is the liquid matrix of the blood.
Plasma
Answer
is one of the formed elements.
is the liquid matrix of the blood.
transports waste products but not nutrients.
accounts for less than half of the blood volume.
factor IV.
The factor needed for stabilization of a clot is
Answer
factor IV.
factor XIII.
factor VII.
factor III.
lymphocytes--contain bright orange granules
Which of the following cell types is incorrectly matched with its description?
Answer
neutrophils--most numerous WBC
basophils--release histamine
lymphocytes--contain bright orange granules
monocytes--largest of the WBC
leukocytes.
The only formed elements that possess a nucleus when mature are the
Answer
thrombocytes.
erythrocytes.
leukocytes.
platelets.
reticulocyte
Which of the following cell types is an immature red blood cell?
Answer
erythrocyte
reticulocyte
thrombocyte
monocyte
antibodies from the mother cross the placenta and affect the fetus
In hemolytic disease of the newborn,
Answer
antibodies from the mother cross the placenta and affect the fetus.
hemolysis of white blood cells may occur.
fibrin is hydrolyzed.
the mother frequently dies during childbirth.
the ability of the blood to carry oxygen to various tissues.
An increase in hemoglobin increases
Answer
the ability of the blood to carry oxygen to various tissues.
the quantity of plasma protein available for blood clotting.
the leukocyte count.
the body's immune response.
Leukocytes are the largest of the formed elements
Which of the following statements regarding leukocytes is true?
Answer
Leukocytes have no nucleus.
Leukocytes play a role in oxygen transport.
Leukocytes are the largest of the formed elements.
Leukocytes are only fragments of cells.
increased erythropoietin levels
Which of the following would lead to increased erythropoiesis?
Answer
increased environmental O2 levels
increased erythropoietin levels
increased blood pH
increased blood pressure
platelets stick to the exposed collagen fibers of injured vessels.
During platelet plug formation,
Answer
platelets stick to the exposed collagen fibers of injured vessels.
activated platelets release fibrinogen.
thrombin is released from endothelial cells.
Vitamin K production increases.
the erythrocytes agglutinate
When a person is transfused with the wrong blood type,
Answer
the white cells clot.
hemorrhaging occurs.
fibrinogen is activated.
the erythrocytes agglutinate.
clot dissolution.
Fibrinolysis is responsible for
Answer
activation of the intrinsic pathway of coagulation.
activation of the extrinsic pathway of coagulation.
clot retraction.
clot dissolution.
the percentage of RBC's in a given volume of blood.
The hematocrit is
Answer
an estimate of blood flow/hour.
the number of WBC's per mm3.
the amount of hemoglobin by weight in the blood.
the percentage of RBC's in a given volume of blood.
polycythemia
The condition characterized by overproduction of erythrocytes is called
Answer
anemia
leukemia
hemophilia
polycythemia
an allergic reaction
A person with an increased eosinophil count might be suffering from
Answer
an allergic reaction.
a viral infection.
an acute bacterial infection.
a chronic bacterial infection
oxyhemoglobin
The oxygenated form of hemoglobin is called
Answer
oxyhemoglobin.
deoxyhemoglobin.
carboxyhemoglobin.
carbaminohemoglobin.
neutrophil.
The most numerous of the leukocytes is the
Answer
neutrophil.
basophil.
eosinophil.
lymphocyte.
monocyte.
diapedesis
The ability of white blood cells to leave the circulation and enter tissues is called
Answer
chemotaxis.
diapedesis.
margination.
pavementing.
type O blood.
A person with type O blood should receive a blood transfusion from a donor with
Answer
type A blood.
type B blood.
type O blood.
type AB blood.
ADP and thromboxanes stimulate other platelets to become activated
In the platelet release reaction,
Answer
factor XII is activated.
ADP and thromboxanes stimulate other platelets to become activated.
activated platelets are connected by fibrinogen.
prostaglandin production is inhibited.
factor XII
The cascade of events in the intrinsic pathway can be set into motion when _____ comes into contact with collagen.
Answer
factor III
factor VII
factor X
factor XII
oxygen-carrying capacity.
When large quantities of blood are lost, erythrocytes must be replaced to restore
Answer
the body's ability to fight infection.
oxygen-carrying capacity.
thrombin levels.
normal blood pH.
contain hemoglobin in their cytoplasm
Mature erythrocytes
Answer
have a centrally located nucleus.
are actually just cellular fragments.
contain hemoglobin in their cytoplasm.
mature from cells called megakaryocytes.
albumin
Which of the following plasma proteins is most abundant?
Answer
albumin
globulins
fibrinogen
immunoglobulins
is a product of the kidney.
Erythropoietin
Answer
is a product of the kidney.
inhibits the production of erythrocytes.
is produced in response to increased blood pressure.
is found both in the plasma and inside red blood cells
myeloblasts
Neutrophils of the blood are derived from a population of stem cells called
Answer
lymphoblasts.
proerythroblasts.
myeloblasts.
megakaryoblasts
D. sickle-cell disease
The presence of an abnormal hemoglobin molecule results in the inability of RBCs to maintain their shape when oxygen levels in the blood decrease. This condition is known as
A. hemophilia
B. leukemia
C. polycythemia
D. sickle-cell disease
C. 47%
Which of the following would be a normal hematocrit in an adult male?
