________ exhibiting bilateral symmetry.
multicellular eukaryotic invertebrates
Nematodes are helminths for _________-__________.
round-worms
____________ are helminths for round-worms.
Nematodes
Ch. 50 Intestinal Nematodes
Ascaris lumbricoides are:
a. Round-worm (nematodes)
b. Flat-worm (platyhelminths)
c. Flukes (trematodes)
A. Round-worm (nematodes)
Ch. 50 Intestinal Nematodes
It is the #1 parasite in the world in numbers when it comes to humans getting infected sometime during their lifetime. The following characteristics are:
- Most common & largest roundworm
- Transmitted fecal-oral
- Eggs are ing
c. Ascaris lumbricoides
Ch. 50 Intestinal Nematodes
What is the name of the most common m.o. name that is known to cause Loffler's syndrome characterized by eosinophilia?
Ascaris lumbricoides
Ch. 50 Intestinal Nematodes
What is the name of the most common disease/syndrome caused by Ascaris lumbricoides?
Loffler's syndrome
Ch. 50 Intestinal Nematodes
When adult worms live in the small intestine & roundworms may migrate to the lungs, Ascaris lumbricoides becomes:
a. An infection
b. An infestation
b. An infestation
Ch. 50 Intestinal Nematodes
Which microorganism has an ovum that are mammillated or decorticated, infertile eggs are oval or irregular shaped with a thin shell, & the male worms have a curved posterior end with 3 lips??
a. Ascaris lumbricoides
b. Ancylost
a. Ascaris lumbricoides
Ch. 50 Intestinal Nematodes
Definition of decorticated:
Egg has a ________, which has a bumpy ______________ membrane.
shell; encapsulated
Ch. 50 Intestinal Nematodes
Definition of operculated:
Egg has a _____.
lid
Ch. 50 Intestinal Nematodes
Which microorganism is transmitted by ingestion or inhalation of eggs, is more prevalent in children up to 14 years of age (itchy butts), & is also called a pinworm?
a. Ascaris lumbricoides
b. Trichuris trichiura
c. Necator ame
d. Enterobius vermicularis
Ch. 50 Intestinal Nematodes
Which microorganism has a gravid female pinworm that migrates out of the anus at night & lays eggs which causes perianal itching (itchy butt)?
a. Enterobius vermicularis
b. Trichuris trichiura
c. Ascaris lumbricoides
d. Ancylos
a. Enterobius vermicularis
Ch. 50 Intestinal Nematodes
This microorganism has a flat-sided ovum on one side & is rounded on the other side. Eggs are collected from the perianal region using tape & gravid females will be completely filled with about 5,000 eggs per day. The female wo
b. Enterobius vermicularis
Ch. 50 Intestinal Nematodes
Trichuris trichiura
- It is a ___________ (type/shape of worm?)
- No _________ migration occurs
- It is acquired via ____________:
A. _____________ eggs are ingested
B. ______ mature in the __________
C. Eggs are passed in the
whipworm; tissue; ingestion; embryonated; larvae; intestine; feces
Ch. 50 Intestinal Nematodes
What is the name of the most common m.o. that has brown barrel-shaped egg structures that contain a thick wall with hyaline polar plugs at each end?
a. Enterobius vermicularis
b. Trichuris trichiura
c. Ascaris lumbricoides
d. A
b. Trichuris trichiura
This intestinal nematode worm burrows into the intestinal mucosa & feed on tissue secretions.
a. Trichuris trichiura
b. Enterobius vermicularis
c. Ascaris lumbricoides
d. Ancylostoma duodenale
a. Trichuris trichiura
Ch. 50 Intestinal Nematodes
Hookworms
- _____________ larvae penetrate the skin
- Larvae migrate to the __________ where they are swallowed
- Hookworms attach to the ___ mucosa & ingest ________.
-Eggs are passed in feces & mature into ______________ larv
Filariform; lungs; GI; blood; rhabditiform
Ch. 50 Intestinal Nematodes
Which larvae of the Hookworms that is born & alive with a pointy end that has enzymes (proteases) that digest protein, which would penetrate the skin?
a. Filariform larvae
b. Rhabditiform larvae
a. Filariform larvae
Ch. 50 Intestinal Nematodes
2 species of __________ infect humans:
Ancylostoma duodenale
Necator americanus
hookworms
Ch. 50 Intestinal Nematodes
The hookworm matures into ______________ larvae.
a. Filariform larvae
b. Rhabditiform larvae
b. Rhabditiform larvae
Ch. 50 Intestinal Nematodes
Hookworms DO NOT GO THROUGH THE BLOOD. They penetrate the _____ & migrate to the _________ where it _________ to the GI mucosa & begins feeding on the patient's blood.
skin; lungs; ascends
Ch. 50 Intestinal Nematodes
2 species of hookworms infect humans:
1. _______________ _____________
2. __________ _______________
Ancylostoma duodenale; Necator americanus
Ch. 50 Intestinal Nematodes
Diagnosis of Hookworm
- Eggs or rhabditiform larvae are identified in _______.
- Rhabditiform larvae have a long buccal ___________ with small __________ _____________ (cavity).
- Filariform larvae have ____________ tails.
- La
stool; capsule; genital primordium; pointed
Ch. 50 Intestinal Nematodes
Larvae may be cultured with Harada-Mori method & includes rhabditiform & filariform larvae.
a. Ascaris lumbricoides
b. Hookworms
c. Necator americanus
d. Enterobius vermicularis
b. Hookworms
Ch. 51 Tissue Nematodes
Stages
- Adult ____
- Adult ______
- ____ larval stages
male; female; four
Ch. 51 Tissue Nematodes
Transmission
- Biting & blood-feeding ___________
- Ingestion of small freshwater ________________
- Ingestion of contaminated _________
arthropods; crustaceans; meat
Ch. 51 Tissue Nematodes
Transmission
- ________ & _______-feeding arthropods
- ___________ of small freshwater crustaceans
- ___________ of contaminated meat
biting; blood; ingestion; ingestion
Ch. 51 Tissue Nematodes
Trichinella spiralis
- ____________ larvae are ingested from undercooked _____
- Larvae are deposited in ___________ ___________
Encysted; meat; striated muscle
Ch. 51 Tissue Nematodes
Life cycles include: _________ & ____________
domestic; sylvatic
Ch. 51 Tissue Nematodes
What is the name of the most common disease known caused by Trichinella spiralis?
Trichinosis
Ch. 51 Tissue Nematodes
What is the name of the most common m.o. known to cause Trichinosis?
Trichinella spiralis
Ch. 51 Tissue Nematodes
Trichinosis
- Encysted larvae cause disease of __________
- Adult stages reside in the ___________
- Larvae will not encyst in the _________ or _________ tissue
- Diagnosis is made from a ___________ _________ or serologically
muscle; intestine; brain; heart; muscle biopsy
Trichinella spiralis belongs in which group?
a. Intestinal Nematodes
b. Blood Nematodes
c. Tissue Nematodes
d. Blood & Tissue Protozoa
c. Tissue Nematodes
True or false, Tissue Nematodes are hermaphroditic & contain 6 larval stages.
False, Tissue Nematodes are not hermaphroditic & contain 4 larval stages.
Ch. 52 Blood Nematodes
This chapter is all about _______-______ that live in blood.
The word "Filarial" in the name Filarial Nematodes means: ________ ______
Round-worms; pointy ends
Ch. 52 Blood Nematodes
Filarial Nematodes
- Transmitted by blood-sucking _____________
- Larval stages reside in __________ ___________
- _______ worm is pathogenic in humans
- Female worms produce larvae called _____________
arthropods; insect vectors; adult; microfilariae
The __________ stages of blood nematodes, most specifically filarial nematodes reside in insect vectors.
larval
Blood Nematodes, Filarial Nematodes are transmitted by _______-sucking ______________.
blood; arthropods
Ch. 52 Blood Nematodes
In filarial nematodes, the _______ worm is the most pathogenic in humans.
a. Larvae
b. Pin
c. Adult
c. Adult
The blood nematodes, Filarial Nematodes, female worms produce larvae called?
Microfilariae
How do you distinguish (morphological features) what species of filarial or microfilarial nematodes (blood nematodes) you are working with?
By how the tail ends & how many nuclei they have
Ch. 52 Blood Nematodes
Wuchereria bancrofti, is transmitted by a:
a. Deerfly
b. Mosquito
c. Tick
d. Flea
b. Mosquito
Ch. 52 Blood Nematodes
Wuchereria bancroft
The definitive host (sexual reproduction part of the life cycle) is/are:
a. Deerflies
b. Mosquitos
c. Humans
d. Ticks
c. Humans
Ch. 52 Blood Nematodes
There are 2 forms of Wuchereria bancrofti, they are:
1. __________ form
2. _____ form in the Pacific Islands
Nocturnal; day
A review Flashcard from Ch. 49
The
definite
host in malaria (Plasmodium sp.) is a:
a. Mosquito
b. Human
c. Deerfly
d. Flea
a. Mosquito
A review Flashcard from Ch. 49
The
intermediate
(asexual reproduction part of the cycle) host in malaria (Plasmodium sp.) is a:
a. Mosquito
b. Human
c. Tick
d. Fly
b. Human
Ch. 52 Blood Nematodes
True or false, Hydrocele (scrotum) & Chyluria (urine) are
one of the few diseases caused by Wuchereria bancroft?
TRUE
Ch. 52 Blood Nematodes
Wuchereria bancrofti can cause Bancroftian filariasis, Hydrocele (scrotum), Chyluria (urine), Elephantiasis, & __________ ____________ _____________ (TPE).
Tropical pulmonary eosinophilia
Ch. 52 Blood Nematodes
Wuchereria bancrofti can cause Hydrocele (scrotum), Chyluria (urine), Elephantiasis, Tropical pulmonary eosinophilia (TPE), & ____________ ___________.
Bancroftian filariasis
Ch. 52 Blood Nematodes
Elephantiasis (disease of Wuchereria bancrofti) is the obstruction of _____________ _______ in the ____________.
lymphatic vessels; extremities
Ch. 52 Blood Nematodes
What is the disease known to obstruct lymphatic vessels in the extremities preventing extracellular fluids to go back to the heart because it is plugged by the m.o. Wuchereria bancrofti?
Elephantiasis
Ch. 52 Blood Nematodes
Elephantiasis is known to obstruct lymphatic vessels in the extremities preventing extracellular fluids to go back to the heart because it is plugged by the m.o. ___________ _____________?
Wuchereria bancrofti
Ch. 52 Blood Nematodes
Diagnosis of Wuchereria bancrofti
- Identification of parasites in ________, _________, or _______
- _____
blood; fluids; tissue; PCR
Ch. 52 Blood Nematodes
Loa Loa
- It is an _____ parasite!
eye
Ch. 52 Blood Nematodes
Loa Loa
It is transmitted by the __________ or ____________.
tabanid; deerfly
Ch. 52 Blood Nematodes
Loa Loa
It is transmitted by the tabanid or ____________.
a. Deerfly
b. Mosquito
c. Deertick
d. Flea
a. Deerfly
Ch. 52 Blood Nematodes
Loa Loa
_____________ circulate in the bloodstream & reside in the subconjunctiva.
Microfilariae
Ch. 52 Blood Nematodes
Loa Loa
Microfilariae circulate in the bloodstream & reside in the _________________.
subconjunctiva
What is the most common symptom caused by the blood nematode Loa Loa?
Calabar swelling
Calabar swelling is the most common symptom caused by the blood nematode m.o. _____ _____.
Loa Loa
Ch. 52 Blood Nematodes
Diagnosis of Loa Loa
- Worm is identified in the _____, _______, or __________ blood.
- Contains a ___________ that does not stain with __________.
-
________
extend to the tail in an irregular fashion.
eye; tissue; peripheral; sheath; Giemsa; nuclei
Ch. 52 Blood Nematodes
The nuclei of this blood nematode extends all the way to the tail in an irregular fashion.
a. Wuchereria bancrofti
b. Loa Loa
b. Loa Loa
Intestinal Cestodes are also known as ______________.
a. whipworms
b. roundworms
c. pinworms
d. tapeworms
d. tapeworms
Body parts, such as the scolex, proglottids, & rostellum have to do with which type of helminth:
a. whipworms
b. roundworms
c. tapeworms
d. pinworms
c. tapeworms
____________ _____________ are also known as tapeworms.
a. Tissue cestodes
b. Intestinal cestodes
c. Blood nematodes
d. Intestinal trematodes
b. Intestinal cestodes
Ch. 53 Intestinal Cestodes
True or false, mature cestodes contain male & female organs (hermaphroditic)
TRUE
Ch. 53 Intestinal Cestodes
Body parts names (terminology)
Scolex is the
a. Embryos within the egg
b. Egg-producing units
c. Attachment structure
d. Adult worm segment
c. Attachment structure
Ch. 53 Intestinal Cestodes
Body parts names (terminology)
Proglottids are the
a. Embryos within the egg
b. Egg-producing units
c. Attachment structure
d. Adult worm segment
b. Egg-producing units
Ch. 53 Intestinal Cestodes
Body parts names (terminology)
Rostellum is the
a. Attachment structure
b. Egg-producing units
c. Crown or scolex (smooth or hooked)
d. None of the above
c. Crown or scolex (smooth or hooked)
Ch. 53 Intestinal Cestodes
This is a freshwater broad fish tapeworm that is known to be the largest human tapeworm. Fish are the reservoir host & humans are the definitive host.
a. Diphyllobothrium latum
b. Dipylidium caninum
c. Taenia saginata
d. Taenia
a. Diphyllobothrium latum
Ch. 53 Intestinal Cestodes
May cause pernicious anemia & gastrointestinal symptoms.
a. Taenia solium
b. Dipylidium caninum
c. Taenia saginata
d. Diphyllobothrium latum
d. Diphyllobothrium latum
Intestinal cestodes are also called ribbon-like ______-worms
flat
Intestinal cestodes are also called ______-like ______-worms
ribbon; flat
Ch. 53 Intestinal Cestodes
What are the 2 most common symptoms caused by the m.o. Diphyllobothrium latum?
Mild gastrointestinal symptoms & pernicious anemia
Ch. 53 Intestinal Cestodes
Diphyllobothrium latum
Diagnosis
- Eggs & ___________ are transmitted in feces.
- Eggs are _______, ______________ (lid), & yellow-brown
- _____________ are wider than they are long with a ___________-shaped central ___________.
