1. Which of the following is NOT a good example of a topic in the scientific study of child development?
a. cultural variations in children's play
b. biological changes that occur in the brain during infancy
c. the origins of public policies related to ch
C
2. Which of the following is NOT true about mind.
a. .it needs stimuli to activate it.
b. it is a system
c. "mental structures" like schemes, describe its organization
d. it changes through interactions with its environment.
A
3. Most broadly mind is composed of
a. perceptions, thoughts, memories
b. wishes, strivings, desires
c. cognition, conation, affect
d. judgments, decisions, consciousness
C
4. "Core consciousness"
a. is an early development feature of mind
b. is reflective awareness
c. involves a sense of self
d. all of the above
A
5. Developmental change is ordered change that is
a. selective
b. continuous
c. relatively permanent
d. reversible
C
6. (Lecture) Variational change exhibits
a. discontinuity
b. continuity
c. stagelike features
d. novel features
B
7. (Text) Which of the following correctly describes the sequence of the periods of development?
a. prenatal, infancy, middle childhood, adolescence
b. adolescence, prenatal, early childhood, infancy
c. infancy, early childhood, prenatal, adolescence
d. e
A
8. (Text) One of the first developmentalists to stress the importance of systematic observation was Wilhelm Preyer (1841-1897). In his view, careful observation was necessary to establish the ___________ of behavior and, hence, to see how behavioral patte
C
9. (Text). Alfred Binet developed the first intelligence test in order to:
a. identify schoolchildren who could use special education instruction.
b. predict the likelihood that individual children would be productive members of society.
c. rank all citiz
A
10. (Text). Critical periods in development:
a. occur in some animals but not in humans.
b. are thought to regulate bonding in human infants.
c. are times during which particular events must occur for development to proceed normally.
d. have been observed
C
11. (Text). Stages of development involve changes that are:
a. slow.
b. small.
c. qualitative.
d. quantitative.
C
12. (Lecture) Which of the following represents one of the broadest and most abstract of metatheories
a. mechanistic
b. nativist
c. empiricist
d. constructivist
A
13. (Lecture) Which of the following is associated with (influenced by) the Mechanistic metatheory
a. Lev Vygotsky's theory
b. John Bowlby's theory
c. B. F. Skinner's theory
d. Urie Bronfenbrenner's theory
C
14. (Lecture) The metatheory that views the person as a Steel Filing Cabinet (or computer) and the environment as a Filing Clerk is the
a. organismic
b. nativist
c. empiricist
d. constructivist
B
15. (Text). Theories are important for understanding child development because they:
a. provide systematic organization of many different observations.
b. guarantee agreement among researchers about what they see.
c. make it appear that child development
A
16. (Text). Whose theory emphasizes the fundamental role played by the sex drive in human development?
a. Freud
b. Piaget
c. Erikson
d. Bandura
A
17. (Text). Behavior modification is a strategy suggested by theorists to help address problem behaviors in children.
a. psychodynamic
b. social learning
c. constructivist
d. information-processing
B
18. (Text). The theorist who is known for his appreciation of the active role that children play in their own knowledge construction is:
a. Freud.
b. Bandura.
c. Piaget.
d. Bronfenbrenner.
C
19, (Text). occurs when a child modifies an existing schema to account for new experiences.
a. Accommodation
b. Assimilation
c. Modeling
d. Replication
A
20. (Lecture) The following were involved with both the Which One? And the How Much? nature-nurture questions.
a. .Nativists
b. Empiricists
c. Mechanists
d. All of the above.
D
21. (Lecture) According to your instructor "Heritability" is
a. A reliable measure of the impact of genes on a trait
b. A valid measure of the impact of genes on a trait
c. Both a reliable and valid measure of the impact of genes on a trait.
d. None of th
D
22. (Lecture) According to the Developmental Systems approach, psychological traits are
a. 100% biological and 100% environmental
b. .60% biological and 40% environmental
c. 60% environmental and 40% biological d. not related to biology
A
23. (Lecture) According to the Developmental Systems approach development always arises from the organized a. active system in its environment-cultural world b. reactive system in its environment-cultural world
c. biological system
d. genetic system
A
24. (Text). When two observers simultaneously observing the same infant agree on their descriptions of how upset she becomes when a pacifier is taken from her, it is an example of:
a. experimentation.
b. validity.
c. reliability.
d. replicability.