A. 22%
B. 36%
C. 47%
D. 73%
B. hemophilia
An inherited inability to produce clotting factor VIII or IX results in the condition known as
A. erythroblastosis fetalis
B. hemophilia
C. erythropenia
D. leukocytosis
C. eosinophils
Which blood cell type is elevated in a parasitic infection?A. basophils
B. neutrophils
C. eosinophils
D. monocytes
B. red bone marrow
The primary site of hemopoiesis in adult humans is in the
A. spleen
B. red bone marrow
C. liver
D. thymus
A. monocyte
Which of the following is an agranular leukocyte that leaves the blood and becomes a wandering macrophage?
A. monocyte
B. neutrophil
C. eosinophil
D. basophil
B. pernicious
Inadequate absorption of vitamin B12 leads to ________ anemia)
A. hemorrhagic
B. pernicious
C. aplastic
D. hemolytic
D. digestion of nutrients
Which of the following is NOT a function of blood?
A. transport of dissolved gases
B. distribution of nutrients
C. restriction of fluid losses through damaged vessels
D. digestion of nutrients
C. O
Which blood type in theory could be considered the universal donor?
A. A
B. B
C. O
D. AB
C. gamma globulins
Plasma proteins which act as antibodies and attack foreign proteins are classified as
A. albumins
B. serotonin
C. gamma globulins
D. fibrin
C. serotonin
A chemical released by platelets that causes vasoconstriction after a blood vessel is damaged is
A. heparin
B. histamine
C. serotonin
D. erythropoietin
C. erythropoiesis
The specific process by which red blood cells are formed is called
A. hemopoiesis
B. leukopoiesis
C. erythropoiesis
D. erythropoietin
D. fibrin, thrombin
When a blood vessel is damaged, clot formation includes the conversion of fibrinogen into _____ by the action of the enzyme _____.
A. thrombin, prothrombin
B. thrombin, erythropoietin
C. fibrin, prothrombin
D. fibrin, thrombin
D. erythropoietin
Chemotherapy tends to destroy normal marrow cells as well as cancerous cells. Which of the following might be used to stimulate hemopoiesis in a cancer patient?
A. histamine
B. albumins
C. intrinsic factor
D. erythropoietin
D. pluripotent stem cell
The stem cell that differentiates to form all types of blood cells is the
A. myeloid stem cell
B. progranulocyte
C. proerythroblast
D. pluripotent stem cell
C. thrombocytes
Which formed elements of the blood are produced from fragmentation of megakaryocytes?
A. lymphocytes
B. monocytes
C. thrombocytes
D. eosinophils
A. hemostasis
Vascular spasms and platelet plug formation are steps in
A. hemostasis
B. hemopoiesis
C. agglutination
D. erythropoiesis
D. thrombin
During clotting, prothrombin is activated to form
A. fibrin
B. fibrinogen
C. prothrombin activator
D. thrombin
C. O
An individual who lacks A and B agglutinogens and has both A and B agglutinins has ABO blood type
A. A
B. B
C. O
D. AB
D. the baby's blood cells hemolyze because anti-Rh antibodies produced by the mother cross the placenta
In the condition "hemolytic disease of the newborn",
A. the mother's blood cells hemolyze because the baby's ABO antigens cross the placenta
B. the baby's blood cells hemolyze because the mother's ABO antibodies cross the placenta
C. the mother's blood ce
C. leukemia
Which of the following blood diseases is characterized by the production of large numbers of immature leukocytes?A. anemia
B. leukopenia
C. leukemia
D. polycythemia
B. formation of prothrombinase
Which of the following begins the common pathway in clotting?
A. release of tissue factor,
B. formation of prothrombinase
C. formation of fibrinogen
D. release of thromboplastin
B. dissolution of a clot
Fibrinolysis refers to
A. formation of an embolus
B. dissolution of a clot
C. rapid mitosis of fibroblasts at the edges of a damaged vessel
D. breakdown of fibrin to form fibrinogen
C. 4-6 liters
An adult human contains about _____ of blood
A. 10 quarts
B. 2-3 pints
C. 4-6 liters
D. 2-3 gallons
B. an embolus
Clotting may occur in an undamaged blood vessel. When that clot breaks loose and circulates through the bloodstream it is called
A. an aneurysm
B. an embolus
C. a thrombus
D. a thrombocyte
D. spleen
Aged red blood cells are destroyed mainly by macrophages in the _____.
A. lungs
B. kidneys
C. thymus
D. spleen
C. Biliverdin is produced from the breakdown of the non-iron portion of heme
Which of the following statements is true?
A. Iron is stored in the liver as globin
B. The globin portion of hemoglobin is eliminated as urobilinogen
C. Biliverdin is produced from the breakdown of the non-iron portion of heme
D. Red blood cells can live
A. Presence or absence of Rh antigens is genetically determined
Which of the following is true concerning the Rh blood group?A. Presence or absence of Rh antigens is genetically determined
B. People with blood type B are really B negative
C. Being Rh- is associated with sickle-cell disease
D. Rh+ people can give blood
A. less than 10 percent
Blood makes up _____ of the total body mass
A. less than 10 percent
B. about half
C. 70 percent
D. almost all
D. water
The most abundant molecule present in blood plasma is
A. a proteins called albumin
B. fibrinogen
C. glucose
D. water
B. increased production of red blood cells
A high reticulocyte count might indicate
A. low levels of hemoglobin in the red blood cells
B. increased production of red blood cells
C. abnormal production of platelets
D. abnormal production of white blood cells
C. nuclei, granules
White blood cells are identified microscopically by the shape of their ______ and presence or absence of ______ in the cytoplasm.
