Smiles for life

What is the most common chronic disease of childhood?
A. Asthma
B. Seasonal allergies
C. Dental caries
D. Otitis media

Dental caries

What is a consequence of untreated dental caries?
A. Cellulitis
B. Diarrhea
C. Inflammation of the tongue
D. Sinusitis

Cellulitis

Which condition is associated with periodontal disease?
A. Asthma
B. Preterm labor
C. Sinusitis
D. Hypothyroidism

Preterm labor

Which of the following medications is linked to gingival hyperplasia?
A. Phenytoin
B. Amoxicillin
C. Digoxin
D. Coumadin

Phenytoin

What can a primary care clinician do to promote oral health?
A. Collaborate with dental and other health professionals
B. Apply dental sealants
C. Prescribe oral fluoride supplements to every patient
D. Apply fluoride varnish to the teeth of all adults

Collaborate with dental and other health professionals

Which of these classes of medications is NOT generally associated with decreased salivary flow?
A. Antihistamines
B. Antibiotics
C. Corticosteroids
D. Anticholinergics
E. Diuretics

Antibiotics

A patient undergoing chemotherapy for cancer is at risk for which of these oral complications due to the effects of chemotherapy?
A. Osteonecrosis of alveolar bone
B. Gingival hyperplasia
C. Oral mucositis
D. Tooth fractures

Oral mucositis

Which of the following infections is NOT potentially caused by direct extension from a dental source?
A. Otitis media
B. Sinusitis
C. Brain abscess
D. Facial cellulitis

Otitis media

What is the suggested common pathway linking chronic periodontitis and conditions such as diabetes, coronary artery disease and adverse pregnancy outcomes?
A. Direct bacterial extension
B. Poor nutrition
C. Circulating antibodies D. Inflammation

Inflammation

Which of the following is NOT a mechanism for inter-relationships between oral and systemic disease?
A. Behavioral
B. Iatrogenic
C. Neurologic
D. Inflammatory

Neurologic

What is Early Childhood Caries?
A. Dental decay in children from 2 - 10 years of age
B. An infectious chronic disease
C. Deformities in a child's teeth that are caused by excessive fluoride
D. Dental decay caused by a lack of fluoride in a child's diet

An infectious chronic disease

Oral bacteria and dietary sugars are two of the three parts of the "Etiology Triad" of Early Childhood Caries. What is the third part of the triad?
A. The enamel and dentine of teeth which is vulnerable to demineralization
B. Bacterial toxins which attach

The enamel and dentine of teeth which is vulnerable to demineralization

What is a risk factor for developing Early Childhood Caries?
A. High fat diet
B. A patient's age
C. Excessive levels of fluoride
D. Caries in siblings or caretakers

Caries in siblings or caretakers

How can primary care clinicians prevent Early Childhood Caries?
A. Counsel a child's caregivers about the child's diet
B. Apply dental sealants to the teeth of young patients
C. Prescribe fluoride to every young patient
D. Refer children to a dentist at a

Counsel a child's caregivers about the child's diet

The mother of your 10 month-old patient asks for a prescription for supplemental fluoride. She reports that the family obtains their water from a well. What is your best course of action?
A. Prescribe a dietary fluoride supplement as well water does not c

B. Test the well's fluoride level prior to prescribing a dietary fluoride supplement

What does this photograph of a child's mouth depict?
A. Fluorosis
B. White spots
C. Moderate Early Childhood Caries
D. Iron staining

C. Moderate Early Childhood Caries

To what is the arrow on this photograph of a child's mouth pointing?
A. A normal tooth
B. Fluorosis
C. White spots
D. Severe Early Childhood Caries

C. White spots

What is the first step in performing a knee-to-knee oral examination of a child's mouth?
A. Have the caregiver hold the child on their lap facing the examiner
B. Have the caregiver hold the child facing them in a straddle position
C. The examiner looks in