C
25. (Text). The type of study that compares the behavior of subjects exposed to an environmental change with the behavior of a control group not exposed to the change is:
a. an experiment.
b. a clinical study.
c. a correlational study.
d. naturalistic obs
A
26. (Text). A psychology instructor analyzing exam scores notices that the better her students performed on the lecture-based questions, the more poorly they performed on the textbook-based questions. She has discovered:
a. a zero correlation between scor
C
27. (Text). Which of the following questions is best answered using a longitudinal research design?
a. Do toddlers understand gender as well as 5-year-olds?
b. What is the sequence of a child's concept of gender development?
c. At what age do most childre
B
28. (Text) Culture is .
a. passed on through biological processes
b. composed of material and symbolic tools
c. limited to humans
d. stable over time
B
29, (Text) A tool is easy to observe because it exists "out there" in the world.
a. material
b. symbolic
c. cultural
d. mediator
A
30, (Text) Cultures:
a. remain stable over time.
b. transform as individuals modify their uses of cultural tools.
c. always evolve in advantageous ways.
d. undergo change on a predictable timeline.
B
31. (Text) The particular gene forms that individuals inherit are called:
a. genotypes.
b. recessive traits.
c. phenotypes.
d. monozygotic traits.
A
32. (Text) The process of meiosis produces:
a. the zygote.
b. germ cells.
c. conception.
d. somatic cells.
B
33, (Text) Germ cells reproduce by , whereas somatic cells reproduce by .
a. meiosis; mitosis
b. mitosis; meiosis
c. mitosis; mitosis
d. meiosis; meiosis
A
34. (Lecture) Gene Expression involves two steps of
a transcription/translation
b. translation/transcription
c RNA to DNA
d. protein to cell
A
35. (Lecture) Genes make
a. RNA
b. proteins
c. psychological traits
d. nothing
D
36. (Lecture) The contemporary preformist position claims that
a. Genotype codes for phenotype
b. Development is genocentric
c. Genetic activation & regulation produce phenotype
d. All of the above
D
37. (Lecture)Modern Epigenetic-Developmental Systems approach holds that ontogenetic resources are
a. Localized in the phenotype of the developing system
b. Localized in the genotype of the developing system
c. Dispersed through the developing system and
C
38. (Lecture) The idea that evolution does not explain development but rather development explains evolution is a statement of the
a. preformationist approach
b. epigenetic developmental systems approach
c. molecular biology
d. population genetics
B
39. (Text). Which represents the genetic sex of males?
a. XY
b. XO
c. XX
d. YY
A
40. (Text) A dominant allele:
a. expresses itself in heterozygous individuals.
b. is never expressed in heterozygous individuals.
c. is the result of the interaction among several recessive alleles.
d. has a phenotypic expression not affected by the envir
A
41. (Text). If not treated with a special diet, which of the following leads to mental retardation?
a. hemophilia
b. phenylketonuria
c. sickle-cell anemia
d. Down syndrome
B
42. (Text). Sickle-cell anemia is a good example of:
a. the influence of canalization.
b. the interaction of heredity and environment.
c. the impact of sex-linked disorders.
d. the always lethal outcome of genetic mutations.
B
43. (Lecture) Which of the following is true of genes:
a. They are self-replicating
b. They carry a blueprint
c. They code for proteins
d. None of the above
C
44. (Lecture) Epigenesis is development
a. that results from preformation
b. involving increasing system complexity and emergence
c. that is primarily genetic in nature.
d. that involves slow and continuous growth through RNA translation.