Proglottids; ovoid; operculated; proglottids; rosette; uterus
Diphyllobothrium latum (intestinal cestode)
PREVENTION
====> Avoid consumption of ____ _______!
raw fish
Ch. 53 Intestinal Cestodes
The reservoir host of the m.o. Diphyllobothrium latum is a:
a. Fish
b. Human
c. Cow
a. Fish
Ch. 53 Intestinal Cestodes
The definitive host of the m.o. Diphyllobothrium latum is a:
a. Fish
b. Human
c. Cow
b. Human
Like Wuchereria bancroft (blood nematode), the definitive host of Diphyllobothrium latum (intestinal cestode) are:
a. Deerflies
b. Mosquitos
c. Humans
d. Ticks
c. Humans
Ch. 53 Intestinal Cestodes
Cat or dog tapeworm
a. Taenia solium
b. Dipylidium caninum
c. Taenia saginata
d. Diphyllobothrium latum
b. Dipylidium caninum
Ch. 53 Intestinal Cestodes
Pork tapeworm that can cause Extraintestinal disease called cysticercosis & intestinal infections like abdominal pain & diarrhea.
a. Taenia solium
b. Dipylidium caninum
c. Taenia saginata
d. Diphyllobothrium latum
a. Taenia solium
Ch. 53 Intestinal Cestodes
Tapeworm segments in stool (
7-13 uterine branches
), The eggs are round & oval with thickly striated shell &
6
oncospheres.
a. Diphyllobothrium latum
b. Dipylidium caninum
c. Taenia saginata
d. Taenia solium
d. Taenia solium
Ch. 53 Intestinal Cestodes
Taenia solium
PREVENTION
======> Good _________, immediate __________, & cooking _____ thoroughly!
hygiene; treatment; pork
Ch. 53 Intestinal Cestodes
Taenia solium
Serologic assays for diagnosis of ________________________ (pork tapeworm infection).
neurocysticercosis
Ch. 53 Intestinal Cestodes
Taenia solium
The
intermediate host
are:
a. Humans
b. Pigs
b. Pigs
Ch. 53 Intestinal Cestodes
Taenia solium
The
definitive host
are:
a. Humans
b. Pigs
a. Humans
Wuchereria bancroft (blood nematode), Diphyllobothrium latum (intestinal cestode), & Taenia solium (intestinal cestode) all have what in common?:
a. Pigs are the definitive host
b. Humans are the intermediate host
c. Humans are the definitive host
d. Pigs
c. Humans are the definitive host
Ch. 53 Intestinal Cestodes
Taenia solium tapeworm segments in stool has (___-___ uterine branches)
a. 15-18
b. 7-18
c. 7-13
d. 15-13
c. 7-13
Ch. 53 Intestinal Cestodes
Intestinal infection that causes diarrhea & abdominal pain is caused by which m.o.?:
a. Diphyllobothrium latum
b. Taenia solium
c. Taenia saginata
d. Wuchereria bancrofti
b. Taenia solium
Ch. 53 Intestinal Cestodes
Extraintestinal cysticercosis (larvae in tissue) is caused by which m.o.?:
a. Diphyllobothrium latum
b. Taenia saginata
c. Taenia solium
d. Wuchereria bancrofti
c. Taenia solium
Ch. 53 Intestinal Cestodes
Which m.o. has hooklets & wall with radial striations?
a. Fasciola hepatica
b. Taenia saginata
c. Wuchereria bancrofti
d. Ascaris lumbricoides
e. Taenia solium
e. Taenia solium
Ch. 53 Intestinal Cestodes
Taenia solium eggs have ____ oncospheres (nuclei)
a. three
b. four
c. five
d. six
d. six
Ch. 53 Intestinal Cestodes
The vector of Taenia solium is:
a. Cow
b. Human
c. Pig
d. Larvae
c. Pig
Ch. 53 Intestinal Cestodes
Taenia saginata
Is a _______ tapeworm.
a. Pork
b. Dog
c. Beef
d. Cat
c. Beef
Ch. 53 Intestinal Cestodes
Taenia saginata
Has a life cycle similar to T. solium, however ________ is the intermediate host.
a. Humans
b. Pigs
c. Cattle
d. Dogs
c. Cattle
Ch. 53 Intestinal Cestodes
Taenia saginata
Diagnosis
- _________ in stool (15-18 lateral branches)
- _______ in stool
Proglottids; eggs
Ch. 53 Intestinal Cestodes
Taenia saginata tapeworm segments in stool has (___-___ lateral branches)
a. 15-18
b. 7-18
c. 7-13
d. 15-13
a. 15-18
Ch. 53 Intestinal Cestodes
Which m.o. has uterine branches of tapeworm segments found in stool?
a. T. solium
b. T. saginata
c. D. latum
a. T. solium
Ch. 53 Intestinal Cestodes
Which m.o. has lateral branches of proglottids found in stool?
a. T. solium
b. T. saginata
c. D. latum
b. T. saginata
Ch. 53 Intestinal Cestodes
Taenia saginata
PREVENTION
======> Inspect _______ for cysticerci & cook thoroughly!
beef
Ch. 53 Intestinal Cestodes
Taenia saginata
PREVENTION
======> Inspect beef for _____________ & cook thoroughly!
cysticerci
Ch. 53 Intestinal Cestodes
The egg oncospheres in the life cycle of both Taenia solium & Taenia saginata develop into cysticerci in _____________.
muscle
Ch. 53 Intestinal Cestodes
Humans are infected by ingesting raw or undercooked infected _________ of both Taenia solium & Taenia saginata.
meat
Ch. 53 Intestinal Cestodes
The intermediate host of Taenia solium are ______.
The intermediate host of Taenia saginata are _________.
pigs; cattle
Ch. 53 Intestinal Cestodes
The definitive host of Taenia solium are ________.
The definitive host of Taenia saginata are _________.
humans; humans
Ch. 54 are Tissue Cestodes & which one of the m.o. from Ch. 53, Intestinal Cestodes is also included in this chapter?
Taenia solium
Ch. 54 Tissue Cestode
The most common disease caused by Taenia solium when it is in the tissue is called?
Cysticercosis
Cysticercosis
Larval infection may invade the ___________ __________ ____________ (_____), eye, or other tissues. It is also described as an ___________________ infection & it is a bag that contains cysts.
central nervous system (CNS); extraintestinal
Ch. 54 Tissue Cestode
- Larvae DO NOT reach _______ stage in humans.
- Eggs are accidentally acquired by ingestion from an _____________ host.
- Larvae deposit in various ________ & tissue.
adult; intermediate; organs
Blood Trematodes are primarily in ___________
humans
The 3 main species of blood trematodes are:
1. Schistosoma _______________
2. Schistosoma _____________
3. Shistosoma ____________
haematobium; japonicum; mansoni
General characteristics of blood trematodes:
- Adult schistosomes are NOT ______________.
- Oral sucker surrounds the __________.
- _________ sucker is below the oral sucker.
- Separate _________ & _________ adult worms.
- Adult worms live in _________ th
flattened; mouth; ventral; veins; intestines; bladder; spine
The _________________ is always free living, it does not need a host!
a. larvae
b. miracidium
c. cercariae
d. eggs
c. cercariae
Life cycle of blood trematodes
1. Humans; adult worms in blood (_________)
2. _______ in feces or urine (passed into water)
3. Larvae is liberated & penetrate the ________ (development of other larval forms)
4. ____________ emerge from ______ (water)
5. P
veins; eggs; snail; cercariae; snail
The Schistosome eggs are very characteristic.
Schistosoma __________ is large & has a small, lateral pointy structure (spine).
Schistosoma ___________ is shorter & more stubby, but also has a small, lateral spine.
Schistosoma ___________ has the pointy st
mansoni; japonicum; haematobium
True or false, the male & female in the Schistosoma spp. constantly mate for life (monogamous).
TRUE
The most common intermediate host in all leaf-like trematodes are _________.
snails
Epidemiologic Factors of Blood Trematodes
This. mo. is endemic or prevalent in this environment where it can perfectly grow & survive: Africa & Arabian peninsula
a. Schistosoma haematobium
b. Schistosoma mansoni
c. Schistosoma japonicum
a. Schistosoma haematobium
Epidemiologic Factors of Blood Trematodes
This. mo. is endemic or prevalent in this environment where it can perfectly grow & survive: Brazil, Arabian peninsula, & Africa
a. Schistosoma haematobium
b. Schistosoma mansoni
c. Schistosoma japonicum
b. Schistosoma mansoni
Epidemiologic Factors of Blood Trematodes
This. mo. is endemic or prevalent in this environment where it can perfectly grow & survive: Philippines, China, & Indonesia
a. Schistosoma haematobium
b. Schistosoma mansoni
c. Schistosoma japonicum
c. Schistosoma japonicum
Epidemiologic Factors of Blood Trematodes
The reservoir hosts are rodents & marsupials. The prevalent regions include Brazil, Africa, & the Arabian peninsula.
a. Schistosoma japonicum
b. Schistosoma haematobium
c. Schistosoma mansoni
c. Schistosoma mansoni
Blood Trematodes Diseases & Common Symptoms:
- ________________ when first infected. However, within days after.
- ______ or ______ skin may develop at first.
- Within 1-2 months of infection, symptoms may develop including _______, chills, cough, & _____
Asymptomatic; rash; itchy; fever; muscle
What is the name of the most common disease caused by blood trematodes?
Schistosomiasis
Blood Trematodes Diseases & Common Symptoms:
- Without _____________, can persist for years
- Severe _________ damage may occur when eggs penetrate it to reach the __________ or ____________.
treatment; tissue; intestine; bladder
Blood Trematodes Diseases & Common Symptoms:
- Signs & symptoms of chronic schistosomiasis include: _____________ pain, enlarged _________, blood in stool, blood in urine, & problems passing urine.
- ___________ infection can lead to increased risk of bla
abdominal; liver; chronic; cancer; hypertension; liver
Diagnosis of blood trematodes:
- Eggs are detected in _______ or biopsy.
________ biopsy (all Schistosomes)
______ or ________ biopsy (S. haematobium)
feces; rectal; urine; bladder
Diagnosis of blood trematodes:
- _____ mounts with or without __________ can be used.
- Optimal time for recovery of S. haematobium in urine is between _______ & ___PM.
- Some ______________-based assays are available.
wet; iodine; noon; 2; antibody
Anything can be a reservoir! They are a "___________ ________" & give rise to lots of numbers of the m.o., so it doesn't go __________. Reservoirs can give the __________!
holding place; extinct; disease
Taenia solium belong in which group:
a. Liver & Lung Trematodes
b. Blood & Intestinal Nematodes
c. Blood & Tissue Protozoa
d. Tissue Cestodes & Intestinal Cestodes
d. Tissue Cestodes & Intestinal Cestodes
Diphyllobothrium latum belongs in which group:
a. Intestinal Nematodes
b. Tissue Cestodes
c. Intestinal Cestodes
d. Intestinal Trematodes
c. Intestinal Cestodes
Swimmer's Itch" belongs in which group:
a. Intestinal Trematodes
b. Intestinal Nematodes
c. Intestinal Cestodes
d. None of the above
a. Intestinal Trematodes
Schistosoma japoncium belongs in which group:
a. Blood Nematodes
b. Blood Trematodes
c. Liver & Lung Trematodes
d. Intestinal Trematodes
b. Blood Trematodes
Fasciola hepatica belongs in which group:
a. Intestinal Trematodes
b. Blood Trematodes
c. Liver & Lung Trematodes
d. Intestinal Cestodes
c. Liver & Lung Trematodes
Taenia saginata belongs in which group:
a. Intestinal Cestodes
b. Blood Trematodes
c. Intestinal Nematodes
d. Tissue Nematodes
a. Intestinal Cestodes
Enterobius vermicularis & Ascaris lumbricoides both belong in which group:
a. Blood Nematodes
b. Blood Trematodes
c. Intestinal Nematodes
d. Blood & Tissue Protozoa
c. Intestinal Nematodes
Toxoplasma gondii belongs in which group:
a. Protozoa from other body sites
b. Intestinal Nematodes
c. Tissue Nematodes
d. Platyhelminthes (flatworms)
a. Protozoa from other body sites
Trichinella spiralis belongs in which group:
a. Intestinal Cestodes
b. Blood Trematodes
c. Intestinal Nematodes
d. Tissue Nematodes
d. Tissue Nematodes
Wuchereria bancrofti & Loa Loa belong in which group:
a. Intestinal Cestodes
b. Blood Nematodes
c. Intestinal Nematodes
d. Tissue Nematodes
b. Blood Nematodes
The m.o. Trichuris trichiura belongs in which group:
a. Tissue Nematodes
b. Intestinal Nematodes
c. Blood & Tissue Protozoa
d. Protozoa from other parts of the body
b. Intestinal Nematodes
Hookworms belongs in which group:
a. Protozoa from other parts of the body
b. Blood & Tissue Protozoa
c. Blood Nematodes
d. Intestinal Nematodes
d. Intestinal Nematodes
Filarial Nematodes are from the
a. Tissue
b. Blood
c. Intestinal
b. Blood
Necator americanus (nematode) are from the
a. Tissue
b. Blood
c. Intestinal
c. Intestinal
Ancylostoma duodenale (nematode) are from the
a. Intestinal
b. Tissue
c. Blood
a. Intestinal
Loa Loa is from which nematode group:
a. Intestinal
b. Tissue
c. Blood
c. Blood
Trypanosoma spp. & Leishmania spp. belongs in which group:
a. Intestinal Nematodes
b. Protozoa from other body sites
c. Blood & Tissue Protozoa
d. None of the above
c. Blood & Tissue Protozoa
Naegleria fowleri is a free-living ____________, which belongs in the protozoa kingdom.
amoeba
True or false, Trichomonas vaginalis is a protozoa.
TRUE
True or false, Toxoplasma gondii belongs in the animal kingdom, not the protozoa.
False, Toxoplasma gondii are protozoa.
Mycology
study of fungi
Fungi are ________ (moist) &/or _________ (filamentous).
yeast; molds
Organisms that display both yeast & mold forms are thermally __________ (2 forms). This happens at specific temperatures & fungi that have more than 1 form or stage are ____________.
dimorphic; polymorphic
Fungi can show 2 different forms. They are
Macroscopic & microscopic
Microscopic fungi has subdivisions depending on temperature (Celsius).
Yeast stage grows at what temperature?
a. 47
b. 37
c. RT
d. 112
b. 37
Microscopic fungi has subdivisions depending on temperature (Celsius).