Have the caregiver hold the child facing them in a straddle position

What guidance about teething should a primary care clinician provide to a toddler's caregiver?
A. Teething can cause ear infections and diarrhea
B. The caregiver should bring the toddler to the office if the child starts to drool
C. Teething sometimes cau

A child who is teething may be fussy

The arrow is pointing to a darkened feature in a child's mouth. What is this feature called?
A. Fluorosis
B. An avulsed tooth
C. An eruption hematoma
D. Early childhood caries in an unerupted tooth

C. An eruption hematoma

Which dental procedure does NOT require prophylaxis for individuals at high risk of bacterial endocarditis?
A. Dental extractions
B. Periodontal procedures
C. Post-operative suture removal
D. Prophylactic cleaning of teeth if bleeding is anticipated
E. Re

C. Post-operative suture removal

Periodontal disease can be clinically distinguished from gingivitis in which of the following ways?
A. Inflammation of the gums
B. White discoloration of the permanent teeth
C. Enlarged pockets at the gum base
D. Gingival hypertrophy

C. Enlarged pockets at the gum base

Which of the following is NOT a common site for oral cancers?
A. The tongue
B. Floor of mouth
C. Hard palate
D. Lower lip

C. Hard palate

Which of the following is most likely to lead to poorer oral health in the elderly?
A. Alzheimer's dementia
B. Coronary artery disease
C. Hypothyroidism
D. All of the above

A. Alzheimer's dementia

Risk factors for adult caries may include all the following except:
A. Low socioeconomic status
B. Existing tooth restoration
C. Decreased salivary flow
D. A vegetarian diet
E. Physical disabilities

D. A vegetarian diet

Which of the following patients require bacterial endocarditis antibiotic prophylaxis?
A. A 26 year old woman with mitral valve prolapse undergoing routine teeth
cleaning with no anticipated bleeding.
B. A 64 year old man with a prosthetic mitral valve wh

B. A 64 year old man with a prosthetic mitral valve who is undergoing a tooth
extraction

Which of the following is not a normal age-related tooth change?
A. Gingival recession
B. Root caries
C. Yellowing of teeth
D. Wearing away of teeth with exposed dentin

B. Root caries

Which of the following statements concerning xerostomia, or dry mouth is not true?
A. Xerostomia is caused by a decrease in the production of saliva.
B. Xerostomia can cause a burning sensation, change in taste, and difficulty
swallowing.
C. Medications c

E. Xerostomia is rarely a problem for patients wearing complete dentures.

Which of the following has been implicated in the development of recurrent aphthous ulcers?
A. Trauma
B. Vitamin C deficiency
C. Sickle Cell Anemia
D. Herpes simplex virus infection

A. Trauma

Which of the following factors is NOT involved in the development of "Meth Mouth,":
A. Poor oral hygiene
B. Increased carbohydrate consumption
C. Night time mouth breathing
D. Teeth grinding E. Xerostomia

C. Night time mouth breathing

Which antibiotic is the drug of choice for intra-oral infections?
A. Ciprofloxacin
B. Doxycycline
C. Penicillin
D. Cefuroxime

C. Penicillin

When should an avulsed tooth in a 35 year old patient be optimally re-implanted?
A. It should not be re-implanted
B. Within 5 minutes
B. Within 1 hour
C. Within 12 hours
D. Within 24 hours

B. Within 5 minutes

Tongue piercings put patients at risk for all of the following conditions except:
A. Mucositis
B. Peridontal disease
C. Abscessed teeth
D. Tooth fractures

A. Mucositis

When should an avulsed tooth in a 3 year old be optimally re-implanted?
A. It should not be implanted
B. Within 5 minutes
C. Within 1 hour
D. Within 12 hours
E. Within 24 hours

A. It should not be implanted

Which of the following is an indication for hospitalization of a child with facial cellulitis?
A. Localized facial swelling
B. Fever
C. Tracking of swelling into the neck
D. Difficulty chewin