B
45. (Lecture) The idea that genotype directly predicts phenotype is a view held by
a. Contemporary developmental systems theorists
b. The field of developmental biology
c. Preformists
d. None of the above
C
46. (Lecture) The idea that there is no 1:2 relation between genotype and phenotype is called:
a. Phenotypical plasticity
b. Genotypical plasticity
c. Monogenetics
d. Polymorphisims
A
47. (Lecture) Transposons suggest that
a. the genome is not static and immutable during development
b. the genome is static and immutable during development
c. when they are available genetic development proceeds more smoothly
d. when they are available g
A
48. (Lecture)The fact that the Summer European map butterfly shows one pattern and color and the Spring European map butterfly shows a different pattern in the winter supports the idea of
a. the central dogma of of molecular biology
b. the idea of preform
C
49. (Lecture). Twin Studies that try to answer the "How Much" question of developmental causes
a. assume twins have very similar environments
b. assume twins have very different environments
c. assume the twins in the study were raised apart
d. none of th
A
50. (Lecture) According to the Developmental Systems approach, what explains development?
a. The interaction of biological and environmental causes
b. Primarily innate motivations
c. Actions of the person
d. The Socio-Cultural context
C
51. (Lecture). Which of the following is not true of an Act.
a. It reflects movements and states of the organism
b. It always intends some object.
c. It transforms the known world
d. It arises from the self-organizing system
A
52. (Lecture) Which feature of an act involves the projection of meaning onto the world:
a. embodiment
b. assimilation
c. accommodation
d. all of the above
B
1. The prenatal period of development is important to developmental theorists because:
a. they now understand the mechanisms by which the undifferentiated cells of the zygote first become the blastocyst and then the multitude of cells present at birth.
b.
B
2. Which of the following is a general principle of prenatal development?
a. It proceeds without interference from the environment.
b. It proceeds in an unpredictable order.
c. It proceeds evenly, with all systems developing at basically the same rate.
d.
D
3. During cleavage, cells do not all divide at the same time. This difference in rates of change is referred to as:
a. heterochrony.
b. totipotency.
c. heterogeneity.
d. meiosis.
A
4. "Totipotent stem cells" are those that:
a. can become different sorts of neural cells only.
b. can become tissue cells of any type, but cannot give rise to an entire organism.
c. can become an entire organism, or any type of tissue cell.
d. serve a ded
C
5. Variability in the levels of development of different parts of the organism at a given time is called:
a. heterochrony.
b. heterogeneity.
c. pluripotentiality.
d. totipotentiality.
B
6. Epigenesis is the process by which:
a. new forms of the zygote appear as a result of meiosis.
b. the zygote divides into four cells.
c. the multicellular mass becomes implanted in the uterus.
d. new forms of the zygote emerge from the interactions of t
D
7. The cephalocaudal pattern of development refers to which pattern of body development?
a. from the middle of the organism to its periphery
b. from the head down
c. from the periphery of the organism to its middle
d. upwards from legs and feet
B
8. The proximodistal pattern of development refers to which pattern of body development?
a. from the middle of the organism to the periphery of the organism
b. from the head down
c. from the periphery of the organism to the middle of the organism
d. upwar
A
9. Fetuses presented with light have been found to:
a. show no response.
b. change their heart rate.
c. decrease their movement.
d. increase their sucking rate.
B
10. Toward the end of gestation, the fetus can hear:
a. very little, since the uterus is a quiet place.
b. only the sounds of the mother's heart and her digestive system.
c. very little, since the sense of hearing is poorly developed until after birth.
d.
D
11. What is the role played by fetal activity?
a. It assists with normal development of muscles and limbs.
b. It does not play a significant role in fetal development.
c. It does not help the fetus develop, but it assists the parent in monitoring the fetu
A
12. Children whose mothers did not want them were ___________ compared to control children.
a. less likely to be breast-fed
b. more likely to be underweight at birth
c. less likely to have school-related problems later
d. less likely to be referred for ps
B
13. Studies have shown that a mother who is under stress secretes hormones, such as __________________, that pass through the placenta and have a measurable effect on the fetus's motor activity.
a. cortisol
b. myelin
c. guanine
d. hemoglobin
A
14. Which of the following makes it difficult to isolate the effects of poor nutrition?
a. Mothers who are undernourished are not good respondents in survey studies.
b. Multiple risk factors tend to coexist with undernourishment.
c. The high death rate fr
B
15. Which of the following makes it difficult to isolate the effects of poor nutrition?
a. Mothers who are undernourished are not good respondents in survey studies.
b. Multiple risk factors tend to coexist with undernourishment.
c. The high death rate fr
B
16. What is fetal alcohol syndrome?
a. an inherited tendency to become alcoholic
b. a set of malformations caused by excessive exposure to alcohol in utero
c. an inability to metabolize alcohol caused by prenatal exposure to alcohol
d. a set of malformati
B
17. Which of the following is NOT a true statement about prenatal development?
a. Sequencing is of minor relevance
b. Timing is crucial to development.
c. Development proceeds unevenly.
d. Development consists of differentiation and integration.