Mold stage grows at what temperature?
a. 47
b. 37
c. RT
d. 112
c. RT
Fungi, General Characteristics
Fungi have a cell wall made out of tough protein called?
Chitin
Fungi, General Characteristics
Fungi have a cell membrane called (hint: cousin of cholesterol)?
Ergosterol
Fungi, General Characteristics
Spores, in regards to fungi, are most usually used for what purpose?
Spores are produced sexually or asexually for reproduction & dispersion
True or false, fungi have chlorophyll.
a. True, fungi have chlorophyll
b. False, fungi lack chlorophyll
b. False, fungi lack chlorophyll
True or false, fungi lack susceptibility to antibacterial antibiotics.
TRUE
Fungi live off of decomposing organic material or dead/decaying organic matter. This means they are ________________.
saphrophytes
What is the taxonomy mnemonic used to memorize scientific classification applied in taxonomy?
King (Kingdom) Phillip (Phyla) Came (Class) Over (Order) For (Family) Good (Genus) Sex (Species)
What is the mnemonic used to memorize the 4 phyla of fungi?
Zombies (Zygomycota) Are (Ascomycota) Brown (Basidiomycota) & Dirty (Deuteromycota)
All have a sexual form (
telomorph
) & an asexual form (
anamorph
). Some fungi are also synanomorphs.
Asexual reproduction
by
conidia
. 8 daughter spores are produced within a
sack-like
structure (
sexual reproduction
).
a. Ascomycota phyla
b. Zygomycota
a. Ascomycota phyla
Includes
diploid spores
produced by the fusion of hyphae (
sexual reproduction
).
Asexual reproduction
by
sporangiospores
.
a. Ascomycota phyla
b. Zygomycota phyla
c. Deuteromycota phyla
d. Basidiomycota phyla
b. Zygomycota phyla
Which phyla includes sexual reproduction of diploid spores made by the fusion of hyphae?
Zygomycota phyla
Which phyla includes Histoplasma capsulatum, Ajellomyces, Aspergillus, & Eurotium? Hint: Telemorph = sexual. Anamorph = asexual.
Ascomycota phyla
Which phyla includes Rhizopus, Mucor, & Cunninghamella? Hint: Asexual reproduction via sporangiospores.
Zygomycota phyla
Which phyla includes 8 daughter spores made inside a sack-like ascus?
a. Ascomycota
b. Zygomycota
c. Basidiomycota
d. Deuteromycota
a. Ascomycota
Asexual reproduction
by
conidia
. However,
sexual reproduction is not yet known
. Includes Blastomyces dermatitidis.
a. Ascomycota phyla
b. Zygomycota phyla
c. Basidiomycota phyla
d. Deuteromycota phyla
d. Deuteromycota phyla
Includes Cryptococcus neoformans complex, mushrooms, smuts, & rusts.
Sexual reproduction
included.
a. Deuteromycota phyla
b. Zygomycota phyla
c. Ascomycota phyla
d. Basidiomycota phyla
d. Basidiomycota phyla
In the Basidiomycota phyla,
sexual reproduction
occurs via ________________ (on basidia).
basidiospores
In the Zygomycota phyla,
asexual reproduction
occurs by __________________.
sporangiospores
Which 2 phyla have the
asexual reproduction
by conidia?
a. Ascomycota & Basidiomycota
b. Deuteromycota & Ascomycota
c. Zygomycota & Deuteromycota
d. Basidiomycota & Zygomycota
b. Deuteromycota & Ascomycota
What are the 3 Reproductive Forms of Fungi? (SAT)
Synanomorph, Anamorph, Teleomorph
Reproductive Forms of Fungi
Teleomorph - __________ form
Anamorph - ___________ form
Synanomorph - Different _____________ forms in the same fungus (same m.o. shows more than 2 different forms).
sexual; asexual; asexual
Which reproductive form of fungi is the sexual form?
a. Synanomorph
b. Teleomorph
c. Anamorph
b. Teleomorph
Which reproductive form of fungi is the asexual form?
a. Synanomorph
b. Teleomorph
c. Anamorph
c. Anamorph
Which reproductive form of fungi are different asexual forms in the same fungus?
a. Synanomorph
b. Teleomorph
c. Anamorph
a. Synanomorph
Mycoses
Infections involve the hair, skin, or nails without direct invasion of deep tissue.
a. Systemic mycoses
b. Subcutaneous mycoses
c. Superficial cutaneous mycoses
d. Opportunistic mycoses
c. Superficial cutaneous mycoses
Mycoses
Infections are confined to subcutaneous tissue without dissemination.
a. Opportunistic mycoses
b. Systemic mycoses
c. Superficial cutaneous mycoses
d. Subcutaneous mycoses
d. Subcutaneous mycoses
Mycoses
Infections often involve the lungs, but can disseminate to any organ; Blastomyces, Coccidioides, Histoplasma
a. Superficial cutaneous mycoses
b. Subcutaneous mycoses
c. System mycoses
d. Opportunistic mycoses
c. System mycoses
Mycoses
Infections occur in patients who are immunocompromised. Infections can become systemic; Aspergillus, Cryptococcus, Candida
a. Opportunistic mycoses
b. Systemic mycoses
c. Subcutaneous mycoses
d. Superficial cutaneous mycoses
a. Opportunistic mycoses
Aspergillus, Cryptococcus, & Candida belong to which mycoses classification:
a. Opportunistic
b. Systemic
a. Opportunistic
Blastomyces, Coccidioides, & Histoplasma belong to which mycoses classification:
a. Opportunistic
b. Systemic
b. Systemic
Working Scheme Terms
Septate - _________ or ______ separates cells.
Dematiaceous - Darkly _________________.
Hyaline - Is ____________.
septum; wall; pigmented; nonpigmented
Which fungi of the working scheme separates into Aseptate Hyphae & Septate Hyphae?
Molds
In molds, it can be separated as Aseptate Hyphae & Septate Hyphae. Septate Hyphae can separate into 2, which are?
Dematiaceous & Hyaline
Mycosis or Fungal Disease
Types of Pathogens
- ___________
- _________________
Primary; Opportunistic
Mycosis or Fungal Disease
Common Virulence Factors
1. ______ of organism - inhaled easily if _____
2. Ability to grow at 37�C at ________ pH (inside human body)
3. Conversion from ___________ form to ______ or spherule form
4. _________ production
size; small; neutral; mycelial; yeast; toxin
Fungal ID: Clinical Specimens
1. _______________ secretions
- Specify & make sure if there have been any antibiotic/anti fungal therapy.
2. ________________ fluid
3. Blood
4. Hair, skin, & _____ scrapings
- Mycosel agar should be used.
5. Vaginal
- Select
Respiratory; cerebrospinal; nail; tissue; bone marrow; body
The difference between a fungal skin infection & a bacterial skin infection is that the signs & symptoms are dry, ______, & _______. While bacterial infections are not the signs & symptoms listed above & the skin is _______, not dry.
itchy; scaly; moist
Fungal ID: Culture
Recommended media:
- With & without ____________ (inhibits non-pathogens)
- With & without an _______________ ______.
Cycloheximide; antibacterial agent
Fungal ID: Culture
Agar ______ are preferred over _______-capped agar.
- Better ___________ (gets more O2)
- Larger __________ ______
- Greater ease of handling
plates; screw; aeration; surface area
Fungal ID: Culture
Incubation:
- _____ temperature (30�C)
- Minimum of 21 to 30 days
- __________ range of 40% to 50% (loves really moist environments)
- Examined at least ________ times a week
Room; humidity; three
Fungal ID: Common Media
1. _______________ Dextrose
- Contains _________ (pancreatic digest of casein)
- High _________ concentrations - (4%)
- ______ pH - 5.6
- With or without ______________.
Sabouraud's; peptones; glucose; acid; antibiotics.
Fungal ID: Common Media
2. ___________ Agar
- Peptones & 1% ________, _________ pH
- Cycloheximide & _________________
Mycosel; glucose; normal; chloramphenicol
Fungal ID: Common Media
Sabouraud's Dextrose media has _________ pH & _______ glucose concentration while Mycosel Agar has _____ glucose concentration, & ____________ pH. Both common medias contain ___________ (protein source).
acidic; high; low; normal; peptones
Fungal ID: Direct Detection Methods
1. ______________ hydroxide (KOH) preparation
2. __________ white stain
Superior to KOH
3. ________ ____ stain - Cryptococcus
4. __________ cotton _____ mounts
- Scotch tape mount
5. GMS stain
6. PAS stain
Potassium; calcofluor; India ink; lactophenol; blue
Fungal ID: Direct Detection Methods
4. Lactophenol cotton blue mounts
- Scotch tape mount
- Lactophenol cotton blue: _________ ______ clears & preserves structures, _______ kills organism, cotton blue stains ________ in _____ _____.
lactic acid; phenol; chitin; cell walls
Fungal ID: Direct Detection Methods
4. Lactophenol cotton blue mounts
- Scotch tape mount
- Lactophenol cotton blue: Lactic acid _______ & ____________ structures, phenol _______ organism, cotton blue stains ________ in cell ________.
clears; preserves; kills; chitin; walls
Fungal ID: Colonial Morphologic Characteristics in Molds
1. ________ should be noted on the front & reverse surfaces.
2. _____________
A. Verrucose
B. Umbonate
C. Rugose
3. ___________
A. Cottony - loose, high aerial mycelium
B. Granular - dense & powdery
Color; topography; texture; incubation temperature
Morphologic Characteristics of Molds
_______________ (love to grow on superficials like hair, skin, nails & is very common worldwide) tend to produce the following:
- Freely _____________: "_____________" appearance
- Racquet hyphae
- Spiral hyphae
Dermatophytes; branching; anterlike
*Reminder look at Conidia for BOC (Slide 21-24)
...
Zygomycetes Epidemiologic Factors
- ______________ distribution
- Found on decaying organic _________, bread, or in the ______.
- Infection is acquired through _____________, ___________ routes, or the ingestion of _______.
Worldwide; matter; soil; inhalation; percutaneous; spores
Zygomycosis
Patients who are _____________________ are at risk.
- Uncontrolled ______________
- Those with prolonged _______ __________.
immunocompromised; diabetes; drug therapy
Diseases of Zygomycosis:
- Vascular invasion, particularly _________________
- Tissue thrombosis &/or ____________
- _______________ invasion
- Lung infections
- Gastrointestinal (GI) infections
rhinocerebral; necrosis; perineural
Rhinocerebral, necrosis, perineural invasion, lung infections, & gastrointestinal infections all have to do with what fungal infection caused by the class of fungi called Zygomycetes?
Zygomycosis
Morphologic Characteristics of Zygomycosis
- Appear _________
- White-gray to brown
- _________ are grayish & dotted with dark _____________
fluffy; hyphae; sporangia
Give 2 species that belong to the class of fungi called Zygomycetes.
Mucor spp. & Rhizopus
Dermatophytes
A. Produce infections involving ______, _____, & _____.
hair; skin; nails
Dermatophytes
B. 3 etiologic causative agents that produce infection:
- _________________ (hair, skin & nails)
- _________________ (hair & skin)
- ________________________ (skin & nails)
Trichophyton; Microsporum; Epidermophyton
Dermatophytes
C. Disease - Causes cutaneous mycoses
- Tinea ____________ - Ringworm of the body
- Tinea _______ - Ringworm of the groin
- T. ________ - Ringworm of the scalp
- T. ________ - Ringworm of the beard
- T. ___________ - Ringworm of the nail
- T
corporis; cruris; capitis; barbae; unguium; pedis
Dermatophytes
C. Disease - Causes cutaneous mycoses
- Tinea corporis - Ringworm of the ____
- Tinea cruris - Ringworm of the _____
- T. capitis - Ringworm of the _____
- T. barbae - Ringworm of the _____
- T. unguium - Ringworm of the ____
- T. pedis - Ri
body; groin; scalp; beard; nail; feet
Which Dermatophyte genera involves JUST the nails & skin?
a. Microsporum
b. Trichophyton
c. Epidermophyton
c. Epidermophyton
Which Dermatophyte genera involves no nails!? BUT hair & skin are involved.
a. Epidermophyton
b. Microsporum
c. Trichophyton
b. Microsporum
Which Dermatophyte genera involves JUST the hair & skin?
a. Microsporum
b. Trichophyton
c. Epidermophyton
a. Microsporum
Which Dermatophyte genera involves hair, skin, AND nails?
a. Microsporum
b. Trichophyton
c. Epidermophyton
b. Trichophyton
Microsporum, Epidermophyton, & Trichophyton are the 3 genera under the common fungus label __________________.
Dermatophytes
Trichophyton
General characteristics
- Widely distributed
- ____________ hairs do not ____________ under Wood's lamp (UV).
Invasion
- ______________ - Hair shaft is filled with arthroconidia.
- _____________ - Spores are found around the hair shaft.
Ident
Infected; fluoresce; endothrix; ectothrix; macroconidia; microcondidia
Trichophyton
Invasion
- Endothrix - Hair shaft is filled with ___________.
- Ectothrix - ________ are round around the hair shaft.
Arthroconidia; spores
Key Features of Trichophyton rubrum
- Does not __________ hair.
- Is ______ growing (fast or slow?).
- Has a _______-red reverse surface.
- Colonies are __________ or __________.
Perforate; slow; cherry; fluffy; granular
Key Features of Trichophyton rubrum
Macroconidia:
- _______-walled (thin or thick?).
- _________-walled (rough or smooth?).
- Multicelled
- _______-shaped (three to eight septa)
Thin; smooth; cigar
Microsporum
ONLY hair & skin, no _____!
nails
Microsporum
- Large, ________-shaped, ______-walled, ____________
- ______ walls with four or more _______
- Small & _____-shaped __________
- Cultures that produce aerial hyphae
Texture - ________, powdery, glabrous, or cottony
Color - _______, buff to c
spindle; rough; macroconidia; thick; septa; club; microconidia; velvety; whitish; brown
True or false, Microsporum shows both macroconidia & microconidia.
a. False, Microsporum only shows macroconidia
b. False, Microsporum only shows microconidia
c. True
c. True
True or false, Microsporum shows aerial hyphae showing a powdery, cottony, & velvety texture as well as a white to cinnamon brown color.
a. True
b. False, Microsporum does not show aerial hyphae
c. None of the above
a. True
True or false, Microsporum shows only large, spindle-shaped, rough-walled macroconidia.
a. True, only macroconidia is shown.
b. False, Microsporum also shows small & club-shaped microconidia
c. Microsporum doesn't show macroconidia & microconidia at all!
b. False, Microsporum also shows small & club-shaped microconidia
What is the name of the most common m.o. caused by the genus Microsporum?