A. cell membrane, mitochondria
B. Golgi bodies, endoplasmic reticulum
C. nuclei, granules
D. mitochondria, hemoglobin
A. phagocytosis
Neutrophils and macrophages are active in
A. phagocytosis
B. white blood cell formation
C. blood coagulation
D. antibody formation
A. platelets are cytoplasmic fragments containing clotting elements
Which of the following statements describes platelets?A. platelets are cytoplasmic fragments containing clotting elements
B. platelets are fully formed cells with clotting elements
C. platelets are derived from WBCs
D. platelets are derived from RBCs
serum
Plasma minus its clotting proteins is termed___________
(1) neutrophils;
Respond to tissue destruction by bacteria; release lysozyme, strong oxidants, & defensins.
Enter 1-19 (no spaces/parenthesis). (1) neutrophils; (2) lymphocytes; (3) monocytes; (4) eosinophils; (5) basophils; (6) pluripotent cells; (7) colony-forming units
(17) erythropoietin
Hormone that increases the numbers of red blood cell precursors.
Enter 1-19 (no spaces/parenthesis). (1) neutrophils; (2) lymphocytes; (3) monocytes; (4) eosinophils; (5) basophils; (6) pluripotent cells; (7) colony-forming units; (8) red blood cells; (9)
A. The recipient's antibodies will react with the donor's RBCs (Correct Answer)
A person with B positive blood receives a transfusion of type AB positive blood. What will happen?
A. The recipient's antibodies will react with the donor's RBCs
B. The donor's antigens will destroy the recipient's antibodies
C. The donor's antibodies wil
(16) wandering macrophages;
Monocytes that roam the tissues and gather at sites of infection or inflammation.
Enter 1-19 (no spaces/parenthesis). (1) neutrophils; (2) lymphocytes; (3) monocytes; (4) eosinophils; (5) basophils; (6) pluripotent cells; (7) colony-forming units; (8) red
D. Clot retraction
____________ is the consolidation or tightening of the fibrin clot that helps to bring the edges of a damaged vessel closer together.
A. Suture
B. Collagen
C. Fibrin
D. Clot retraction
A. True
Hemoglobin functions in transporting both oxygen and carbon dioxide and in regulating blood pressure.
A. True
B. False
9) reticulocytes;
Released from the red bone marrow, they develop into mature red blood cells.
Enter 1-19 (no spaces/parenthesis). (1) neutrophils; (2) lymphocytes; (3) monocytes; (4) eosinophils; (5) basophils; (6) pluripotent cells; (7) colony-forming units; (8) red bloo
(19) cytokines
Stimulate white blood cell formation.
Enter 1-19 (no spaces/parenthesis). (1) neutrophils; (2) lymphocytes; (3) monocytes; (4) eosinophils; (5) basophils; (6) pluripotent cells; (7) colony-forming units; (8) red blood cells; (9) reticulocytes; (10) polymo
(12) lymphoid cells
Give rise to lymphocytes.
Enter 1-19 (no spaces/parenthesis). (1) neutrophils; (2) lymphocytes; (3) monocytes; (4) eosinophils; (5) basophils; (6) pluripotent cells; (7) colony-forming units; (8) red blood cells; (9) reticulocytes; (10) polymorphs; (11) m
5) basophils
Involved in inflammatory & allergic reactions; are involved in hypersensitivity reactions.
Enter 1-19 (no spaces/parenthesis). (1) neutrophils; (2) lymphocytes; (3) monocytes; (4) eosinophils; (5) basophils; (6) pluripotent cells; (7) colony-forming units
(6) pluripotent cells
Cells that give rise to all the formed elements in blood.
Enter 1-19 (no spaces/parenthesis). (1) neutrophils; (2) lymphocytes; (3) monocytes; (4) eosinophils; (5) basophils; (6) pluripotent cells; (7) colony-forming units; (8) red blood cells; (9) reticu
B. 1, 2, 4, 5
Which of the following statements explain why red blood cells (RBCs) are highly specialized for oxygen transport? (1) RBCs contain hemoglobin; (2) RBCs lack a nucleus; (3) RBCs have many mitochondria and thus generate ATP aerobically; (4) The bioncave sha
18) thrombopoietin
Hormone that stimulates formation of platelets.
Enter 1-19 (no spaces/parenthesis). (1) neutrophils; (2) lymphocytes; (3) monocytes; (4) eosinophils; (5) basophils; (6) pluripotent cells; (7) colony-forming units; (8) red blood cells; (9) reticulocytes; (
(11) myeloid stem cells
Give rise to red blood cells, monocytes, neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils & platelets.
Enter 1-19 (no spaces/parenthesis). (1) neutrophils; (2) lymphocytes; (3) monocytes; (4) eosinophils; (5) basophils; (6) pluripotent cells; (7) colony-forming units;
(4) eosinophils
Combat the effects of histamine and other mediators of inflammation in allergic reactions; also phagocytize antigen-antibody complexes.