C. Tracking of swelling into the neck

Which type of mouth guard provides the most protection against oral injury in sports?
A. Stock
B. Self-adapted (boil and bite)
C. Custom made

C. Custom made

Which of the following requires treatment with antibiotics?
A. Peri-apical abscess
B. Cellulitis
C. Caries
D. Pulpitis

B. Cellulitis

What is the appropriate treatment for a chipped tooth?
A. Routine referral to a dentist to smooth or restore the chip
B. Emergent referral to a dentist
C. Go to the emergency department immediately
D. Application of iodine to prevent a root infection

A. Routine referral to a dentist to smooth or restore the chip

What would you do first in evaluating a patient with facial trauma?
A. Find any missing teeth
B. Determine if any teeth have been fractured
C. Evaluate the gum line for bleeding
D. Assess the patient's airway, breathing, and circulation

D. Assess the patient's airway, breathing, and circulation

The treatment of choice for an abscessed tooth is:
A. Oil of Clove
B. Oral antibiotics
C. Pain medication
D. Dental referral for extraction or root canal treatment

D. Dental referral for extraction or root canal treatment

Which of the following is a FALSE statement?
A. Gingivitis is very common in pregnancy
B. Periodontitis is associated with preterm birth
C. Treatment of periodontitis in pregnancy decreases the risk of preterm birth
D. Deep root scaling to improve periodo

C. Treatment of periodontitis in pregnancy decreases the risk of preterm birth

Which of the following is a TRUE statement:
A. Mothers with caries pass their genetic predisposition for caries on to their
babies
B. Mother with caries pass caries-causing bacteria to their babies in utero
C. Mother with caries pass caries-causing bacter

C. Mother with caries pass caries-causing bacteria to their infants early in life via saliva transmission

A pregnancy granuloma:
A. Has malignant potential and should be biopsied
B. Should be excised during pregnancy even if asymptomatic to avoid
complications
C. Can be observed
D. Is not likely to recur if excised

C. Can be observed

A pregnant patient asks you for guidance about having dental treatment during her pregnancy. What would you say?
A. Dental treatment should only be done during the second and third trimester. B. Dental treatment should only be done during the third trimes

D. Dental treatment can be done during any trimester.

What guidance should you give a pregnant patient about having dental x-rays during her pregnancy?
A. Dental x-rays should be avoided during pregnancy.
B. Dental x-ray should be limited to only one film per pregnancy.
C. Dental x-rays should be taken as ne

C. Dental x-rays should be taken as necessary to reach a full diagnosis

What oral health guidance should you give a pregnant patient?
A. Brush twice daily with fluoridated toothpaste.
B. Use chlorhexidene mouthwash three times per day .
C. Avoid sugary drinks and snacks between meals.
D. Take fluoride dietary supplements.
E.

E. A and C only.
A. Brush twice daily with fluoridated toothpaste.
C. Avoid sugary drinks and snacks between meals.

All of the following conditions can cause worsening gingivitis EXCEPT:
A. Onset of puberty
B. Monthly menses
C. Menopause
D. Use of oral contraceptives
E. Pregnancy

C. Menopause

If a pregnant woman has an oral abscess in the first trimester, what should she do regarding its treatment?
A. Take antibiotics and pain medication only and wait until her second trimester to
see the dentist.
B. Avoid x-rays for further diagnosis.
C. Have

C. Have the tooth treated or extracted under local anesthesia immediately.

Amalgam restorations placed during pregnancy can lead to which negative outcome in the fetus?
A. Birth defects
B. Neurologic sequelae
C. Spontaneous abortions D. None of the above

D. None of the above

What could pregnant women do after vomiting to reduce the risk of enamel erosion?
A. Swish with baking soda and water
B. Vigorously brush her teeth
C. Immediately take a dose of a proton pump inhibitor
D. Immediately take 3-4 antacid tablets