Microsporum canis
Microsporum canis
- Causes _________ in children & adults.
- Is spread by __________ __________.
- __________ hair shafts ________ yellow-green
Ringworm; infected animals; infected; fluoresce
True or false, Microsporum canis has infected hair shafts that DO NOT fluoresce yellow-green. However, Trichophyton fluoresces under Wood's lamp (UV).
a. Both do not fluoresce
b. True
c. False, Microsporum canis has infected hair shafts that fluoresce yel
c. False, Microsporum canis has infected hair shafts that fluoresce yellow-green while Trichophyton do NOT fluoresce.
How is Microsporum canis spread?
a. Human to human
b. Infected animals
c. Insects
b. Infected animals
Epidermophyton floccosum
This m.o. involves the _______ & ________!
skin; nails
Epidermophyton floccosum
- Common cause of ________ ________ ("jock itch") & ________ __________ (athlete's foot).
- Colonies grow _________; white, cottony mycelium overgrows the colony
- _______________ _______________ are thin-walled, club-shaped, roun
Tinea cruris; Tinea pedis; slowly; distinctive macroconidia; microconidia
True or false, Epidermophyton floccosum has distinctive microconidia & no macroconidia.
a. Epidermophyton floccosum does not have microconidia or macroconidia.
b. False, Epidermophyton floccosum has distinctive macroconidia & no microconidia.
c. True.
b. False, Epidermophyton floccosum has distinctive macroconidia & no microconidia.
Opportunistic Mycoses
- Cause ________ invasion in individuals who are immunocompromised.
- Organisms are ____________ & therefore difficult to diagnose.
- All fungi should be identified in these patients.
- Are acquired through:
_______________
Demolitio
Tissue; saprophytic; construction; hospital
All fungi should be identified in these patients. Organisms are saprophytic, so it is difficult to diagnose. Causes tissue invasion in individuals who are immunocompromised.
a. Systemic mycoses
b. Opportunistic mycoses
b. Opportunistic mycoses
Aspergillus & Penicillium are:
a. Opportunistic mycoses
b. Systemic mycoses
a. Opportunistic mycoses
Aspergillus
- Capable of _____________ infected & wide variety of other infections
- ________ fungus ball
- _____________ (hint: eye)
- __________________ (hint: nails)
disseminated; sinus; otomycosis; onychomycosis
Aspergillus ___________
- Yellow colonies that turn black
- Darkly pigmented spores (macroscopic)
niger
Otomycosis & Onychomycosis are diseases caused by the genus:
a. Histoplasma capsulatum
b. Cryptococcus Neoformans
c. Aspergillus
d. Blastomyces dermatitidis
c. Aspergillus
What are the 2 genera that are considered opportunistic mycoses?
a. Penicillium & Aspergillus
b. Aspergillus & Blastomyces dermatitidis
c. Penicillium & Coccidioides immitis
d. Histoplasma capsulatum
a. Penicillium & Aspergillus
What is the name of the most common m.o. caused by Aspergillus?
Aspergillus niger
________________
- Usually green to blue-green colonies
- Velvety surface
- Hyaline septate hyphae
- Brushlike conidiospores
Penicillium
Penicillium
- Usually green to ______-green colonies
- __________ surface
- __________ septate hyphae
- Brushlike _______________
blue; velvety; hyaline; conidiospores
Very beneficial; a lot of the antimicrobial drugs we get are from this.
a. Aspergillus niger
b. Blastomyces dermatitidis
c. Penicillium
d. Histoplasma capsulatum
c. Penicillium
Systemic Mycoses
Are produced mostly by __________ fungi:
- Blastomyces ______________
- Coccidioides __________
- Histoplasma __________________
These 3 fungi are very important because they are most commonly found in __________ _____________.
dimorphic; dermatitidis; immitis; capsulatum; North America
Systemic Mycoses
Are produced mostly by __________ fungi:
- ________________ dermatitidis
- _________________ immitis
- ________________ capsulatum
These 3 fungi are very important because they are most commonly found in __________ _____________.
dimorphic; Blastomyces; Coccidioides; Histoplasma; North America
Coccidioides immitis & Histoplasma capsulatum are both _____________ mycoses.
a. Systemic
b. Opportunistic
a. Systemic
Penicillium & Aspergillus are both ____________ mycoses.
a. Systemic
b. Opportunistic
b. Opportunistic
Produces chronic infection with both suppurative & granulomatous inflammation. Patients often have a history of exposure to soil or wood. Most commonly occurs in the Ohio & Mississippi River Valley regions.
a. Penicillium
b. Blastomyces dermatitidis
c. Hi
b. Blastomyces dermatitidis
Thick-walled yeast, large, spherical. Has a single bud that is connected to the parent cell. Occurs in dogs & humans.
a. Blastomyces dermatitidis
b. Histoplasma capsulatum
c. Coccidioides immitis
a. Blastomyces dermatitidis
Blastomyces dermatitidis
- Produces chronic infection with both ____________ & ______________ inflammation.
- Most commonly occurs in the _______ & _____________ River Valley regions.
- _______________ occurs in dogs & humans.
- Patients often have a hist
suppurative; granulomatous; Ohio; Mississippi; Blastomycosis; soil; wood; yeast; bud; parent
Coccidioides immitis
- Endemic in the desert ___________ of the United States (distribution matches _____ soils areas).
- Is acquired by ______________ of arthroconidia.
- Examples of exposures: ____________ at archaeological sites, ________ for fossils,
southwest; salt; inhalation; digging; hunting; construction; agent
Construction site, digging at archaeological sites, & hunting for fossils are examples of exposure. The m.o. is considered a select agent & is acquired via inhalation of arthroconidia. Endemic in the desert southwest of the U.S.
a. Penicillium
b. Blastomy
d. Coccidioides immitis
Non-budding, thick-walled spherule. Spherules containing non-budding endospores.
a. Blastomyces dermatitidis
b. Histoplasma capsulatum
c. Coccidioides immitis
c. Coccidioides immitis
Azoles inhibit lanosterol 14 alpha-demethylase; the enzyme necessary to convert lanosterol to ergosterol. Depletion of ergosterol in fungal membrane disrupts the structure & many functions of fungal membrane leading to inhibition of growth.
a. Coccidioide
a. Coccidioides immitis
Treatment has been revolutionized by azole antifungals. Serologic tests, such as double immuno-diffusion have been used to follow response to treatment.
a. Blastomyces dermatitidis
b. Coccidioides immitis
c. Penicillium
d. Aspergillus
b. Coccidioides immitis
Occurs mainly in the Midwestern & southern U.S. One of the most common systemic mycoses seen in the Midwest & South U.S., including Mississippi & Ohio river valleys. Associated with inhalation of aerosolized conidia.
a. Blastomyces dermatitidis
b. Coccidi
d. Histoplasma capsulatum
Produces chronic, granulomatous infection; usually self-limiting in immuno-competent individuals. Associated with the inhalation of aerosolized conidia involving chicken house, rooting places for birds, & bat guano.
a. Coccidioides immitis
b. Blastomyces
c. Histoplasma capulatum
Histoplasma capsulatum
Identification:
- May be detected in _____ _________ or _______ using Wright stain.
- _______________ (Extracellularly or Intracellularly?) found in cells as small, round-to-oval ________ cells.
- Easily cultured from clinical speci
bone marrow; blood; intracellularly; yeast; tuberculate
Intracellularly found in cells as small, round-to-oval yeast cells. It is one of the most common systemic mycoses. Demonstrates tuberculate macroconidia.
a. Aspergillus
b. Histoplasma capsulatum
c. Penicillium
d. None of the above
b. Histoplasma capsulatum
Includes a yeast form & a mycelial form. May be detected in bone marrow or blood using Wright stain.
a. Histoplasma capsulatum
b. Penicillium
c. Blastomyces dermatitidis
a. Histoplasma capsulatum
Pneumocystis jiroveci
General Characteristics
- An ______________, ____________ fungus.
a. systemic; typical
b. opportunistic; typical
c. systemic; atypical
d. opportunistic; atypical
d. opportunistic; atypical
Pneumocystis jiroveci
General Characteristics
- Infects individuals who are ___________________.
- Expressed as ___________ ______________ (PCP).
Lifecycle:
- Trophozoite
- __________ (sporocyte)
- _______ (diagnostic form)
immunocompromised; pneumocystis pneumonia; precyst; cyst
Pneumocystis jiroveci
Differs from other fungi:
- Cell membrane contains _______________.
- Trophozoite form is susceptible to __________ ________________.
- Has 1 to 2 copies of the ___________ ___________ gene.
cholesterol; osmotic disturbances; ribosomal subunit
Pneumocystis jiroveci
Differs from other fungi:
- ______ ___________ contains cholesterol.
- ______________ form is susceptible to osmotic disturbances.
- Has one to two copies of the ribosomal subunit ________.
Cell membrane; trophozoite; gene
Epidemiologic Factors of Pneumocystis jiroveci
- Worldwide distribution.
- Transmission is ___________; it may be person to person.
- Is the most common _____________ infection in patients with HIV or AIDS.
Infection is _________ specific.
- Pneumocystis
unknown; opportunistic; species; rodents; humans
Pneumocystis jiroveci infection is species specific. Transmission is unknown. It is the most common _____________ infection in patients with HIV/AIDS.
a. Parasitic
b. Systemic
c. Opportunistic
c. Opportunistic
Pneumocystis jiroveci Disease
- Inhaled organism adheres to _____________ where it replicates ___________ (intracellularly or extracellularly?)
- An ___________ __________ inflammatory response occurs.
pneumocytes; extracellularly; interstitial mononuclear
Pneumocystis jiroveci Disease
Symptoms include:
- __________________ cough
- Low-grade ________
- _________ (difficulty breathing)
- ______ tightness
- _____ sweats
Nonproductive; fever; dyspnea; chest; night
Symptoms of this m.o. include low grade fever, night sweats, & dyspnea. It infects individuals who are immunocompromised, so it is usually the cause of death of HIV patients.
a. Blastomyces dermatitidis
b. Coccidioides immitis
c. Pneumocystis jiroveci
d.
c. Pneumocystis jiroveci
Contains intracellular inclusions. Have flexible walls. Includes a trophozoite, precyst, & cyst in the life cycle. Has 1-2 copies of the ribosomal subunit gene.
a. Aspergillus niger
b. Pneumocystis jiroveci
c. Coccidioides immitis
b. Pneumocystis jiroveci
Diagnosing Pneumocystis jiroveci
Specimens
- Bronchoalveolar ________ fluid (BAL) or induced __________
- Biopsy material
Stains
- Calcofluor white
- _______________ silver
- __________________ staining (most common)
Other methods of Identification
- Comm
lavage; sputum; Methenamine; Immunofluorescent; monoclonal; cultivate
Morphologic Characteristics of Pneumocystis jiroveci
Trophozoites
- Are the _______________ form, but difficult to visualize
- Have ___________ walls (pleomorphic).
- Outnumber _______, 10 to 1
Cysts
- Are spherical to ________.
- Are __________ in size.
predominant; flexible; cysts; concave; uniform; bud; intracystic
Yeasts
- Eukaryotic
- ____cellular
Reproduction
- _______________ by budding
- _______________ by ascospores or basidiospores
Uni; asexually, sexually
Yeasts
Genera to Be Considered
- ___________ spp.
- Is the most common opportunistic fungal infection.
- ________________
- Is associated with avian excreta (pigeon droppings).
- Infections are acquired from aerosolization.
- Telemorphic (sexual) form is
Candida; Cryptococcus
Yeasts
Genera to Be Considered
Candida spp.
- Is the most common _____________ fungal infection.
Cryptococcus
- Is associated with ________ ___________ (pigeon droppings)
- Infections are acquired from _________________.
- Telemorphic (sexual) form is Fil
opportunistic; avian excreta; aerosolization
Disease: Candida spp.
Candida albicans
- Oroesophageal candidiasis
- Intertriginous candidiasis
- ___________ - Infection of nails
- ____________________ - Infection of nails & nail beds
- Perleche (_________ __________) infections
- Vulvovaginitis
- Thru
Paronychia; Onychomycosis; angular cheilitis, disseminated
True or false, endocarditis, pulmonary infections, eye infections, & meningitis are diseases caused by Candida albicans.
TRUE
True or false, thrush, vulvovaginitis, & perleche infections are diseases caused by Cryptococcus neoformans.
False, they are diseases caused by Candida albicans
Cryptococcus neoformans
May cause acute, subacute, or chronic infection.
- Initial presentation is a ____________ infection.
- May migrate to the __________ _________ __________, especially in individuals who are immunocompromised.
- Disseminated ________
pulmonary; central nervous system; cryptococcosis; skin; renal
What is the name of the most common disease(s) caused by Cryptococcus neoformans?
a. Thrush & vulvovaginitis
b. Endophthalmitis & brain abscesses
c. Disseminated cryptococcosis & pulmonary infection
d. None of the above
c. Disseminated cryptococcosis & pulmonary infection
Disease: __________________ neoformans
Possesses a _______________ capsule
- Protects yeast from environmental stress.
- Is NOT recognized by ________________.
4 ________ = A, B, C, & D.
Cryptococcus; polysaccharide; phagocytes; serotypes
Diagnosing Candida
Stains
- Blastoconidia or pseudohyphae
- Strongly gram ______________ (negative or positive?)
Cultivation
- Smooth, creamy ______ colonies
Identification
- _______ tubes or chlamydoconidia on cornmeal agar
positive; white; germ
Diagnosing Candida
- C. albicans-Production of both beta-galactose-aminidase & 1-proline aminopeptidase.
- Use of specific substrates.
- Fermentation of ___________________.
- ___________ Candida culture medium.
- PNA-FISH
carbohydrates; CHROMagar
Cryptococcus neoformans is highly _____________ because it has a huge ___________, so you NEVER open it in the lab! You will need to use a hood!
pathogenic; capsule
______________ _____________ is highly pathogenic because it has a huge capsule, so you NEVER open it in the lab! You will need to use a _____!
Cryptococcus neoformans; hood
Blastoconidia & Chlamydoconidia are seen in
a. Cryptococcus neoformans
b. Candida albicans
b. Candida albicans
Yeast Identification Systems
API-20___ AUX Yeast system is used for Candida, while the API-20E strip is used for Enterobacteriaceae.