Enter 1-19 (no spaces/parenthesis). (1) neutrophils; (2) lymphocytes; (3) monocytes; (4) eosinophils; (5) basophils; (6
(15) fixed macrophages
Monocytes that leave the blood and reside in a particular tissue such as alveolar macrophages in the lungs.
Enter 1-19 (no spaces/parenthesis). (1) neutrophils; (2) lymphocytes; (3) monocytes; (4) eosinophils; (5) basophils; (6) pluripotent cells; (7) col
D. 4 and 5
A person with type A Rh- blood can receive a blood transfusion from which of the following types? (1) A Rh+ (2) B Rh- (3) AB Rh- (4) O Rh- (5) A Rh-
A. 1 only
B. 3 only
C. 4 only
D. 4 and 5
E. 1 and 5
(8) red blood cells;
Contain hemoglobin & function in gas transport.
Enter 1-19 (no spaces/parenthesis). (1) neutrophils; (2) lymphocytes; (3) monocytes; (4) eosinophils; (5) basophils; (6) pluripotent cells; (7) colony-forming units; (8) red blood cells; (9) reticulocytes; (
D. It attaches to transferrin and is transported to bone marrow for use in hemoglobin synthesis
What happens to the iron (Fe3+) that is released during the breakdown of damaged RBCs?
A. It is used to synthesize proteins
B. It is transported to the liver where it becomes part of bile
C. It is converted into urobilin and excreted in urine
D. It attach
(14) platelets
Cell fragments enclosed by a piece of the cell membrane of megakaryocytes; contain clotting factors.
Enter 1-19 (no spaces/parenthesis). (1) neutrophils; (2) lymphocytes; (3) monocytes; (4) eosinophils; (5) basophils; (6) pluripotent cells; (7) colony-for
(10) polymorphs
Older neutrophils with several differently shaped nuclear lobes.
Enter 1-19 (no spaces/parenthesis). (1) neutrophils; (2) lymphocytes; (3) monocytes; (4) eosinophils; (5) basophils; (6) pluripotent cells; (7) colony-forming units; (8) red blood cells; (9)
A. 5, 3, 4, 2, 1
Place the steps involved in hemstasis in the correct order. (1) conversion of fibrinogen into fibrin; (2) conversion of prothrombin into thrombin; (3) adhesion and aggregation of platelets on damaged vessel; (4) prothrombinase formed by extrinsic or intri
C. 1, 2, 3, 4
Which of the following are true? (1) White blood cells (WBCs) leave the blood stream by emigration; (2) Adhesion molecules help WBCs stick to the endothelium, which aids emigration; (3) Neutrophils and macrophages are active in phagocytosis; (4) The attra
(7) colony-forming units
Individual forms of progenitor cells; named on the basis of the mature elements in blood they will ultimately produce.
Enter 1-19 (no spaces/parenthesis). (1) neutrophils; (2) lymphocytes; (3) monocytes; (4) eosinophils; (5) basophils; (6) pluripotent cel
E. polycythemia
Which of the following would not cause an increase in erythropoietin?
A. anemia
B. high altitude
C. hemorrahage
D. donating blood to a blood bank
E. polycythemia
C. serum
Plasma minus its clotting proteins is termed ______________.
A. plasmin
B. buffy coat
C. serum
D. thin blood
(3) monocytes
White blood cell showing a kidney-shaped nucleus; capable of phagocytosis.
Enter 1-19 (no spaces/parenthesis). (1) neutrophils; (2) lymphocytes; (3) monocytes; (4) eosinophils; (5) basophils; (6) pluripotent cells; (7) colony-forming units; (8) red blood
(13) progenitor cells
Cells no longer capable of replenshing themselves; can only give rise to more specific formed elements of blood.
Enter 1-19 (no spaces/parenthesis). (1) neutrophils; (2) lymphocytes; (3) monocytes; (4) eosinophils; (5) basophils; (6) pluripotent cells; (7
E. 3 and 4
Which of the following are not required for clot formation? (1) vitamin K; (2) calcium; (3) prostacyclin; (4) plasmin; (5) fibrinogen
A. 1, 2, and 5
B. 3, 4, and 5
C. 4 and 5
D. 1, 2, and 3
E. 3 and 4
B. True
The most numerous white blood cells in a differential white blood cell count of a healthy individual are the neutrophils.
A. False
B. True
(2) lymphocytes
Occur as B cells, T cells, and natural killer cells.
Enter 1-19 (no spaces/parenthesis). (1) neutrophils; (2) lymphocytes; (3) monocytes; (4) eosinophils; (5) basophils; (6) pluripotent cells; (7) colony-forming units; (8) red blood cells; (9) reticulocyt
white blood cells and platelets.
The buffy coat of centrifuged blood consists mainly of:
Answer
Selected Answer: white blood cells and platelets.
Correct Answer: white blood cells and platelets.
bilirubin
The non-iron portion of heme is converted first to the green pigment
billiverdin, then to the yellow-orange pigment __________, which is
transported to the liver for secretion in bile.
Answer
Selected Answer: bilirubin
Correct Answer: bilirubin
monocytes
Agranular leukocytes that are phagocytic are the:
Answer
Selected Answer: monocytes.