A
18. (Lecture) Heinz Werner's "Orthogenetic Principle" states that all development involves a variations and continuities
b differentiation and integration
c a biological determinism
d a genetic determinism
B
19. Which of the following babies would receive the highest Apgar score, all other things equal?
a. heart rate below 100, good crying, and body with extremities pink all over
b. heart rate above 100, good crying, and body pink with extremities blue
c. hea
C
20. The Brazelton Neonatal Assessment Scale is used to:
a. assess the developmental progress of infants.
b. compare the functioning of infants of different cultures.
c. predict aspects of newborns' future developments, such as temperament.
d. All of the a
D
21. (Lecture) The primary function of the Occipital lobe of the brain is
a Abstract thinking, planning
b Touch, spatial orientation
c Vision
d Speech comprehension
C
22. (Lecture) Information is transmitted from one neuron to another at the
a Axon
b Myelin Sheath
c Nucleus
d Synapse
D
23. Experience-expectant processes of brain development .
a. are the result of specific individual experiences
b. have been found in chick embryos and rats, but not in humans
c. anticipate certain experiences that are typically universal for humans
d. all
C
24. The development of neural connections initiated in response to experience is called a(n) _____________ process.
a. cultural
b. evolutionary
c. experience-expectant
d. experience-dependent
D
25. Which of following has occurred when a newborn stops attending to a repeatedly presented stimulus?
a. modeling
b. habituation
c. classical conditioning
d. operant conditioning
A
26. (Lecture) In the days when behaviorism was the accepted story of development the newborn was considered _________________ with respect to sensory and motor systems..
a incompetent
b competent
c highly competent
d super competent
A
27. (Lecture) The sensory, motor, relational action systems are:
a available at birth
b available at birth and explained by biology c available at birth and explained by the environment
d. available by the 5th prenatal month
A
28. (Lecture) The idea that at birth actions are coordinated comes from
a Learning Theory
b Operant Theory
c the Incompetent Infant story
d the Competent Infant story
D
29. (Lecture) The Pre-Adapted Action System that is designed to keep infant and caregiver in close proximity is called the
a Sensory system
b Motor system
c Sensory-motor system
d Relational system
D
30. Newborns have been found to show a preference for the sound of:
a. human voices.
b. low-pitched tones.
c. instrumental music.
d. very loud noises to very soft noises.
A
31. Studies of newborn infants' auditory preferences demonstrate that:
a. Infants prefer to hear foreign languages more than their own language.
b. Infants prefer the sound of the human voice to other types of sounds.
c. Infants prefer low-pitched voices
B
32. Which factor(s) appears to be responsible for blurry vision in early infancy?
a. immaturity of the lens of the eye
b. immaturity of the retina of the eye
c. immaturity of the neural pathway from the retina to the brain
d. All of the answers are correc
D
33. When looking at images of faces, newborns prefer:
a. images that have jumbled features over those with normal configurations.
b. images that are stationary to those that move in front of them.
c. images that depict a stranger over those that depict so
D
34. Nursing involves coordination of:
a. the rooting and sucking reflexes alone.
b. sucking, breathing, and swallowing by the infant.
c. infants' sucking behaviors with the behaviors of their caregivers.
d. infants' mothers' behaviors, with little contrib
B
35. Temperamental characteristics such as activity level or intensity of reaction to a situation are thought to be:
a. present at birth.
b. established during the first month of life.
c. established by 1 year of age.
d. established by 2 years of age.
A
36. According to Thomas and Chess's ratings of temperament, babies who adapt quickly to circumstances, are playful, and are regular in their biological functions are labeled:
a. easy.
b. pleasant.
c. emotional.
d. unemotional.
A
37. What seems to be the best research-based conclusion about the outcomes of co-sleeping for infant development?
a. Co-sleeping is clearly stressful for the infant.
b. Except in rare cases, co-sleeping does not seem to make a great deal of difference.
c.