C
Ch. 55 Intestinal Trematodes
Trematodes are _____worms in the shape of a ______. It requires at least 1 intermediate host, which is the ___________ ______.
Flat; leaf; freshwater snail
Ch. 55 Intestinal Trematodes
- AKA ______ platyhelminths (flat)
- Dorsoventrally ______________
- Require at least 1 _____________ host (freshwater snail)
- Most Trematodes are ___________ (mate with themselves)
- Adult worms reside in the ________ intest
flukes; flattened; intermediate; hermaphroditic; small; blood; salivary; feces; sputum
Ch. 55 Intestinal Trematodes
What is the name of the most common disease caused by intestinal trematodes?
Swimmer's itch
List the 4 stages of the life cycle of Intestinal Trematodes.
1. Snails eat the _______, which penetrate the snails' intestine.
2. Snails produce & release ___________ that can swim!!!
3. The __________ then penetrate freshwater _____ & encyst as ________
larvae; cercariae; cercariae; fish; metacercariae; fish; fish; metacercariae
Ch. 55 Intestinal Trematodes
Lifecycle of Fasciolopsis buski
1. Unembryonated eggs passed in ______
2. Embryonated eggs in _________
3. ___________ hatch, penetrate snail
4. Sporocysts, Rediae, Cercariae in the tissue of the snail.
5. Free-swimming ______
feces; water; miracidia; cercariae; metacercariae
Ch. 56 Liver & Lung Trematodes
Liver Flukes
- Adult trematodes live in the __________ _____.
- Freshwater _____ is the intermediate host.
Common Liver Flukes:
- Clonorchis sinensis (________liver fluke)
- Opisthorchis viverrini (_________ _______ liver fl
biliary ducts; snail; Chinese; Southeast Asian; sheep
Ch. 56 Liver & Lung Trematodes
Liver Flukes
- ______ trematodes live in the biliary ducts.
- Freshwater snail is the ____________ host.
Adult; intermediate
Ch. 56 Liver & Lung Trematodes
Common Liver Fluke:
______________ __________ (Chinese liver fluke)
a. Clonorchis sinensis
b. Opisthorchis viverrini
c. Fasciola
a. Clonorchis sinensis
Ch. 56 Liver & Lung Trematodes
Common Liver Fluke:
______________ __________ (Southeast Asian liver fluke)
a. Clonorchis sinensis
b. Opisthorchis viverrini
c. Fasciola
b. Opisthorchis viverrini
Ch. 56 Liver & Lung Trematodes
Common Liver Fluke:
____________ (sheep liver fluke)
a. Clonorchis sinensis
b. Opisthorchis viverrini
c. Fasciola
c. Fasciola
Ch. 56 Liver & Lung Trematodes
Epidemiologic Factors
- Dogs
- Pigs
- ___________
- Infected feces contaminates _________.
- Eggs enter the _____ & develop into cercariae.
Rabbits; water; snail
Ch. 56 Liver & Lung Trematodes
Epidemiologic Factors
- ____
- Pigs
- ___________
- Infected _____ contaminates water.
- Eggs enter the snail & develop into _________.
Dogs; rabbits; feces; cercariae
Ch. 56 Liver & Lung Trematodes
Lifecyle
1. ________ emerge from snail (water)
2. Produces the ___________ encyst on ______________ (Fasciola), fish (Clonorchis, Opisthorchis), crabs or crayfish (Paragonimus)
3. ____________ (encysted, ingested by ________
Cercariae; metacercariae; vegetation; metacercariae; humans; adult; feces; water; miracidium
Ch. 56 Liver & Lung Trematodes
Short, concise lifecyle
Snail => _____ living => _______ => _______ => repeat
free; human; feces
Ch. 56 Liver & Lung Trematodes
Fasciola hepatica
Disease: __________________
- It is a parasitic infection typically caused by Fasciola hepatica, also known as, "the common liver fluke" or "the sheep liver fluke"
- A related parasite, Fasciola ___________
Fascioliasis; gigantica; 5; sheep; cattle; watercress; larvae
Ch. 56 Liver & Lung Trematodes
Fasciola hepatica
Disease: __________________
- It is a __________ infection typically caused by Fasciola hepatica, also known as, "the common _____ fluke" or "the _______ liver fluke"
- A related parasite, Fasciola gigantic
Fascioliasis; parasitic; liver; sheep; humans; 50; plants; encysted larvae
Ch. 56 Liver & Lung Trematodes
Fasciola hepatica
Disease: __________________
- Larvae migrate through the ___________ wall, the _________ cavity, & the ______ tissue, into the ______ ducts, where they develop into mature adult ________, which produce eggs
Fascioliasis; intestinal; abdominal; liver; bile; flukes; bile; bile; liver
Ch. 56 Liver & Lung Trematodes
Fasciola hepatica
Disease: Fasioliasis
- ________ migrate through the intestinal wall, the abdominal cavity, & the liver tissue, into the _____ ______, where they develop into mature adult flukes, which produce _____.
- Adul
Larvae; bile ducts; eggs; bile ducts; bile ducts
Ch. 56 Liver & Lung Trematodes
Fasciola hepatica eggs are broadly ellipsoidal, ____________ (lid), & measure 130-150 ?m by 60-90 ?m.
operculated
General Characteristics of a Virus
- Submicroscopic
- Obligate _____________ (extracellular or intracellular?) parasites.
- Replaces in a __________ ______ cell.
- Capable of infecting animals, _________, & __________.
- Display tropism (very specific to
intracellular; living host; plants; bacteria; specific; hosts
Viral Structure
A. _________ consist of: Genome
- DNA or RNA
- Single or double stranded
B. ________ protein cover protects genome: is composed of capsomeres.
C. _________ envelope (may or may not be present).
Envelopes are responsible for _______ into a
Virions; capsid; lipid; entry
Antigenic determinants in viruses are called?
________ or ______________.
Spikes; peplomers
True or false, viruses are NOT cells.
a. False
b. True
b. True
Viral Taxonomy
Classification is based on ______ basic properties.
1. Viral _____________ characteristics
2. Type of _________ (RNA versus DNA)
3. Presence or absence of an ____________
three; morphological; genome; envelope
Which viral structure is made out of the host cell membrane (phospholipids)?
a. Naked viral structures
b. Envelope viral structures
b. Envelope viral structures
Which viral structure does not have a layer, but is very tough & difficult to get rid of?
a. Envelope viral structures
b. Naked viral structures
b. Naked viral structures
Virus classification
Double-stranded DNA viruses, such as Poxviruses, Herpesviruses, & Hepadnaviruses are considered to be _____________ (naked/enveloped?) viruses.
a. Enveloped viruses
b. Naked viruses
enveloped
Virus classification
Double-stranded DNA viruses, such as Adenoviruses, Papillomaviruses, Polyomaviruses are considered to be ________ (naked/enveloped?) viruses.
naked
Virus classification
Naked parvoviruses are __________(single/double?)-stranded DNA viruses.
single
Virus classification
Enveloped viruses, such as Coronaviruses, Flaviviruses, & Togaviruses are ________ viruses?
a. DNA
b. RNA+
c. RNA-
d. (-/+) RNA
b. RNA+
Virus classification
____________ are enveloped RNA+ via DNA virus
a. Reoviruses
b. Rhabdoviruses
c. Retroviruses
d. None of the above
c. Retroviruses
Virus classification
Picomaviruses are ____________ viruses under RNA+.
a. Naked
b. Enveloped
a. Naked
Virus classification
(+) RNA via DNA
The genome is RNA, but in their suitcase, they bring enzymes to convert RNA to DNA. Transcription happens in reverse, so the enzyme is called ____________ ____________.
reverse transcriptase
Virus classification
According to Hepadnaviruses, the viruses have tropism for the _________ that have DNA!
liver
Infectious Cycle
Infection Steps:
1. _____________ of viral proteins to host cell receptor
2. _____________ of virus into host cell
a. Fusion
b. Phagocytosis
c. Injection of viral nucleic acid
3. ___________ - capsid removed to release genome
4. _________
Attachment; penetration; uncoating; macromolecular; viral; release
What is the mnemonic device used for the infectious cycle steps??
A=
P=
U=
M=
V=
R=
Art Pleases Unicorns & Manipulative Vegetarians in Riverside
Infectious Cycle
Which infection step includes lysis & budding?
a. Viral assembly of structural proteins, genomes, & enzymes
b. Uncoating (capsid removed to release genome)
c. Release of intact virus particles
d. Penetration of virus into host cell
c. Release of intact virus particles
Infectious Cycle
Which infection step includes injection of viral nucleic acid, phagocytosis, & fusion?
a. Penetration of virus into host cell
b. Macromolecular synthesis
c. Release of intact virus particles
d. Uncoating (capsid removed to release genome)
a. Penetration of virus into host cell
Infectious Cycle
Which infection step has to do with viral transcription?
a. Attachment of viral proteins to host cell
b. Macromolecular synthesis
c. Viral assembly
d. Uncoating
b. Macromolecular synthesis
Infectious Cycle
Which infection step removes the capsid in order to release the genome?
a. Release
b. Attachment
c. Penetration
d. Uncoating
d. Uncoating
Infectious Cycle
Macromolecular synthesis (viral transcription) is the _____ infection step.
a. 4th
b. 6th
c. 3rd
d. None of the above
a. 4th
Infectious Cycle
Uncoating (capsid removed to release genome) is the _____ infection step.
a. 4th
b. 3rd
c. 6th
d. 5th
b. 3rd
Infectious Cycle
Viral assembly of structural proteins, genomes, & enzymes is the ____ infection step.
a. 2nd
b. 6th
c. 5th
d. 4th
c. 5th
Animal Viruses Infectious Cycle
The naked viral structure is different from the envelope viral structure because it:
a. releases via budding
b. releases via lysis
b. releases via lysis
Animal Viruses Infectious Cycle
The enveloped viral structure is different from the naked viral structure because it:
a. releases via budding
b. releases via lysis
a. releases via budding
Viral Pathogenesis
Viruses may produce ________ clinical presentations:
1. ______ viral infection
2. _______ infection: Virus remains with no visible signs or symptoms
3. _______ or __________ infection
three; acute; latent; chronic; persistent
Viral Pathogenesis
Virus remains with no visible signs or symptoms
a. Chronic or persistent infection
b. Acute viral infection
c. Latent infection
c. Latent infection
Viral Pathogenesis
After infection:
-_________ occurs (viruses in blood).
- Viruses ____________ to other tissues.
- ________________ diseases occur (S/S begin).
- _________ & ____-mediated immunity prevent replication
- Tissue may become_____________ as
Viremia; disseminate; symptomatic; antibody; cell; damaged; lysis
Viral Pathogenesis
After infection:
- Viremia occurs (viruses in ______).
- Viruses disseminate to other ________.
- Symptomatic __________ occur (S/S begin).
- Antibody & cell-mediated ___________ prevent ____________.
- _________ may become damaged as a
blood; tissues; diseases; immunity; replication; tissues; lysis
Clinical Viral Services
Demand for clinical viral services has grown as a result of:
- Introduction of virus-specific ________
- Commercial availability of __________
- Development of rapid ____________ tests
- Availability of ____ ______ for cell culture
drugs; reagents; diagnostic; cell lines; genomes; medial; pathogens
Specimen Collection of Viruses
- ________ or nasopharyngeal swab
a. Enteroviruses, adenoviruses, HSV
b. RSV (Respiratory Syncytial), influenza, & parainfluenza virus
- ________
CMV, mumps, rubella, measles, polyomaviruses, adenoviruses
- ___________
Enter
Throat; urine; lesion; blood; stool
Viral Testing
- _________________ - cell culture (monkey kidney cells) & PCR
- _______ - cell culture (MRC-5 cells along with continuous cell lines, such as A-549)
- Influenzas A & B - Cell culture, shell vial culture, enzyme immunoassay (EIA), direct sta
Enteroviruses; HSV; Norovirus; Respiratory Syncytial
Tzanck Test
- Uses a stained smear of cells from the base of a _______ ___________.
- Is used to detect the following viruses:
- _____ (Varicella Zoster)
- _____ (Herpes Simplex)
- Stains
- Giemsa
- Papanicolaou (PAP)
- FA (Fluorescent Abs)
skin vesicle; VZV; HSV
Hemadsorption
Is a procedure that detects infected cells by _____________ of guinea pig _______ ______ ______ to the ________ __________ of the suspected cell.
adsorption; red blood cells; outer membrane
Hemadsorption
Is a procedure that detects ______________ cells by adsorption of guinea pig RBCs to the outer membrane of the suspected cell.
- _____________: No hemadsorption or hemagglutination
- ___________: Hemadsorption &/or hemagglutination of guinea
infected; negative; positive
Hemadsorption
Detects or confirms the _________ of:
___________________ (influenzas A, B, & C)
_________________ (parainfluenza 1 through 4 & mumps
presence; Orthomyxoviruses; Paramyxoviruses
Detects or confirms the presence of influenzas A, B, & C (Orthomyxoviruses) & parainfluenza 1-4 & mumps (Paramyxoviruses)
a. Tzanck Test
b. Hemadsorption
c. Influenza pandemics
d. Viral inclusions
b. Hemadsorption
Hemadsorption
Hemadsorption &/or hemagglutination of guinea pig erythrocytes
a. Negative
b. Positive
b. Positive
Hemadsorption
No hemadsorption or hemagglutination
a. Positive
b. Negative
b. Negative
Giemsa, Papanicolaou (PAP) & Fluorescent antibodies (FA) are stains for:
a. Hemadsorption
b. Virus classification
c. Tzanck Test
d. Human respiratory viruses
c. Tzanck Test
What are the 2 viruses detected using the Tzanck Test??
a. Herpes Simplex
b. Cytomegalovirus
c. Varicella Zoster
d. a & c are correct
d. a & c are correct
Conventional Culture Terms
__________
- Single confluent layer of cells
__________ cells
- Cell lines that have been passed once or twice
___________________ (diploid) cells
- Lines that remain virus-sensitive through 20-50 passages.