Correct Answer: monocytes.
True
Most plasma proteins are synthesized by the liver.
Answer
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True
False
The hematocrit measures the amount of hemoglobin in red blood cells.
Answer
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False
erythrocytes
person's ABO blood type is determined by antigens present on the:
Answer
Selected Answer: erythrocytes.
Correct Answer: erythrocytes
red bone marrow
After birth, hemopoiesis takes place only in __________.
Answer
Selected Answer: liver
Correct Answer: red bone marrow
RBCs.
5 million per cubic millimeter (or uL)" is a value falling within the
normal adult range for the number of:
Answer
Selected Answer: RBCs.
Correct Answer: RBCs.
120
Red blood cells survive about __________ days in circulation.
Answer
Selected Answer: 120
Correct Answer: 120
False
Bilirubin forms from the ejected DNA of developing platelets.
Answer
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False
True
Erythropoietin is a hormone produced by the kidney to stimulate red
blood cell production.
Answer
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True
thrombocytes
The formed elements that are fragments of larger cells called
megakaryocytes are:
Answer
Selected Answer: thrombocytes.
Correct Answer: thrombocytes
neutrophils.
The most abundant of the leukocytes are the:
Answer
Selected Answer: neutrophils.
Correct Answer: neutrophils.
carry oxygen
he function of hemoglobin is to:
Answer
Selected Answer: carry oxygen.
Correct Answer: carry oxygen
G. Plasmin
Enzyme that digests fibrin G. Plasmin E. Activated Prothrombinase
F. Ferritin
An iron-storage protein F. Ferritin
E. Activated Prothrombinase
The enzyme that begins the Common Pathway of blood clotting E. Activated Prothrombinase
B. Fibrin
Forms the protein threads of a blood clot B. Fibrin
C. Emigration
Process by which neutrophils leave the bloodstream C. Emigration
A. Thrombin
The enzyme that converts soluble fibrinogen to insoluble fibrin A. Thrombin
D. Thromboplastin
A mixture of lipoproteins and phospholipids released by damaged cells in the extrinsic pathway of blood clotting D. Thromboplastin
testosterone
Males have a higher hematocrit range than females because
__________ stimulates synthesis of the hormone erythropoietin.
Answer
Selected Answer: iron
Correct Answer: testosterone
True
Oxygen binds to the iron in the heme of hemoglobin.
Answer
Selected Answer: True
Correct Answer: True
45; 55
Blood is about __________ % formed elements and __________ % plasma.
Answer
Selected Answer: 45; 55
Correct Answer: 45; 55
False
Mature leukocytes lack a nucleus.
Answer
Selected Answer: False
Correct Answer: False
are maintained by an extensive capillary network
Cardiac muscle cells
Answer
have smooth ER but no T tubules.
form the heart valves.
are maintained by an extensive capillary network.
develop a significant oxygen debt during systole.
circumflex artery
Occlusion of which of the following would primarily damage the left ventricle?
Answer
circumflex artery
pulmonary artery
right marginal artery
coronary sinus artery
the resting membrane potential is hyperpolarized
Lowered extracellular potassium levels will lower the heart rate because
Answer
the resting membrane potential is hyperpolarized.
ectopic action potentials occur.
action potential amplitude declines.
more sodium channels open.
AV valves close.
When ventricular pressure exceeds atrial pressure, the
Answer
AV valves close.
atria pump blood into the ventricles.
ventricle is in diastole.
blood is pumped into the atrium.
the mitral (bicuspid) valve opens
When left atrial pressure exceeds left ventricular pressure
Answer
left ventricular ejection begins.
aortic blood pressure begins to rise.
the mitral (bicuspid) valve opens.
ventricular volume decreases.
apex of the heart.
Ventricular contraction begins at the
Answer
AV bundle.
apex of the heart.
base of the heart.
superior portion of the interventricular septum
prevents tetanic contractions of the cardiac muscle.
The long refractory period observed in cardiac muscle
Answer
prolongs depolarization of the cardiac muscle.
prevents tetanic contractions of the cardiac muscle.
ensures that the heart has adequate time to contract.
prevents the heart rate from slowing dow
aorta.
During the ejection phase of the cardiac cycle, blood the
Answer
aorta.
coronary sinus.
pulmonary vein.
superior vena cava
myocardium
During the ejection phase of the cardiac cycle, blood the
Answer
aorta.
coronary sinus.
pulmonary vein.
superior vena cava
infarction.
Coronary artery disease can diminish myocardial blood flow resulting in the death of myocardial cells. This condition is known as a myocardial
Answer
infarction.
angina.
necrosis.
cirrhosis
visceral layer of the serous pericardium.
The innermost layer of the pericardial sac is the
Answer
fibrous pericardium.
parietal layer of the serous pericardium.
visceral layer of the serous pericardium.
myocardium.
connect the flaps of the AV valves to the papillary muscles
The chordae tendineae
Answer
connect the atria to the ventricles.
are found in the interventricular septum.
are part of the conducting system of the heart.
connect the flaps of the AV valves to the papillary muscles.
If cardiac muscle fibers are slightly stretched, they have a stronger contraction force.
Which of the following statements regarding intrinsic regulation of the heart is true?
Answer
Stretching the SA node will decrease generation of action potentials in the node.