B
38. According to Piaget, infants' earliest schemas are:
a. the action systems they have at birth.
b. learned through reinforcement or lack of reinforcement.
c. sensory in nature, but not presently including a motor component.
d. conditioned responses lear
A
39. When they perform primary circular reactions, infants:
a. repeat pleasurable actions for their own sake.
b. perform reflexes elicited by environmental events.
c. perform actions in order to receive reinforcement from adults.
d. avoid performing action
A
40. (Lecture) Conditioning Theories
a focus primarily on discontinuous development
b explain the development of novel forms of behavior
c are best for explaining infant rather than childhood development
d play little role in explaining development
D
41. (Lecture) According to Piaget development is explained by
a action
b assimilation
c accommodation
d all of the above
D
42. (Lecture) According to Piaget's theory the first mental organization develops
a at birth
b within the first three weeks
c around 3 months
d through schemes
C
43. (Lecture) Core consciousness appears
a at birth
b within the first three weeks
c around 3 months
d around 6 months
C
44. (Lecture) According to the Adhesive model of the mother-infant relationship, the glue binding the two is
a. innate
b biologically determined
c based on feeding
d based on pre-adapted action systems
C
45. (Lecture) Harlow's experiments raising monkeys on wire mothers did not support the_____________ model of mother-infant relationships
a. dynamic systems
b behaviorist
c organismic
d relational
B
46. (Lecture) The emotions theory that the Neonate begins with a neural system prewired to sense various emotions/feelings given appropriate situation in which to express them, is a part of the
a Nativist model
b Empiricist model
c Behaviorist model
d Dev
A
1. The area of the brain thought to be crucial for the appearance of the ability to inhibit impulses is the:
A. brain stem.
B. hippocampus.
C. cerebral cortex.
D. prefrontal cortex.
D
2. Changes in the prefrontal cortex between 7 and 9 months of age seem to be important for the emergence of:
A. complex reflexes.
B. impulse inhibition.
C. simple reflexes.
D. speech recognition.
B
3. According to Piaget, infants between the ages of 4 and 8 months act on the world through:
A. their inborn reflexes.
B. primary circular reactions.
C. secondary circular reactions.
D. a well-developed understanding of object permanence.
C
4. Brandy, age 5 months, has become interested in objects and will repeat actions with them that happen by chance. Piaget would say Brandy is engaging in what type of activity?
A. primary circular reactions
B. secondary circular reactions
C. tertiary circ
B
5. At which substage of Piaget's sensorimotor period would you expect to first see children engaging in trial-and-error experiments on the world around them?
A. substage 3
B. substage 4
C. substage 5
D. substage 6
C
6. The hallmark of the fourth sensorimotor substage is:
A. simple reflexive activity.
B. focus on external objects.
C. the ability to prolong pleasurable activities.
D. the ability to coordinate actions to achieve a goal.
D
7. Which circular reactions are characterized by the use of systematically varied action sequences?
A. tertiary
B. primary
C. secondary
D. coordinated
A
8. In substage 6 of the sensorimotor period, children's play becomes more:
A. rigid.
B. concrete.
C. impulsive.
D. imaginative.
D
9. Which of the following statements might Piaget have made about the new modes of thought that occur near the end of the second year of life?
A. Children begin to think in a new way near the end of the second year of life because of the expectations thei
C
10. A girl who sees a windup toy move under the bed runs around to meet it on the other side. This is behavior we might see in a child who is in of the sensorimotor period:
A. substage 3
B. substage 4
C. substage 5
D. substage 6
D
11. (Lecture) Some have argued that "the formation of mental representations depends heavily on experience." This statement is one that Piaget would A agree with B disagree with as it is based on schemes C disagree with as it is based on operations D igno
A
12. (Lecture) The "self" that emerges at substage 6 of the sensorimotor period is the A ecological self
B volitional self
C symbolic self
D reflective self
C
13. (Lecture) Some have argued that "the formation of mental representations depends heavily on experience." This statement