__________________ ce
Monolayer; primary; semicontinuous; continuous
Conventional Culture Terms
Lines that remain virus-sensitive through 20-50 passages.
a. Continuous cells
b. Primary cells
c. Monolayer
d. Semicontinuous cells
d. Semicontinuous cells
Conventional Culture Terms
Indefinite sensitivity to viral infections.
a. Semicontinuous cells
b. Continuous cells
b. Continuous cells
Conventional Culture Terms
Single confluent layer of cells.
a. Primary cells
b. Monolayer
c. Continuous cells
d. Semicontinuous cells
b. Monolayer
Conventional Culture Terms
Diploid
cells (lines that remain virus-sensitive through 20-50 passages).
a. Semicontinuous cells
b. Continuous cells
c. Primary cells
d. Monolayer
a. Semicontinuous cells
Conventional Culture terms
Cells that have been passed once or twice.
a. Primary cells
b. Monolayer
c. Continuous cells
d. None of the above
a. Primary cells
Cell Culture
Media
- Growth medium is _______-______ to support rapid cell _________.
- Maintenance medium contains less _________ to keep cells in a steady state of ________________.
- Cells are incubated in a roller drum at 35�C to 37�C for 1-4 weeks
-
serum-rich; growth; serum; metabolism; cytopathic effect
What is the purpose of an incubator drum?
a. To test out a motor
b. To play music while testing for viruses
c. Ensures a layer of cells constantly get bathed with nutrients so that they do not die
d. Ensures the cells do not dry out
c. Ensures a layer of cells constantly get bathed with nutrients so that they do not die
Looking at the quantitation of cell cultures & grading it has to do with:
a. Shell vial culture
b. Cytopathic effects
c. Tzanck test
b. Cytopathic effects
Common Tissue Types
Common cell lines used in clinical labs include:
- __________ - Primary monkey kidney (PMK) cells
- MRC-5 _______ fibroblasts
- HEp-2
- A-549
- Human _________ fibroblasts (HDF)
Rhesus; lung; dermal
Common Tissue Types
Viruses grow best on specific cell lines:
- ___________ A - High recovery with PMK; rare with HDF
- _____ - Good recovery with HDF
- _____ - High recovery with HDF & HEp-2
- CMV (_______________) - High recovery with HDF
Influenza; VZV; HSV; Cytomegalovirus
Common Tissue Types
Viruses grow best on specific cell lines:
Which virus grows with
high recovery with PMK; rare with HDF
?
a. CMV (Cytomegalovirus)
b. VZV
c. HSV
d. Influenza A
d. Influenza A
Common Tissue Types
Viruses grow best on specific cell lines:
Which virus grows with
good recovery with HDF
?
a. CMV (Cytomegalovirus)
b. VZV
c. HSV
d. Influenza A
b. VZV
Common Tissue Types
Viruses grow best on specific cell lines:
Which virus grows with
high recovery with HDF
?
a. CMV (Cytomegalovirus)
b. VZV
c. HSV
d. Influenza A
a. CMV (Cytomegalovirus)
Common Tissue Types
Viruses grow best on specific cell lines:
Which virus grows with
high recovery with HDF AND HEp-2
?
a. CMV (Cytomegalovirus)
b. VZV
c. HSV
d. Influenza A
c. HSV
Common Tissue Types
Viruses grow best on specific cell lines:
High recovery with HDF AND HEp-2: _____
High recovery with HDF: _____
a. HSV; CMV
b. CMV; HSV
c. HSV; VZV
d. VZV; HSV
a. HSV; CMV
Shell Vial Culture
- Detects viruses ________ (1 to 2 days).
- Contains a cover slip that can be ___________.
- _____ viruses grow in shell vials.
early; stained; most
What is true about shell vial cultures?
a. Has a cover slip that can be stained
b. Detects viruses early (1-2 days)
c. Some viruses grow in shell vials
d. a & b are correct
d. a & b are correct
Viral Syndromes & Pathogens
Upper respiratory & croup/bronchiolitis viral syndromes & pathogens are associated with:
a. Adults
b. Infants & children
b. Infants & children
Viral Syndromes & Pathogens
Pneumonia & gastroenteritis viral syndromes & pathogens are associated with:
a. Adults
b. Infants & children
a. Adults
Viral Syndromes & Pathogens
True or false, noroviruses, sin nombre (hantavirus), & severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) are viral syndromes & pathogens that happen in infants & children too.
a. True
b. False, these viral syndromes & pathogens happen i
b. False, these viral syndromes & pathogens happen in adults.
Viral Syndromes & Pathogens
True or false, adenovirus, influenza, & coronavirus are viral syndromes & pathogens that happen in infants, children, & adults.
a. True
b. False, only in infants & children
c. False, only in adults
a. True
Viral Syndromes & Pathogens
Epstein-Barr syndrome & CMV belong in which category:
a. Parotitis
b. Infectious mononucleosis
c. Meningitis
b. Infectious mononucleosis
Viral Syndromes & Pathogens
Mumps is considered to belong in which 2 categories:
a. Parotitis & Meningitis
b. Meningitis & Infectious mononucleosis
c. Infectious mononucleosis & Parotitis
a. Parotitis & Meningitis
Viral Syndromes & Pathogens
Coxsackie, lymphocytic choriomeningitis, & echoviruses belong in which category:
a. Parotitis
b. Infectious mononucleosis
c. Meningitis
c. Meningitis
Viral Syndromes & Pathogens
Which 2 viral syndromes & pathogens belong in the category
parotitis
?
a. Coxsackie & echoviruses
b. CMV & Epstein-Barr syndrome
c. HSV-2 & lymphocytic choriomeningitis
d. Parainfluenza & mumps
d. Parainfluenza & mumps
Viral Syndromes & Pathogens
Which 2 viral syndromes & pathogens belong in the category
infectious mononucleosis
?
a. Parainfluenza & mumps
b. HSV-2 & coxsackie
c. Epstein-Barr syndrome & CMV
d. Echoviruses & lymphocytic choriomeningitis
c. Epstein-Barr syndrome & CMV
The Varicella-Zoster Virus includes 2 infections:
1. ___________ (varicella)
2. _________ (zoster)
chickenpox; shingles
True or false, shingles is the varicella portion & chickenpox is the zoster portion of the varicella zoster virus?
a. False, shingles is the zoster & chickenpox is the varicella
b. True
a. False, shingles is the zoster & chickenpox is the varicella
Varicella-Zoster Virus
- Patient initially exhibits with ___________.
- Virus establishes _________ in a dorsal nerve root ganglion
- During immune suppression, the virus reactivates to cause _______.
varicella; latency; zoster
Virus families (in animals)
What is the scientific classification applied in taxonomy for virus families?
Family, genus, species, strains
True or false, kingdom & phylum are included in the classification applied in taxonomy for virus families?
a. False, it is only family, genus, species, & strains
b. True
a. False, it is only family, genus, species, & strains
Virus families (in animals) can be found in ____ & ____.
DNA; RNA
Virus families (in animals)
Poxviridae, papillomaviridae, herpesviridae, hepadnaviridae, & adenoviridae are virus families that can be found in:
a. DNA
b. RNA
a. DNA
Virus families (in animals)
Arenaviridae, coronaviridae, orthomyxoviridae, paramyxoviridae, & togaviridae are virus families that can be found in:
a. DNA
b. RNA
b. RNA
Adenoviruses
- 52 __________ have been described.
- Viral types are divided into ________ species - A through G
Adenoviruses cause:
- Respiratory & __________________ diseases
- Severe & acute respiratory disease in new ___________ recruits
- Vaccines wer
serotypes; seven; gastrointestinal; military; serotypes; replacement; 14
Human Respiratory Viruses
This virus is associated with
severe & acute respiratory disease
in new military recruits & associated with
gastrointestinal diseases
. The DNA version causes colds, tonsillitis, pharyngitis, & croup. They are acquired through co
a. Adenovirus
Human Respiratory Viruses
Coronaviruses, orthomyxoviruses, paramyxoviruses, & picornaviruses (rhinovirus) are human respiratory viruses that belong in:
a. RNA
b. DNA
a. RNA
Human Respiratory Viruses
Adenovirus is a virus that can be found in:
a. RNA
b. DNA
b. DNA
Human Respiratory Viruses
This virus is
transmitted person to person
&
causes colds & occasionally pneumonia
!
a. Adenovirus
b. Orthomyxovirus
c. Coronavirus
d. Picornavirus
c. Coronavirus
Human Respiratory Viruses
This virus
causes influenza
.
a. Adenovirus
b. Orthomyxovirus
c. Coronavirus
d. Paramyxovirus
b. Orthomyxovirus
Adenoviruses, coronaviruses, & orthomyxoviruses, paramyxoviruses, & picornaviruses are all associated with human _____________ viruses.
respiratory
Human Respiratory
Viruses
(answer plurally)
_________________ - DNA
- Acquired via contaminated respiratory secretions, stool, & fomites.
- Causes croup, pharyngitis, tonsillitis, colds.
_________________ - RNA
- Causes colds & pneumonia (occasionally)
-
Adenoviruses; coronaviruses; orthomyxoviruses; paramyxoviruses; picornaviruses
Human Respiratory Viruses
DNA or RNA?
Picornaviruses: ______
Paramyxoviruses: _____
Adenoviruses: _____
Orthomyxoviruses: _____
Coronaviruses: ____
RNA; RNA; DNA; RNA; RNA
Which human respiratory virus is transmitted person to person?
a. Paramyxovirus
b. Coronavirus
c. Picornavirus
b. Coronavirus
Human Respiratory Viruses
Acquired through contact with contaminated respiratory secretions, stool, & fomites: ____________________ (DNA).
Parainfluenza is acquired through the inoculation of mucous membranes with secretions from fomites or aerosolized dr
Adenovirus; paramyxovirus
Human Respiratory Viruses
This virus
causes just the common cold
.
a. Adenovirus
b. Orthomyxovirus
c. Paramyxovirus
d. Picornavirus
d. Picornavirus
Human Respiratory Viruses
This virus causes parainfluenza that is acquired via inoculation of mucous membranes with secretions from fomites or aerosolized droplets.
a. Paramyxovirus
b. Coronavirus
c. Picornavirus
d. Orthomyxovirus
a. Paramyxovirus
Influenza Viruses - Orthomyxoviridae (RNA)
The most pathogenic influenza type is: Type ____
A
Influenza Viruses - Orthomyxoviridae (RNA)
Which influenza type causes subclinical infections?
a. Influenza C
b. Influenza B
c. Influenza A
a. Influenza C
Influenza Viruses - Orthomyxoviridae (RNA)
Which influenza type is subdivided on the basis of hemagglutinin (HA) & neuraminidase (NA)?
a. Influenza C
b. Influenza B
c. Influenza A
c. Influenza A
Influenza Viruses - Orthomyxoviridae (RNA)
The 3 types of influenza are ___, ___, & ___.
- Are distinguished on the basis of _________ protein & _______________.
- Influenza ___ causes subclinical infections.
A; B; C; matrix; nucleoprotein; C
Influenza Viruses - Orthomyxoviridae (RNA)
- Influenza ___ is subdivided on the basis of ________________ (HA) & ________________ (NA).
- Only H1, H2, H3, & N1 or N2 __________ in humans.
- Current strains are H1N1, _______ (highly pathogenic), & ______.
A; hemagglutinin; neuraminidase; circulate; H3N2; H1N2
Influenza Viruses - Orthomyxoviridae (RNA)
Which influenza virus strain is highly pathogenic?
a. H1N2
b. H3N2
c. H1N1
b. H3N2
Influenza Viruses - _________________ (RNA) (Hint: answer is a family term ending in viridae)
Orthomyxoviridae
Influenza Viruses (BOC)
Viral genome:
- An antigenic _______ occurs when the genome gradually changes.
- An antigenic _______ occurs when influenza A acquires a new HA or NA gene.
Continual change in the viral genome makes the formulation of a vaccine ___
drift; shift; challenging
Influenza Viruses (BOC)
Occurs when influenza A acquires a new HA or NA gene.
a. Antigenic drift
b. Antigenic shift
b. Antigenic shift
Influenza Viruses (BOC)
Occurs when the genome gradually changes.
a. Antigenic drift
b. Antigenic shift
a. Antigenic drift
Influenza Viruses (BOC)
What makes the formulation of a vaccine challenging?
a. Expensive
b. Continual change in the viral genome
c. No change in the viral genome
d. Complicated research
b. Continual change in the viral genome
Influenza Pandemics
- __________ & _________ viruses can replicate in swine.
- The __________ __________ is often unable to protect against new viruses that have undergone reassortment.
- A _____________ occurs when a global outbreak of illness causes ser
Avian; human; immune system; pandemic
Influenza Pandemics
- Avian & human viruses can replicate in ________.
- The immune system is often unable to __________ against new viruses that have undergone ___________.
swine; protect; reassortment
Influenza Pandemics
A pandemic occurs when a ________ outbreak of illness causes serious illness against which ________ __________ exists.
global; little immunity
Influenza Pandemics
- Historic influenza ___________ include:
- _________ flu of 1918 (H1N1) - 20-50 million deaths
- ________, 2009 (H1N1) - 18,449 deaths
- Avian "bird flu" (_______) - 309 deaths
pandemics; Spanish; Mexico; H5N1
Influenza Pandemics
Avian "bird flu" strain:
a. H1N1
b. H5N1
c. H3N2
d. H1N2
b. H5N1
Influenza Pandemics
Spanish flu of 1918 & Mexico, 2009 strain:
a. H1N1
b. H5N1
c. H3N2
d. H1N2
a. H1N1
Influenza Pandemics
H5N1 is the _______ "______ ____"
H1N1 is for both ________ (2009) & ________ flu (1918)
Avian "bird flu"; Mexico; Spanish
Rhinovirus, Picornaviridae (RNA)
- Causes the "________ _______"
- Transmission:
- _____-inoculation through the eyes or nose
- Direct contact of _________
common cold; self; aerosols
Rhinovirus, Picornaviridae (RNA)
- Symptoms are water nasal ________, headache, malaise, sneezing, nasal ___________, sore throat, & ________.
- Has over _____ serotypes
- Testing:
- Is not often required.
- Virus grows in MRC-5 cell lines at a __________
discharge; congestion; cough; 100; reduced; cytopathic
Rhinovirus has to do with which body part:
a. Ears
b. Heart
c. Nose
d. GI tract
c. Nose
Rhinovirus genera belongs in the family:
a. Arboviruses
b. Adenoviridae
c. Paramyxoviridae
d. Picornaviridae
d. Picornaviridae
Rhinovirus, Picornaviridae (RNA)
Is transmitted via:
a. Animals
b. Arthropods
c. Direct contact of aerosols
d. Self-inoculation through the eyes or nose
e. c & d are correct
e. c & d are correct
Arboviruses
Is transmitted via:
a. Animals
b. Arthropods
c. Direct contact of aerosols
d. Self-inoculation through the eyes or nose
e. c & d are correct
b. Arthropods
Arboviruses
� Transmitted by ______________.
� Occur in several taxonomic families:
- _______________ RNA
� California encephalitis group (La Crosse virus)
� Transmitted by mosquitoes, ticks, & sandflies
- ___________ RNA
� Yellow fever, dengue fever, Wes
arthropods; Bunyaviruses; Flaviviruses, Alphaviruses
Arboviruses
This taxonomic family is associated with yellow fever, dengue fever, West Nile Virus, Japanese encephalitis, & St. Louis encephalitis virus (transmission: mosquitoes)
a. Bunyaviruses RNA
b. Alphaviruses (Togaviridae family) RNA
c. Flaviviruses
c. Flaviviruses RNA
Arboviruses
Transmission is via sandflies, ticks, & mosquitoes of this taxonomic family:
a. Flaviviruses RNA
b. Bunyaviruses RNA
c. Alphaviruses (Togaviridae family) RNA
b. Bunyaviruses RNA
Arboviruses
Which 2 taxonomic families are only transmitted by mosquitoes?
a. Bunyaviruses & Alphaviruses
b. Alphaviruses & Flaviviruses
c. Bunyaviruses & Flaviviruses
b. Alphaviruses & Flaviviruses
Arboviruses
This taxonomic family is associated with California encephalitis group (La Crosse virus). Transmission is via sandflies, ticks, & mosquitoes.
a. Bunyaviruses RNA
b. Alphaviruses (Togaviridae family) RNA
c. Flaviviruses RNA
a. Bunyaviruses RNA
Arboviruses
This taxonomic family is associated with Eastern, Western, & Venezuelan equine encephalitis (transmission: mosquitoes).
a. Bunyaviruses RNA
b. Alphaviruses (Togaviridae family) RNA
c. Flaviviruses RNA
b. Alphaviruses (Togaviridae family) RNA
Arboviruses
Alphavirus genera belongs in the family:
a. Arboviruses
b. Adenoviridae
c. Togaviridae
d. Picornaviridae
c. Togaviridae
Bunyaviruses RNA, Flaviviruses RNA, & Alphaviruses (Togaviridae family) RNA are:
a. Rhinoviruses
b. Enteroviruses
c. Arboviruses
c. Arboviruses
Arboviruses
Bunyavirus RNA taxonomic family is associated with:
a. Japanese encephalitis
b. St. Louis encephalitis
c. West Nile viral encephalitis
d. California encephalitis group (La Crosse virus)
d. California encephalitis group (La Crosse virus)
Arboviruses
Alphavirus RNA taxonomic family is associated with:
a. Japanese encephalitis
b. California encephalitis group (La Crosse virus)
c. West Nile viral encephalitis
d. Venezuelan equine encephalitis
d. Venezuelan equine encephalitis
Arboviruses
Yellow fever & dengue fever is associated with which taxonomic family:
a. Alphaviruses RNA
b. Flaviviruses RNA
c. Bunyaviruses RNA
b. Flaviviruses RNA
Arboviruses
Flaviviruses RNA taxonomic family is associated with:
a. Yellow fever, dengue fever, & West Nile Virus
b. California encephalitis group (La Crosse virus)
c. Venezuelan equine encephalitis
a. Yellow fever, dengue fever, & West Nile Virus
Viral Encephalitis
Which viral encephalitis is measles?
a. Equine encephalitis
b. HIV
c. HSV-1
d. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
d. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
Viral Encephalitis
Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis is associated with:
a. Flavivirus
b. Alphavirus
c. Measles
d. Other viruses that cause encephalitis
c. Measles
Viral Encephalitis
HIV, rabies, & enteroviruses are associated with:
a. Flavivirus
b. Alphavirus
c. Measles
d. Other viruses that cause encephalitis
d. Other viruses that cause encephalitis
Viral Encephalitis
Which viral encephalitis is a alphavirus?
a. HIV
b. Equine encephalitis
c. Japanese encephalitis
d. West Nile viral encephalitis
b. Equine encephalitis
Viral Encephalitis
� Arboviruses
- St. Louis & _____ ______ viral encephalitis (flavivirus)
- La Crosse virus (bunyavirus)
� Herpes simplex virus-type ___ encephalitis
� Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (__________)
� Equine encephalitis (alphavirus)
�
West Nile; 1; measles; rabies
Viral Encephalitis
Which viral encephalitis is a bunyavirus?
a. La Crosse virus
b. John Cunningham (JC) virus
c. St. Louis encephalitis
d. West Nile viral encephalitis
a. La Crosse virus
Viral Encephalitis
� Arboviruses
- St. Louis & West Night viral encephalitis (___________)
- La Crosse virus (___________)
� Herpes simplex virus-type 1 (____-1) encephalitis
� Subacute encephalitis (___________)
flavivirus; bunyavirus; HSV; alphavirus
Viral Encephalitis
Other viruses that cause encephalitis:
- Rabies
- ____________
- Human ________________ virus (HIV)
- John Cunningham (JC) virus
Enteroviruses, immunodeficiency
Rabies, HIV, enteroviruses, & John Cunningham virus are associated with: Viral _____________.
encephalitis
Sexually Transmitted Viruses
� Hepatitis B
� Hepatitis C
� Herpes _______Viruses Type 1 & 2 (HSV)
� Human __________ Virus (HPV)
� Human ________________ Virus (HIV)
� Human __-______________ virus (HTLV)
Simplex; papilloma; immunodeficiency; T-lymphotropic
True or false, human T-lymphotropic (HTLV), human papilloma virus (HPV), Hep B & C, & HSV-1 & 2 are all sexually transmitted viruses.
TRUE
Hepatitis B Virus belongs in the ______________ family. The site of latency is the __________.
Hepadnaviridae; liver
The hepadnaviridae family causes the _____________ ____ virus & the site of latency is the ______.
Hepatitis B; liver
The Flaviviridae family causes the ____________ ____ virus.
Hepatitis C
Hepatitis C Virus belongs in the ___________ family.
a. Hepadnaviridae
c. Flaviviridae
c. Flaviviridae
Hepatitis C, Flaviviridae
� Transmitted ____________ & sexually.
� Diseases
- Acute & chronic hepatitis
- ______________ ___________
� Diagnosis
- __________ testing
- Real-time polymerase chain reaction (RT-PCR)
- Viral genotyping
� Treatment - _________
parenterally; hepatocellular carcinoma; serologic; Olysio; Sovaldi
Olysio (simeprevir) & Sovaldi (sofosbuvir) are treatments for:
a. Hepatitis C
b. Hepatitis B
a. Hepatitis C
What is the name of the most common disease (liver cancer) caused by Hepatitis C (other than acute & chronic hepatitis)?
Hepatocellular carcinoma
Papillomaviruses
� Include HPVs. DNA
- Have more than ______ genotypes
- Have more than ____ sexually transmitted genotypes.
� Exhibit _______ for cutaneous or mucosal tissue.
- HPV-1 is associated with ________ warts.
- HPV-6, HPV-11, & other types are a
200; 30; tropism; plantar; genital; cervical
Papillomaviruses
� Exhibit tropism for cutaneous or mucosal tissue.
- HPV-1 is associated with ________ warts.
- HPV-___, HPV-___, & other types are associated with genital warts.
- HPV-16 & HPV-18 cause ____% of cervical cancers.
plantar; 6; 11; 60
Papillomaviruses
- HPV-16 & HPV-18 cause 60% of:
a. Skin cancers
b. Hepatitis
c. Cervical cancers
c. Cervical cancers
Papillomaviruses
- HPV-___ & HPV-___ cause 60% of cervical cancers.
16; 18
Papillomaviruses
� Exhibit tropism for __________ or _________ tissue.
cutaneous; mucosal
Papillomaviruses
HPV-16 & HPV-18 cause ____% of cervical cancers.
a. 50%
b. 10%
c. 80%
d. 60%
d. 60%
Papillomaviruses
Which HPV strain is associated with plantar warts??
a. HPV-6
b. HPV-11
c. The above answers are correct (a & b)
d. HPV-1
d. HPV-1
Papillomaviruses
Which HPV strain is associated with genital warts??
a. HPV-6
b. HPV-11
c. The above answers are correct (a & b)
d. HPV-1
c. The above answers are correct (a & b)
Retroviruses
� Are single-stranded _____ (RNA/DNA?)
� Contain reverse _____________ (RT), which converts ______ to DNA.
� HIV-type 1 or 2:
- Infects cluster of ____________ (CD4) T lymphocytes, monocytes, & cells of the central nervous system (CNS).
- Cau
RNA; transcriptase; RNA; differentiation; leukemia
Retroviruses
This virus is associated with infecting CD4 T lymphocytes, monocytes, & cells of the CNS.
a. HTLVs
b. HIV-type 1 or 2
c. HPVs
d. HSVs
b. HIV-type 1 or 2
Retroviruses
This virus is associated with T-cell leukemia, lymphoma, & tropical spastic paraparesis.
a. HIV-type 1 or 2
b. HTLVs
c. HPVs
b. HTLVs
Retroviruses
This virus is associated with malignancies, AIDS, & acute influenza-like diseases.
a. HIV-type 1 or 2
b. HTLVs
c. HPVs
a. HIV-type 1 or 2
HIV-type 1 or 2 & HTLVs are:
a. Arboviruses
b. Papillomaviruses
c. Retroviruses
c. Retroviruses
What is the name of the most common virus known to cause T-cell leukemia, lymphoma, & tropical spastic paraparesis? (Answer with full name of virus)
Human T-lymphotropic virus (HTLV)
Exanthema
� A skin or rash ________.
� Most common types in children include:
- Measles
- Scarlet fever (Group ____ Streptococcus)
- Rubella (__________ measles)
- Erythema infectiosum (5th disease caused by __________ B19)
- Roseola viral infection (HSV-
eruption; A; German; parvovirus
Exanthema
Roseola viral infection is caused by ____-___.
a. HSV-1
b. HSV-2
c. HSV-6
d. HSV-3
c. HSV-6
Exanthema
What is the 5th disease caused by parvovirus B19?
a. Rubella
b. Scarlet fever
c. Roseola
d. Erythema infectiosum
d. Erythema infectiosum
Exanthema
Rubella causes the infection ___________ __________.
German measles
Exanthema
Group A Streptococcus causes the disease _________ ________.
Scarlet Fever
____________ is a skin or rash eruption.
Exanthema
Herpesviridae
� _____ human herpes viruses (DNA):
- HSV-1 & HSV-2
- Varicella-zoster virus (VZV)
- Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
- Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
- Human herpesvirus (HHV)
� HSVs are transmitted through infected __________ (via sexual contact).
� _____
Eight; secretions; VZV; EBV; CMV; respiratory infection; Kaposi sarcoma
Herpesviridae
Which human herpes virus is associated with congenital disease of the newborn?
a. CMV
b. EBV
c. HHV
d. VZV
a. CMV
Herpesviridae
Which human herpes virus is associated with infectious mononucleosis?
a. CMV
b. EBV
c. HHV
d. VZV
b. EBV
Herpesviridae
____ are transmitted through infected secretions (sexual contact)
a. VZVs
b. HSVs
c. CMVs
d. HHVs
b. HSVs
Herpesviridae
Which human herpes virus is associated with chickenpox & shingles?
a. CMV
b. EBV
c. HHV
d. VZV
d. VZV
Herpesviridae
Kaposi sarcoma is caused by which human herpesvirus (HHV) strain:
a. HHV-6
b. HHV-8
c. HHV-7
d. None of the above
b. HHV-8
Herpesviridae
Which 2 human herpesvirus (HHV) strains cause respiratory infection?
a. HHV-8 & HHV-7
b. HHV-6 & HHV-8
c. HHV-6 & HHV-7
d. Only HHV-8
c. HHV-6 & HHV-7
Rotavirus RNA, Adenovirus 40-41 DNA, _______________ RNA (Norovirus & Sapovirus), & Astrovirus RNA are all __________________ Viruses of ___________ (children/adults?)
Caliciviruses; gastrointestinal; children
Gastrointestinal Viruses
Noroviruses in adults causes ________, abdominal cramps, vomiting, & watery _________.
nausea; diarrhea
Gastrointestinal Viruses
This gastrointestinal virus causes nausea, abdominal cramps, vomiting, & watery diarrhea.
Norovirus
Hantavirus, Bunyaviradea, (DNA)
� __________-borne
� Transmitted through inhalation of _________ ________
� Hanta pulmonary syndrome:
- Symptoms:
� After 11-32 days, symptoms are headache, fever, & body aches.
� Symptoms progress to ____________ fever, __
Rodent; rodent excreta; hemorrhagic; kidney; respiratory
What is the name of the most common virus transmitted via inhalation of rodent excreta?
Hantavirus
Hantavirus belongs in the _______________ (DNA) family.
Bunyaviridae
What is the name of the most common syndrome known to cause headache, fever, body aches? Its' symptoms progress to hemorrhagic fever, kidney disease, & acute respiratory failure.
Hanta pulmonary syndrome
Poxviruses - DNA
Family: ___________
Virus: ___________, molluscum contagiosum, orf, & _____________ viruses.
Transmission: Respiratory ______________; direct contact
Poxviridae; smallpox; monkeypox; droplets
Smallpox, molluscum contagiosum, orf, & monkeypox viruses all belong in the family _______________. Common name: Poxvirus.
Poxviridae
The common name of the family Poxviridae is ____________ (DNA). Smallpox is transmitted via ___________ droplets. & monkeypox, orf, & molluscum contagiosum is transmitted via direct __________.
Poxvirus; respiratory; contact
Which Poxvirus is transmitted with respiratory droplets?
a. Molluscum contagiosum
b. Orf virus
c. Smallpox
d. Monkeypox virus
c. Smallpox
Which Poxvirus is transmitted with direct contact?
a. Monkeypox virus
b. Orf virus
c. Molluscum contagiosum
d. Smallpox
e. All of the above are correct, except d (a, b, & c)
e. All of the above are correct, except d (a, b, & c)
Ch. 67 Antiviral Therapy, Susceptibility Testing, & Prevention
Antiviral Resistance
� Occurs when drug is less effective in ___________ illness
� Drug resistance - small changes or __________ in a virus can _______ the effectiveness of a drug.
� Clinical
preventing; mutations; reduce; fails; therapy
Ch. 67 Antiviral Therapy, Susceptibility Testing, & Prevention
Antiviral resistance
� Occurs when a drug is less ____________ in preventing illness
� _____ resistance - small changes or mutations in a virus can reduce the effectiveness of a drug.
� ______
effective; drug; clinical
Ch. 67 Antiviral Therapy, Susceptibility Testing, & Prevention
Antiviral resistance
Occurs when the infection fails to respond to therapy
a. Drug resistance
b. Clinical resistance
b. Clinical resistance
Ch. 67 Antiviral Therapy, Susceptibility Testing, & Prevention
Antiviral resistance
Occurs when small changes or mutations in a virus can reduce the effectiveness of a drug.
a. Drug resistance
b. Clinical resistance
a. Drug resistance
Ch. 67 Antiviral Therapy, Susceptibility Testing, & Prevention
Antiviral resistance
� ____________ resistance is associated with potential antagonism with one or more drugs, pharmacokinetics of the drug in an individual patient, & immunologic status.
clinical
Ch. 67 Antiviral Therapy, Susceptibility Testing, & Prevention
Standardization
� Very few standards exist.
� Standards are developed by the ______________ & ____________ ___________ _____________ (CLSI).
Clinical & Laboratory Standards Institute
Ch. 67 Antiviral Therapy, Susceptibility Testing, & Prevention
Standardization
� _________ _______________ testing is determined by:
- ____ line used to grow a virus
- Viral inoculum _____
- Incubation time in culture
- Concentration range of the ________
Antiviral susceptibility; cell; titer; antiviral
Ch. 67 Antiviral Therapy, Susceptibility Testing, & Prevention
Methods of Testing
The purpose(s) are:
a. To determine the frequency that drug-resistant viral mutations occurs
b. To test for cross-resistance or reactivity to alternate agents
c. To evaluate
d. All of the above answers are correct
Ch. 67 Antiviral Therapy, Susceptibility Testing, & Prevention
Methods of Testing
� 2 general methods of susceptibility testing:
- ____________:
� Measures viral replication in the presence of antiviral agents.
� Measures the inhibitory effect of an antiv
Phenotypic
Phenotypic & genotypic methods are methods of testing for ______________.
susceptibility
Ch. 67 Antiviral Therapy, Susceptibility Testing, & Prevention
Methods of Testing
The 2 general methods of susceptibility testing PHENOTYPICALLY are:
1. Measures viral ____________ in the presence of antiviral agents.
2. Measures the ___________ effect of
replication; inhibitory
Ch. 67 Antiviral Therapy, Susceptibility Testing, & Prevention
Methods of Testing
Measuring the inhibitory effect of an antiviral agent on an entire virus population & measuring viral replication in the presence of antiviral agents are:
a. General methods
a. General methods of phenotypic susceptibility testing
Ch. 67 Antiviral Therapy, Susceptibility Testing, & Prevention
Methods of Testing
The 2 general methods of susceptibility testing GENOTYPICALLY are:
� Uses polymerase chain reaction (PCR) to detect _______ known to cause ____________.
� Uses __________ __
genes; resistance; nucleic acid; mutations; resistance
Ch. 67 Antiviral Therapy, Susceptibility Testing, & Prevention
Methods of Testing
� Uses PCR to detect genes known to cause resistance: ____________ (phenotypic/genotypic?)
� Measures the inhibitory effect of an antiviral agent on an entire virus populati
Genotypic; phenotypic
Ch. 67 Antiviral Therapy, Susceptibility Testing, & Prevention
Methods of Testing
� Measures viral replication in the present of antiviral agents: _____________ (phenotypic/genotypic?)
� Uses nucleic acid of the virus to determine whether a virus possesse
Phenotypic; genotypic
Ch. 67 Antiviral Therapy, Susceptibility Testing, & Prevention
Methods of Testing
Uses polymerase chain reaction (PCR) to detect genes known to cause resistance & uses nucleic acid of the virus to determine whether a virus possesses mutation that can caus
b. General methods of genotypic susceptibility testing
Ch. 67 Antiviral Therapy, Susceptibility Testing, & Prevention
� Uses endpoint measurements to determine whether the virus is inhibited by the drug or demonstrates drug resistance
� Plaque reduction assay is the standard method of susceptibility testing.
a. Phenotypic Susceptibility Testing
Ch. 67 Antiviral Therapy, Susceptibility Testing, & Prevention
Phenotypic Susceptibility Testing
� _____-uptake (DU) assay is used for herpes simplex virus (HSV)
dye
Ch. 67 Antiviral Therapy, Susceptibility Testing, & Prevention
Phenotypic Susceptibility Testing
� Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) ______________ measures the effect that antiviral reagents have on a virus
hybridization
Ch. 67 Antiviral Therapy, Susceptibility Testing, & Prevention
Phenotypic Susceptibility Testing
� _________ immunoassay (EIA) has been used for influenza ____ (A, B, C?), HSV, & Varicella-zoster virus (VZV).
Enzyme; A
Ch. 67 Antiviral Therapy, Susceptibility Testing, & Prevention
Phenotypic Susceptibility Testing
� Flow _____________
� Neuraminidase (NA) inhibition assay
- Detects NA inhibition resistance in Influenzas A & _____.
-Drugs include oseltamivir & __________
Cytometry; B; zanamivir
Ch. 67 Antiviral Therapy, Susceptibility Testing, & Prevention
Phenotypic Susceptibility Testing
Oseltamivir & Zanamivir are drugs used to treat and prevent influenza caused by influenza ___ and ___ viruses.
A; B
Ch. 67 Antiviral Therapy, Susceptibility Testing, & Prevention
Which phenotypic susceptibility test is used for influenza A, HSV, & VZV?
A. Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) hybridization
B. Flow cytometry
C. Enzyme immunoassay (EIA)
D. None of the above
C. Enzyme immunoassay (EIA)
Ch. 67 Antiviral Therapy, Susceptibility Testing, & Prevention
Which phenotypic susceptibility test is used for measuring the effect that antiviral reagents have on a virus??
A. Dye-uptake (DU) assay
B. Flow cytometry
C. Enzyme immunoassay (EIA)
D. Deoxyr
D. Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) hybridization
Ch. 67 Antiviral Therapy, Susceptibility Testing, & Prevention
Which phenotypic susceptibility assay is used for herpes simplex virus (HSV)??
A. Neuraminidase (NA) inhibition assay
B. Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) hybridization
C. Dye-uptake (DU) assay
C. Dye-uptake (DU) assay
Ch. 67 Antiviral Therapy, Susceptibility Testing, & Prevention
Phenotypic Susceptibility Testing
Which the standard method of susceptibility testing??
a. EIA
b. Flow cytometry
c. NA
d. Plaque reduction
d. Plaque reduction
Ch. 67 Antiviral Therapy, Susceptibility Testing, & Prevention
Phenotypic Susceptibility Testing
What do you use to determine whether the virus is inhibited by the drug or demonstrates drug resistance??
a. Plaque reduction
b. Endpoint measurements
c. DU
d
b. Endpoint measurements
Ch. 67 Antiviral Therapy, Susceptibility Testing, & Prevention
� Pyrosequencing
� Uses PCR to detect genes responsible for resistance
� Quantitative monitoring of viral loads (quantitative PCR) also measures the response to an antiviral agent
a. DNA Susce
b. Genotypic Susceptibility Testing
Ch. 67 Antiviral Therapy, Susceptibility Testing, & Prevention
Genotypic Susceptibility Testing
What is the type of sequencing called that is based on the detection technology that enables rapid & accurate quantification of sequence variation?
a. Genotypi
c. Pyrosequencing
Ch. 67 Antiviral Therapy, Susceptibility Testing, & Prevention
� Uses PCR to detect genes responsible for resistance: (genotypic/phenotypic?)
� Pyrosequencing: (genotypic/phenotypic?)
� Measuring the response to an antiviral agent using quantitative monit
genotypic; genotypic; genotypic; phenotypic
Ch. 67 Antiviral Therapy, Susceptibility Testing, & Prevention
� Susceptibility testing in patients with ______ should occur:
- Before the initiation of therapy
- When changing antiretroviral regimens
- In cases of suboptimal viral load reduction
HIV
Ch. 67 Antiviral Therapy, Susceptibility Testing, & Prevention
Human Immunodeficiency Virus
� Phenotypic susceptibility testing
- _____________ virus assays (RVAs)
Recombinant
Ch. 67 Antiviral Therapy, Susceptibility Testing, & Prevention
Human Immunodeficiency Virus
� Genotypic susceptibility testing
- Sequencing
- ____________ PCR
- ________________ tests
Selective; hybridization
Ch. 67 Antiviral Therapy, Susceptibility Testing, & Prevention
Recombinant virus assays (RVAs) (phenotypic) & sequencing, selective PCR, & hybridization tests (genotypic) are all used for which virus:
a. HSV
b. HPV
c. HIV
c. HIV
Ch. 67 Antiviral Therapy, Susceptibility Testing, & Prevention
Which types of patients should require susceptibility testing before the initiation of therapy, when changing antiretroviral regimens, & in cases of suboptimal viral load reductions?
a. HPV pa
d. HIV patients
Ch. 67 Antiviral Therapy, Susceptibility Testing, & Prevention
Influenza
� Vaccines for influenza must be reformulated each year because of antigenic ______ (shifts/drifts?)
- This reformulation ensures maximum efficacy against ________ strains.
drifts; current
Ch. 67 Antiviral Therapy, Susceptibility Testing, & Prevention
Influenza
Why is it important for influenza vaccines to be reformulated each year??
a. Ensures maximum efficacy against strains (due to antigenic drifts)
b. Ensures that the vaccines are compa
a. Ensures maximum efficacy against strains (due to antigenic drifts)
Ch. 67 Antiviral Therapy, Susceptibility Testing, & Prevention
Influenza
Which organization provides data to determine & predict what influenza strains will be circulating in the upcoming winter??
a. CLSI
b. CAP
c. WHO
d. TIV
c. WHO
Ch. 67 Antiviral Therapy, Susceptibility Testing, & Prevention
Which of the 2 types of vaccinations is the
noninfectious
type?
a. LAIV (Live attenuated influenza virus vaccine)
b. TIV (Trivalent inactivated influenza vaccine)
b. TIV
Ch. 67 Antiviral Therapy, Susceptibility Testing, & Prevention
Which of the 2 types of vaccinations is the
infectious
type?
a. LAIV (Live attenuated influenza virus vaccine)
b. TIV (Trivalent inactivated influenza vaccine)
a. LAIV (Live attenuated influenza virus vaccine)
Ch. 67 Antiviral Therapy, Susceptibility Testing, & Prevention
Influenza
What does the noninfectious TIV vaccine stand for??
Trivalent inactivated influenza vaccine
Ch. 67 Antiviral Therapy, Susceptibility Testing, & Prevention
Influenza
What does the infectious LAIV vaccine stand for??
Live attenuated influenza virus vaccine
Ch. 67 Antiviral Therapy, Susceptibility Testing, & Prevention
LAIV is the _____________ type of vaccination.
a. Noninfectious
b. Infectious
b. Infectious
Ch. 67 Antiviral Therapy, Susceptibility Testing, & Prevention
TIV is the _____________ type of vaccination.
a. Noninfectious
b. Infectious
a. Noninfectious
Ch. 67 Antiviral Therapy, Susceptibility Testing, & Prevention
The LIVE attenuated influenza virus vaccine is the _______________ type.
The INACTIVATED influenza vaccine is the ______________ type.
infectious; noninfectious
Ch. 67 Antiviral Therapy, Susceptibility Testing, & Prevention
Influenza Treatment
The 2 classes of antiviral drugs to treat influenza are:
____________ inhibitors
(prevents viral uncoating & effective for Influenza A)
____________ inhibitors
(inhibits NA
Adamantane; Neuraminidase
Ch. 67 Antiviral Therapy, Susceptibility Testing, & Prevention
Influenza Treatment
Which inhibitor is associated with:
� Preventing viral release
� Effectiveness for influenzas A & B
� The efficacy of oseltamivir phosphate against influenza B is lower
a.
a. Neuraminidase inhibitors
Ch. 67 Antiviral Therapy, Susceptibility Testing, & Prevention
Influenza Treatment
Which inhibitor is associated with:
� Preventing viral uncoating
� Effective treatment for influenza A
a. Neuraminidase inhibitors
b. Adamantane inhibitors
b. Adamantane inhibitors
Ch. 67 Antiviral Therapy, Susceptibility Testing, & Prevention
Influenza Treatment
2 classes of __________ drugs:
Prevents viral uncoating: _____________ (Adamantane/Neuraminidase?) inhibitors
Prevents viral release: _____________ (Adamantane/Neuraminidas
Antiviral; Adamantane; Neuraminidase
Ch. 67 Antiviral Therapy, Susceptibility Testing, & Prevention
Immune Prophylaxis or Therapy for Viral Diseases
Circumstances of Use:
Traveler to developing country
a. Prophylaxis Hep A
b. Rabies
c. Varicella
d. Measles
a. Prophylaxis Hep A
Ch. 67 Antiviral Therapy, Susceptibility Testing, & Prevention
Immune Prophylaxis or Therapy for Viral Diseases
Circumstances of Use:
Newborns of infected mothers or unimmunized laboratory working following needlestick
a. Rabies
b. Vacicella
c. Prophylaxi
d. Hepatitis B
Ch. 67 Antiviral Therapy, Susceptibility Testing, & Prevention
Immune Prophylaxis or Therapy for Viral Diseases
Circumstances of Use:
Unimmunized close contact with infected individual.
a. Prophylaxis Hep A
b. Hepatitis B
c. Respiratory disease
d. Measles
d. Measles
Ch. 67 Antiviral Therapy, Susceptibility Testing, & Prevention
Immune Prophylaxis or Therapy for Viral Diseases
Circumstances of Use:
Newborns of infected mothers at time of delivery
a. Varicella
b. Measles
c. Respiratory disease
d. Prophylaxis Hep A
a. Varicella
Ch. 67 Antiviral Therapy, Susceptibility Testing, & Prevention
Immune Prophylaxis or Therapy for Viral Diseases
Circumstances of Use:
Infants younger than 2 years of age with underlying lung syncytial disease virus
a. Varicella
b. Respiratory disease
c. M
b. Respiratory disease
Ch. 67 Antiviral Therapy, Susceptibility Testing, & Prevention
Immune Prophylaxis or Therapy for Viral Diseases
Circumstances of Use:
During disease to reduce severity
a. Varicella
b. Respiratory disease
c. Measles
d. Therapy: Lassa fever
d. Therapy: Lassa fever