Decreased venous return increases cardiac output.
The heart's pumping effective
the opening of sodium fast channels.
Depolarization of a cardiac muscle cell occurs as the result of
Answer
a decrease in the permeability of the cell membrane to sodium.
the opening of sodium fast channels.
closure of voltage-gated calcium channels.
the opening of potassium slow channels.
atrial depolarization
The P wave of an ECG indicates
Answer
atrial depolarization.
atrial repolarization.
ventricular depolarization.
ventricular repolarization.
pectinate muscles--muscles that close valves
Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
Answer
endocardium--covers the inner surface of the heart
myocardium--cardiac muscle
trabeculae carneae--interior walls of ventricles
pectinate muscles--muscles that close valves
closing of calcium slow channels--plateau phase
Which of the following is mismatched?
Answer
opening of sodium fast channels--depolarization
closing of calcium slow channels--plateau phase
opening of potassium channels--rapid repolarization
systole.
The time between S1 and S2 is called
Answer
systole.
diastole.
ventricular filling.
a heart murmur.
lungs
An incompetent pulmonary semilunar valve could result in less blood reaching the
Answer
lungs.
heart muscle.
right ventricle.
aorta.
AV node
Which of the following areas of the conduction system would produce spontaneous action potentials most frequently if the SA node were not functioning?
Answer
AV bundle
Purkinje fibers
AV node
bundle branch
the inner lining of the heart.
E.Z. Goen is admitted to the cardiac unit with a diagnosis of endocarditis. When E.Z. asks the nurse where the infection is located, the nurse replies that the infection is in
Answer
the outer layer of the heart wall.
the inner lining of the heart.
a memb
opening of calcium slow channels
The plateau phase seen during the action potential of a cardiac muscle cell is due to the
Answer
sodium-potassium pump.
opening of sodium fast channels.
opening of calcium slow channels.
closure of chloride fast channels.
this area depolarizes more rapidly than any other portion of the conduction system
The cardiac electrical impulse normally begins spontaneously in the SA node because
Answer
of the superior location of the SA node in the right atrium.
the SA node is the only area of the heart capable of spontaneous depolarization.
of the rich sympatheti
a decrease in the frequency of action potentials in the conduction system.
Excess potassium ions in cardiac tissue cause
Answer
an increased heart rate.
a rapid repolarization of cardiac cells.
a decrease in the frequency of action potentials in the conduction system.
an increase in stroke volume.
depolarization
The spontaneous opening of sodium fast channels marks the beginning of ____ of a myocardial cell.
Answer
depolarization
repolarization
hyperpolarization
isopolarization
left atrium.
An incompetent mitral valve may cause blood to back up into the
Answer
aorta.
left atrium.
left ventricle.
coronary circulation.
SA node
The "pacemaker" of the heart is the
Answer
right bundle branch.
left bundle branch.
AV node.
SA node.
blood supply to cardiac muscle.
Angina pectoris is chest pain caused by reduced
Answer
stimulation of the myocardium.
blood supply to cardiac muscle.
fluid in the pericardial sac.
contractility of the heart.
ac
From the right ventricle, blood flows into the _____.
anchors cardiac muscle fibers
The skeleton of the heart
Answer
helps to support the coronary arteries.
anchors cardiac muscle fibers.
contains osseous tissue.
prevents the backflow of blood in the heart.
pulmonary semilunar valve
The valve located between the right ventricle and the pulmonary trunk is the
Answer
aortic semilunar valve.
pulmonary semilunar valve.
tricuspid valve.
mitral valve.
left atrium.
Blood in the pulmonary veins returns to the
Answer
right atrium.
left atrium.
right ventricle.
left ventricle.
cardiac output.
The product of the stroke volume and the heart rate is known as the
Answer
end-diastolic volume.
end-systolic volume.
cardiac output.
cardiac reserve
the arterial pressure that the ventricles must overcome to eject blood
Afterload is
Answer
the name given to an increase in end-diastolic volume.
the arterial pressure that the ventricles must overcome to eject blood.
the amount cardiac output must increase during exercise.
another name for venous return.
chronic stress
Which of the following might increase the risk for cardiovascular disease?
Answer
stopping smoking
exercise
maintaining normal cholesterol levels
chronic stress
prepotential
Which of the following events occurs first?
Answer
threshold
depolarization
repolarization
prepotential
the heart rate to decrease.
Increased vagal stimulation would cause
Answer
the heart rate to decrease.
the heart rate to increase.
no change in heart rate.
C. SA node, AV node, AV bundle, Purkinje fibers
Which of the following represents the correct sequence of flow of an electrical impulse through the heart?