A is critical of Piaget's position
B is in agreement with Piaget's position
C is irrelevant to Piaget's position
D fails to conside
B
14. The ability to recognize themselves in the mirror:
A. has been observed in all species of primates.
B. is demonstrated by human infants from the first weeks of life.
C. is demonstrated by human infants beginning at about 18 months of age.
D. is demons
C
15. According to Piaget, we can infer that infants understand that objects continue to exist when out of sight if they:
A. are at least 6 months of age.
B. actively search for the hidden objects.
C. show no sign of worry when the objects disappear.
D. can
B
17. Which of the following statements best describes infants' behaviors toward novel objects?
A. Infants ignore novel objects, preferring to interact with familiar objects.
B. Infants attend to novel objects only after they have sufficiently processed mor
B
19. In a series of experiments, Rovee-Collier and her colleagues demonstrated that infants of various ages could learn to activate a mobile by kicking, and that merely seeing the mobile at a later date would lead to kicking. These studies demonstrate that
B
20. (Lecture) Recall memory is
A. based on signals
B. based on symbols
C. acquired at the beginning of the sensorimotor stages
D . absent in infancy
B
21. (Lecture) Implicit memory is
A related to signal recognition
B related to symbolic recall
C memory for how to do things
D memory of facts and events
A
22. (Lecture) Declarative memory is
A related to signal recognition
B related to symbolic recall
C memory for how to do things
D memory of facts and events
D
23. Differential Emotions Theory argues that new emotions .
A. are innate and emerge according to a biologically determined timetable
B. emerge from more general positive and negative reactions
C. emerge due to reciprocal interactions with adults
D. emerg
A
24. Which of the following is an example of a self-conscious emotion?
A. love
B. fear
C. pride
D. surprise
C
25. (Lecture) Happy (joy, elation), sad, fear, anger, surprise, disgust are
A. primary feelings
B. primary emotions
C. secondary feelings
D. secondary emotions
B
26. (Lecture) Embarrassment, shame, pride, guilt, jealousy are
A. primary affects
B . primary emotions
C. secondary affects
D . secondary emotions
D
27. (Lecture) Fear
A is present shortly after birth
B appears at about 3-4 months
C appears after acquiring a permanent object
D is explained best as being innate
C
28. (Lecture) Stranger fear
A appears present shortly after birth
B appears at about 3-4 months
C has maximum intensity at 12 months
D has maximum intensity at 18 months
C
29. (Lecture) Both stranger and separation are best explained by
A. Nativism
B. learning principles
C. differentiation emotions theory
D. scheme discrepancy
D
30. (Lecture) Separation fear is reduced when A. the infant learns to crawl and walk
B. the infant acquires secondary emotions
C. the infant becomes familiar with a stranger
D. the infant develops an volitional self
A
31. An infant's smiles are truly social when they:
A. occur in response to changes in brain waves.
B. are triggered by sights and sounds from outside.
C. occur during sleep as well as during waking times.
D. occur in response to, and elicit the smiles of,
D
32. How do typically developing babies react when their mothers stop responding to them in a normally responsive manner?
A. They make deliberate attempts to reengage their mothers by smiling and cooing.
B. They become fussy and avert their gaze.
C. They s
B
33. Research suggests that maternal depression influences parent-child interactions in which of the following ways:
A. Mothers who suffer from depression are overly animated with their infants, causing infants to disengage from interactions.
B. Mothers wh
B
35. At about what age do the first overt signs of distress at separation from their mothers appear in infants?
A. 3 months
B. 5 months
C. 7 months
D. 10 months
C
37. Freud suggested that babies become attached to those who satisfy their need for:
A. food.
B. sleep.
C. exploration.
D. contact comfort.
A
38. An example of a biological drive is:
A. hunger.
B. attachment.
C. myelination.
D. physical growth.
A
39. Harlow's initial monkey studies using wire and cloth "mothers" were carried out in order to test the role of which of the following in the formation of attachment?