A. Swish with baking soda and water

What is the most common site for caries in the elderly?
A. The site of a previous restoration (filling)
B. On an root that is exposed due to gingival recession C. On the coronal surface of a tooth
D. On the buccal surface of the molars

A. The site of a previous restoration (filling)

Which of the following is an absolute contraindication for placing dental implants?
A. Diabetes mellitus that is controlled
B. Root caries in the teeth that are to be replaced
C. The use of IV bisphosphonates
D. The use of medication known to cause xerost

C. The use of IV bisphosphonates

What is the adverse intraoral effect with which calcium channel blockers are most associated?
A. Stomatitis
B. Thrush
C. Gingival hyperplasia
D. Osteonecrosis of the mandible

C. Gingival hyperplasia

Which statement is true regarding dental prostheses?
A. Implants are commonly placed in a jaw to replace teeth lost due to severe
osteoporosis.
B. Dentures should be removed and cleaned daily.
C. Bridges should be removed daily to facilitate cleaning of t

B. Dentures should be removed and cleaned daily.

HPV influenced oral cancers have which of the following characteristics?
A. Account for the rise in oral cancers in younger individuals, age 40-64
B. Are usually seen in the anterior portion of the mouth, especially the buccal mucosa or the lip
C. Epidemi

A. Account for the rise in oral cancers in younger individuals, age 40-64

What is the most significant reason why complete tooth loss has declined in the US from 50% to 18% in the last 60 years?
A. The increased use of dental insurance in the elderly.
B. The increased use of bottled and filtered water products among adults.
C.

C. The addition of fluoride to most community water systems.

While performing an oral exam on a 72 year old patient, you observe the finding in the photograph below. How should you manage this finding?
A. Refer the patient to an oral surgeon for immediate biopsy of a probable oral cancer.
B. Schedule the patient to

D.Document this finding as sublingual varicosities that are normal in this age group and require no further evaluation.

Which of the following statements is true regarding the oral health of elderly patients with dementia?
A. Aging alone is the major contributor to poor oral health of older individuals with dementia.
B. Medications used to treat hypertension, depression, a

C. Since this population struggles with Activities of Daily Living (ADLs), they are at high risk for poor oral health unless caregivers assist with oral care.

After a hip fracture, a 76 year old woman is admitted to a long-term care facility for rehabilitation. While examining her mouth shortly thereafter, you see the condition in the photograph below. What is the most likely cause of what you see?
A. The patie

C. The patient's dentures were improperly cleaned while she was in the hospital.

Elderly with poor oral hygiene, missing teeth, and dental pain are at risk for worsening oral health due to which of the following nutritional factors?
A. Lack of foods rich in vitamins such as vitamin C and beta carotene.
B. Compensating for taste altera

D. All of the above.

Which of the following is an appropriate use of fluoride in older adults?
A. Topical fluoride treatments for exposed roots.
B. Oral fluoride supplementation for patients with multiple carious lesions.
C. Topical fluoride for gingival hyperplasia caused by

A. Topical fluoride treatments for exposed roots.

The mother of a 9 month old patient asks what causes early childhood caries (ECC). Which of the following is the most accurate reply?
A. The majority of ECC results from thin or "weak" tooth enamel inherited from the
parents.
B. Bacteria in the child's mo

B. Bacteria in the child's mouth break down dietary sugars into acids which break down tooth enamel.

Which of the following factors places a child at the most risk for developing early childhood caries?
A. Having a diagnosis of severe asthma.
B. Living with family members who smoke tobacco or drink excessive amounts of
alcohol.
C. Breast feeding for long

D. Having plaque on the teeth.

Which of the following is NOT a mechanism of action for topical fluoride?
A. It inhibits demineralization of the teeth.
B. It promotes remineralization of the teeth.
C. It inhibits bacterial metabolism.
D. It promotes the release of saliva.