A. AV node, AV bundle, Purkinje fibers, SA node
B. SA node, Purkinje fibers, AV node, AV bundle
C. SA node, AV node, AV bundle, Purkinje fibers
D. A
D. medulla oblongata
Nervous regulation of the heart originates in the
A. cerebrum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. medulla oblongata
D. ventricular repolarization
The T wave on an EKG is due to
A. atrial depolarization
B. ventricular depolarization
C. atrial repolarization
D. ventricular repolarization
D. interatrial and interventricular septa
Internally, the right and left halves of the heart are separated by the
A. pulmonary semilunar valve
B. atrioventricular valve
C. papillary muscles
D. interatrial and interventricular septa
C. backflow of blood into the atria
Tension in the chordae tendineae and papillary muscles during ventricular systole prevent
A. contraction of the atria
B. blood flow into the aorta and pulmonary trunk
C. backflow of blood into the atria
D. closing of the AV valves
A. contains autorhythmic fibers that repeatedly generate action potentials
The sinoatrial node
A. contains autorhythmic fibers that repeatedly generate action potentials
B. is connected to the AV node by way of Purkinje fibers
C. transmits impulses directly to the ventricular myocardium
D. is another name for the atrioventricula
B. produces the second heart sound
The closing of the semilunar valves
A. directs blood flow into the atria
B. produces the second heart sound
C. corresponds with atrial systole
D. produces the EKG P wave
B. coronary sinus
Veins in the myocardium drain into the
A. posterior ventricular artery
B. coronary sinus
C. marginal artery
D. anterior interventricular artery
C. ventricular pressure drops
When the ventricles relax
A. the semilunar valves are forced open
B. blood flows back into the atria from the ventricles
C. ventricular pressure drops
D. the foramen ovale opens
C. superior vena cava, inferior vena cava, and coronary sinus
The right atrium receives blood directly from 3 vessels. They are the
A. superior vena cava, inferior vena cava, and left internal jugular vein
B. superior vena cava, coronary sinus, and left internal jugular vein
C. superior vena cava, inferior vena cava
D. diastole
The left ventricle refills with blood in preparation for initiation of the next cardiac cycle during ventricular
A. systole
B. contraction
C. repolarization
D. diastole
C. ventricular fibrillation
Asynchronous, haphazard, ventricular contractions are characteristic of
A. interventricular septal defect
B. coarctation of the aorta
C. ventricular fibrillation
D. Tetralogy of Fallot
C. increased heart rate and force of contraction
Release of norepinephrine from nerve fibers causes
A. decreased heart rate and force of contraction
B. increased heart rate but decreased force of contraction
C. increased heart rate and force of contraction
D. decreased heart rate but increased force of
C. both atrioventricular valves closing during ventricular systole
The first heart sound is associated with
A. both semilunar valves closing during ventricular diastole
B. pulmonary semilunar and tricuspid valves closing during ventricular diastole
C. both atrioventricular valves closing during ventricular systole
D. aor
C. right atrium, tricuspid valve, right ventricle, pulmonary semilunar valve
Which of the following represents the correct pathway of blood moving from the superior vena cava to the lungs?A. pulmonary semilunar valve, right atrium, tricuspid valve, right ventricle
B. right atrium, pulmonary semilunar valve, right ventricle, tricus
B. parasympathetic and cause decreased heart rate
Nerve impulses that reach the heart by means of the vagus nerve are
A. parasympathetic and cause increased heart rate
B. parasympathetic and cause decreased heart rate
C. sympathetic and cause increased heart rate
D. sympathetic and cause decreased heart
C. K+ moves out of the cell
During repolarization of a cardiac muscle fiber
A. Na+ moves out of the cell
B. both Na+ and K+ move into the cell
C. K+ moves out of the cell
D. K+ moves into the cell
B. is the only site where action potentials can conduct from the atria to the ventricles
The atrioventricular (AV) bundle (bundle of His)
A. is composed of Purkinje fibers
B. is the only site where action potentials can conduct from the atria to the ventricles.
C. contains fibers that hold the atrioventricular valves closed during systole
D.
A. to the left of midline of the thoracic cavity
Most of the heart lies
A. to the left of midline of the thoracic cavity
B. to the right of midline of the thoracic cavity
C. with the base directed to the left
D. with apex pointing to the right
A. tricuspid
Blood flows from the right atrium to the right ventricle through the _____ valve.
A. tricuspid
B. aortic semilunar
C. pulmonary semilunar
D. bicuspid
D. 6300 mL/minute
What is the cardiac output of a patient with a stroke volume of 70 mL/ventricular contraction whose heart rate is 90 beats/minute?
A. 70 mL/minute
B. 90 beats/minute
C. 160 mL/minute
D. 6300 mL/minute
B. increase contractility of the heart
Positive inotropic agents
A. have no effect on contractility of the heart
B. increase contractility of the heart
C. decrease contractility of the heart
D. decrease stroke volume with a constant preload
C. inflow of Ca2+
The plateau phase of the action potential in cardiac muscle is due to
A. outflow of Ca2+
B. outflow of Na+
C. inflow of Ca2+
D. inflow of K+
C. ventricular depolarization
Ventricular systole is caused by
A. atrial depolarization
B. atrial repolarization
C. ventricular depolarization
D. ventricular repolarization
A. the volume of blood that enters the heart during diastole directly affects the force of contraction at systole
The Frank-Starling law of the heart states that
A. the volume of blood that enters the heart during diastole directly affects the force of contraction at systole
B. a reduction in body temperature results in lowered heart rate
C. each period of systole mu
C. atrial myocardium depolarizes
Which of the following occurs during that portion of the EKG designated as the P wave?