A. trust
B. memory
C. autonomy
D. drive reduction
D
40. Which theory of attachment did Harlow's monkey studies help to rule out?
A. the social theory
B. the evolutionary theory
C. the drive-reduction theory
D. the developmental systems theory
C
41. Harlow's studies of attachment in monkeys support which ideas about attachment?
A. Freud's drive reduction theory
B. Skinner's conditioning theory
C. Ainsworth's strange situation theory
D. Bowlby's theory
D
42. From observations of the adult behavior of surrogate-raised monkeys, it has been concluded that:
A. inanimate surrogates can make perfectly acceptable mother substitutes for infant monkeys.
B. an adequate amount of milk is both necessary and sufficien
C
45. (Lecture) According to Bowlby crying, sucking, clinging, smiling are
A. learned responses
B. innate rewponses
C. reflections of the infant's basic biological needs
D. reflections of a pre-adapted mental system
D
46. (Lecture) Bowlby's "Stage of Clear Cut Attachment" corresponds to
A. mother becoming a "secure base"
B. the emergence of the volitional self
C. the beginning of extended consciousness D. all of the above
D
47. "Secure base" is the term that John Bowlby used to describe the:
A. physical changes that allow the child to balance while walking on two legs.
B. psychological changes that allow the child to think about absent objects.
C. social changes that make it
D
48. The term "internal working model" is associated with which theoretical perspective on attachment?
A. Freud's drive-reduction theory
B. Erikson's psychosocial theory
C. Bowlby's ethological theory
D. Harlow's maturational theory
C
49. According to Bowlby, infants achieve a firm, reciprocal emotional relationship with
caregivers, and this relationship helps the infant cope with increasing frequent and lengthy separations. Because of infants' growing symbolic capacities, parent-child
C
51. In avoidant attachment, as measured in the "strange situation":
A. infants cry when their mothers leave the room, and seek them out for comfort when they return.
B. infants appear anxious in their mother's presence, and are more relaxed and playful wh
C
52. Children rated as falling into the _______ category of attachment are indifferent to the presence of their mother in the "strange situation," while children in the _______ category stay close to their mother and appear anxious even when she is near.
A
B
53. What is the basic purpose of the "strange situation" procedure?
A. to determine whether or not infants are being neglected or abused by caregivers
B. to investigate whether infants are sufficiently independent from their caregivers for healthy develop
C
55. Which of the following accurately describes research on father-infant attachment?
A. Infant-father pairs are more likely to demonstrate insecure patterns of attachment than infant-mother pairs.
B. Infant-father attachment relationships depend on fathe
B
56. Under what conditions would you most expect a baby to become securely attached to a childcare provider?
A. when the child is in care for over 20 hours per week
B. when the child's care provider is female
C. when the child's parents do not offer sensit
D
58. Research on fathers as caregivers indicates:
A. they respond as sensitively to their babies feeding rhythms as do mothers.
B. when fathers are judged to be sensitive caregivers, their babies are as attached to them as they are to their mothers.
C. bot
C
59. Jay Belsky is prominent among those who believe extensive time spent in infant out-of-home care during the first year of life:
A. has no significant effect.
B. is likely to lead to insecure patterns of attachment.
C. can be beneficial in developing th
B
60. Jay Belsky has reported negative effects of out-of-home care for:
A. infants under one year of age who spend any time in out-of-home care.
B. infants under one year of age who spend more than 20 hours/week in out-of-home care
C. children under 3 years
B
61. At present, the most comprehensive study by the U.S. government on the effects of daycare has found a slight negative relationship between the hours young children spend in day care and:
A. attachment relationships.
B. social behavior.
C. intellectual
D
62. Ainsworth and Bell found that infants who later behaved as though they were securely attached had mothers who had been rated during early infancy as more:
A. verbal.
B. passive.
C. controlling.
D. responsive.
D
63. In order to develop a secure attachment, mothers and infants need to be:
A. part of a cohesive family.
B. together most of the time.
C. responsive to one another.
D. frequently left alone together.
C
64. Which family influences have been found to affect attachment?
A. poverty
B. marital difficulties
C. a only
D. a and b
D
66. Chisholm's 1998 study of children adopted from Romanian orphanages found that:
A. none of the children recovered from their early low level of stimulation in the orphanage.
B. children adopted before the age of 4 months were indistinguishable from nat
B
67. As long as the environment supports the use of their internal working models of how to behave toward others:
A. children will be psychologically well adjusted.
B. any changes in children's behavior should be due to heredity factors.
C. there should be
C
68. Which of the following is an example of social referencing?
A. A child "shaves" alongside his father.
B. A newborn cries when she hears another newborn in the nursery crying.
C. A 1-year-old, approached by a strange cat, looks over to see his mother's
C
69. Which theorist proposed that the resolution of conflicts at each stage of development throughout the lifetime allows people to acquire new skills?
A. Freud
B. Skinner
C. Erikson
D. Bowlby
C
70. According to Erikson, during the first year of life, children must resolve the conflict between:
A. trust and mistrust.
B. initiative and guilt.
C. exploration and security.
D. autonomy and shame and doubt.
A
71. (Lecture) Which of the following is NOT true concerning speech.
A. it is one of the subsystems of language
B. it is pre-adapted
C. early words are used differently by child and adult
D. it can be taught
A
72. (Lecture) The fact that speech develops prior to symbols A. means that speech is the fundamental building block of language
B. suggests that much of language is innate since speech sounds are pre-adapted
C. means that phonemes are the basic building b
D
73. (Lecture) Language is a system of arbitrary A. Signs, signals, and symbols B. Signs and symbols
C. Symbols
D. Phonemes and morphemes
C
74. (Lecture) Which of the following is not a subsystem of the language system
A Phonetics
B. Semantics
C. Syntax
D. Pragmatics
A
75. (Lecture) When a child hears a word, the question of how she/he comes to pick out the correct thing in the world is called the ___________ problem.
A reference
B. semantic
C. syntactic
D. pragmatic
A
76. Which of the following is NOT evidence that children are born into the world predisposed to attend to language and communicate with people around them?
A. At birth, children show a preference for language sounds over other kinds of sounds.
B. Children
B
77. At birth children:
A. must be taught to attend to language.
B. show a preference for language over other sounds.
C. produce basic sounds in all languages through babbling.
D. can differentiate the basic sound categories of only their language.
B
78. Primary intersubjectivity refers to:
A. a baby's use of cooing before the secondary stage of the sound repertoire, babbling.
B. social referencing.
C. a baby's use of the cry signal starting at birth.
D. sharing feelings as a result of organized face-
D
79. Organized, reciprocal interaction between an infant and caregiver is known as:
A. primary intersubjectivity.
B. secondary intersubjectivity.
C. social referencing.
D. jargoning.
A
80. Damage to a specific part of the brain that leads to an inability to comprehend language is known as:
A. Broca's aphasia.
B. Wernicke's aphasia.
C. Williams syndrome.
D. hemispheric aphasia.
B
82. American adults are likely to modify their speech to children to:
A. complicate their own utterances.
B. increase the opportunity to use gestures.
C. immediately correct children's grammatical errors.
D. match the level of complexity in the children's
D
83. A child calls all farm animals "horsey." This is an example of:
A. overextension.
B. underextension.
C. intermediate abstraction.
D. the mediated character of language.
A
84. At what age would a parent expect the rate of children's vocabulary acquisition to increase dramatically?
A. 6 months
B. 12 months
C. 18 months
D. 30 months
C
85. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the dramatic increase in vocabulary acquisition that occurs in toddlerhood?
A. Adults of toddlers intensify their efforts to teach word meanings.
B. Toddlers demonstrate increasing abilities to
B
87. The rules that govern both the sequence of words in a sentence and the ordering of parts of words are called:
A. referents.
B. grammar.
C. semantics.
D. deep structure.
B
88. The process of using grammar to learn the meaning of new words is known as:
A. referential intent
B. syntactic bootstrapping
C. fast mapping
D. chronology
B
89. Utterances such as, "Sarah eated fast":
A. are usually learned by imitation.
B. are rarely if ever made by children.
C. show that children have some grasp of grammatical rules.
D. provide evidence that children rarely confuse grammatical forms.
C
90. If an infant holds up her cup and says "more" in order to get more juice, she is using:
A. recursion.
B. a protoimperative.
C. a protodeclarative.
D. the cooperative principle.
B
91. A protoimperative is:
A. always verbal.
B. a way of referring.
C. not considered conversational in nature.
D. a way of engaging another person in order to achieve a desired object.
D
92. The fact that children begin to use certain words (e.g., "gone") at the time they begin to solve certain associated problems (e.g., object permanence) is used as the main support for which aspect of language acquisition?
A. the innate language acquisi
B
94. According to Piaget, young children who take turns speaking but do not appear to be having a true dialogue are engaged in:
A. syntactic bootstrapping.
B. cultural modeling.
C. formatted events.
D. collective monologues.
D