D. It promotes the release of saliva.

Which of the following is a benefit of fluoride varnish?
A. Fluoride varnish permanently seals the pits and fissures of teeth.
B. Fluoride varnish decreases the need for routine dental care.
C. Fluoride varnish can reverse early decay (i.e., the "white sp

C. Fluoride varnish can reverse early decay (i.e., the "white spots") and slow enamel destruction

While performing an exam on one of your young patients, you observe following
(see photograph). Describe what you see:.
A. The teeth are normal and have no white spots or tooth decay.
B. The gingiva are pathologically pigmented.
C. The tooth's enamel is t

A. The teeth are normal and have no white spots or tooth decay.

What guidance would you provide the mother of your 20 month old patient who expresses concern about her child developing fluorosis? The family lives in a town that adds fluoride to the water supply, and the child has already had 2 cavities.
A. Tell the mo

A. Tell the mother to use only a small smear of fluoridated toothpaste when brushing the child's teeth.

Which children should receive fluoride varnish in the medical office?
A. All children at high risk for caries
B. High risk children without a dental home
C. Low risk children
D. All Children

B. High risk children without a dental home

While performing an exam on one of your young patients, you observe the teeth
indicated by the yellow arrows (see photograph). Describe the tooth's condition.
A. The teeth are normal and have no visible decay.
B. The brown areas represent caries where los

B. The brown areas represent caries where loss of overlying enamel has exposed underlying dentin.

When applying fluoride varnish to an infant what is the gauze used for?
A. The gauze is the vehicle used to apply the flourish varnish to the teeth.
B. The gauze is used to hold the tongue out of the way.
C. The gauze is used to dry the child's teeth and

C. The gauze is used to dry the child's teeth and to remove gross plaque.

What guidance do you give the grandmother of a child who has just had fluoride varnish applied to his teeth?
A. The child's teeth will be discolored for about a week.
B. Do not brush the child's teeth for at least 48 hours.
C. Brush the child's teeth in a

D. Avoid giving the child hot or hard food for 24 hours.

What constitutes a tooth's outer layer?
A. Enamel
B. Dentin
C. Pulp

A. Enamel

What is a full complement of adult teeth?
A. 26
B. 28
C. 30
D. 32

D. 32

A caregiver asks you how many teeth her 3 year old child should have. What would you respond?
A. 20
B. 22
C. 24
D. 28

A. 20

At what age do teeth typically begin to erupt in children?
A. 3-9 months
B. 9-15 months
C. 15-21 months
D. 21-27 months

B. 9-15 months

Oral cancer is most common in which area of the mouth?
A. Hard palate
B. Surface of tongue
C. Inside of cheek
D. Posterolateral tongue

D. Posterolateral tongue

When performing the "knee-to-knee" oral exam on a young child, in what position should the child start?
A. Facing the examiner
B. Standing up
C. Sitting on the exam table
D. Facing the caregiver

D. Facing the caregiver

Which of the following is NOT needed by a primary care clinician to conduct a thorough oral exam?
A. An exam light to illuminate key features in the mouth
B. Tongue depressors to lift the lip and retract the cheek
C. A mouth mirror to view lingual surface

D. Dental explorer

When examining a 9 month old child's mouth, what is a reason for an early referral to a dentist?
A. The child has only 4 incisors
B. Developmental tooth defects are present
C. No molars have erupted
D. No canine teeth have erupted
E. Counting less than 20

B. Developmental tooth defects are present

You are performing an oral exam on your 21 year old patient who has been using smokeless tobacco for 4 years. What part of this patient's oral cavity is especially important for you to examine?
A. The sun-exposed areas of the patient's cheeks
B. The inner

B. The inner aspect of the patient's lips and cheeks

A complete oral examination includes each of the following EXCEPT:
A. Temporomandibular joint (TMJ) exam
B. Cervical node exam
C. Palpation of the floor of the mouth
D. Sinus exam
E. Exam of the skin around the mouth

D. Sinus exam