A. high pressure in the ventricles opens the A-V valves
B. high pressure in the aorta and pulmonary trunk open the A-V valves
C. atrial myocardium depolarizes
D. ventri
B. trabeculae carneae
The ridges formed by raised bundles of cardiac muscle fibers on the internal surface of the
ventricles are called the
A. desmosomes
B. trabeculae carneae
C. fossa ovalis
D. ligamenta arteriosa
C. fibrous pericardium
The outer layer of the heart, called the epicardium, is also the
A. visceral layer of the pericardium
B. parietal layer of the pericardium
C. fibrous pericardium
D. muscular wall of the heart
D. pulmonary edema
When the left ventricle fails, blood backs up in the lungs, causing
A. fibrillation
B. rheumatic fever
C. heart murmurs
D. pulmonary edema
C. increased stroke volume
During exercise, increased muscle contraction helps return more blood to the heart. This would lead to
A. increased heart rate
B. decreased heart rate
C. increased stroke volume
D. decreased stroke volume
B. the QRS to the T wave of the ECG
The plateau phase of depolarization of muscle fibers in the ventricles of the heart extends from
A. the P wave to the T wave of the ECG
B. the QRS to the T wave of the ECG
C. heart sound S2 to heart sound S1
D. heart sound S1 to heart sound S3
A. increased maximal cardiac output during strenuous exercise
Which of the following is a benefit of regular aerobic training?A. increased maximal cardiac output during strenuous exercise
B. decreased oxygen delivery to skeletal muscles
C. decreased stroke volume at rest
D. decreased size of the heart
B. mesoderm
Embryologically, the heart is a derivative of the
A. ectoderm
B. mesoderm
C. endoderm
D. placenta
A. rapid heart rate
Tachycardia refers to
A. rapid heart rate
B. slow heart rate
C. high blood pressure
D. low blood pressure
mediastinum
The _______ is a mass of tissue extending from the sternum to the vertebral column between the lungs.
pericardium
The protective membrane surrounding the heart is called the _______
cardiac tamponade
_______ is the compression that occurs on the heart when pericardial fluid builds up in the pericardium.
myocardium
The muscular portion of the heart is referred to as the _______
endocardium
The thin layer of endothelium lining the interior chambers of the heart is the _______.
bicuspid
The _______ valve allows blood to flow from the left atrium to the left ventricle.
pulmonary semilunar
Blood leaves the right ventricle through the _______ valve.
interatrial septum
The _______ prevents blood in the right atrium from mixing with blood in the left atrium.
aortic semilunar
Blood flows from the left ventricle into the aorta through the _______ valve.
stenosis
Failure of a heart valve to open fully is called _______.
insufficiency or incompetence
_______ is the inability of a heart valve to close fully.
anastomosis
A(n) _________is a connection between two arteries that supply the same region of the body.
reperfusion
Reestablishing blood flow to a blocked artery is called _______.
intercalated disks
Adjacent cardiac muscle fibers are connected by transverse thickenings of the sarcolemma called _______
systole
The term _______ refers to the phase of heart muscle contraction.
False
Oxygenated blood is found in the right ventricle.
True
The right atrium receives blood from the coronary sinus.
True
Chordae tendineae stabilize the bicuspid valve and prevent it from prolapsing
False
Blood enters the systemic circuit of blood flow by passing through the pulmonary valve
False
The interventricular septum separates the ventricles from the atria.
True
In a mitral valve prolapse, a portion of the bicuspid valve protrudes into the left atrium.
False
The coronary artery carries blood to the right atrium.
True
Gap junctions in the intercalated disks allow action potentials to pass from one cardiac muscle cell to another.
True
Purkinje fibers transmit the action potential from the apex of the heart to the ventricles
False
Cardiac muscle fibers produce much of their energy by way of anaerobic respiration.
False
Blood pressure is highest in the aorta during ventricular diastole
True
Cardiac output is the volume of blood ejected from the left ventricle into the aorta each minute.
False
Baroreceptors monitor changes in blood chemistry.
False
Bradycardia is a condition in which the resting heart rate is greater than 80 beats per minute
False
During fetal development, an opening called the foramen ovale allows blood in the right and left ventricles to mix
the more that the heart muscle is stretched, the greater the force of contraction.
The Frank-Starling Law of the Heart states that:
serous fluid.
The space between the parietal and visceral layers of the pericardium is normally filled with:
ventricles contract.
The atrioventricular valves close when the:
False
The endocardium forms the fibrous skeleton of the heart.
True
The visceral layer of the serous pericardium is also known as the epicardium.
Stroke volume must increase.
If acetylcholine is applied to the heart, but cardiac output is to
remain constant, which of the following would have to happen?
True
Blood in the left ventricle is oxygenated.
blood terbulence caused by the closing of the heart valves
The sound of a heart beat comes from:
SA node.
During the normal cardiac cycle, the atria contract when they are directly stimulated by the:
SA node, AV node, AV bundle, bundle branches, Purkinje fibers
Which of the following lists the elements of the heart's conduction system in the correct order?
the fluid compresses the heart so it can't beat normally.
Excess fluid filling the pericardial space interferes with the heart's pumping ability because:
False
The bicuspid valve is located between the right atrium and the right ventricle.
True
The papillary muscles anchor the chordae tendineae to the wall of the ventricles
prevent the AV valves from inverting during ventricular systole.
The function of the chordae tendineae is to:
ascending aorta.
Blood flows into the coronary arteries from the
myocardium
The layer of the heart wall responsible for its pumping action is the: