Phys 2161 - Final Exam

What are 2 things that determine a person's blood type?

1. Antibodies found in plasma
2. Biomolecules found on the surface of RBC (surface antigens)

Antibodies are also called ______________

Immunoglobulins

What provides RBC's with the characteristics of specificity?

Plasma antibodies and surface antigens

Enzymes are compatible with ____________

Specific substrates

What happens to one's blood when they are given the wrong blood type?

Agglutination or clumping of the blood

What type of antibodies does those with type A blood have?

Anti-B

What type of antibodies does those with type B blood have?

Anti A

What type of antibodies does those with type AB blood have?

None

What type of antibodies does those with type O blood have?

Anti A and B

What type of antigen does those with type A blood have?

A antigen

What type of antigen does those with type B blood have?

B antigen

What type of antigen does those with type AB blood have?

A and B antigens

What type of antigen does those with type O blood have?

None

Can a person with type A blood donate to a person with type B blood?

No

Can a person with type A blood donate to a person with type AB blood?

Yes

Be able to do a genetic cross using blood types

...

When performing a genetic cross, we can represent O with a ___________

Lower case i

What works together to circulate blood, nutrients and oxygen throughout the body?

Heart and blood vessels

The heart's contractions and rhythm is initiated by the _____________

Sinoatrial node (SA node)

The SA node passes the signal to the ____________

Atrioventricular node (AV node)

What part of the heart makes modifications to the heart's contractions and rhythm?

AV node

The cardiovascular system is innervated by nerves arising from the ___________

ANS

The heart is innervated by __________________ nerve fibers

Parasympathetic and sympathetic

What nerve innervates the AV node?

Left vagus

What nerve innervates the SA node?

Right vagus

______________________ nerve fibers innervate both the AV and SA node

Parasympathetic nerve fibers

What part of the brain controls the flow of blood through the cardiovascular system?

Medulla oblongata

What nerve fibers increase heart rate and contractility?

Sympathetic nerve fibers

What nerve fibers decreases heart rate?

Parasympathetic

What center increases heart rate?

Cardioacceletory center

What center decreases heart rate?

Cardioinhibitory center

What is mediated by adrenergic receptors?

Cardioacceletory center; sympathetic nerve fibers

Adrenergic receptors receive ______________

Norepinephrine

What is mediated by muscarinic receptors?

Cardioinhibitory center; parasympathetic fibers

What type of receptors receives Ach?

Muscarinic receptors

What is considered one cardiac cycle?

Beginning of one heartbeat to the beginning of the next

What are the 4 stages of the cardia cycle?

Ventricular filling
Isovolumetric contraction
Ventricular ejection
Isovolumetric relaxation

Aka diastole

Ventricular filling

What happens during ventricular filling?

Ventricles fill with blood; ventricles are at rest

What happens during isovolumetric contraction?

Ventricles contract but do not eject blood

What happens during ventricular ejection?

Ventricles eject blood through the atrioventricular valves

Systole aka

Ventricular ejection

What happens during isovolumetric relaxation?

The heartbeat has ended and prepares to move into ventricular filling

What can we use to monitor and study the heartbeat?

Electrocardiogram

How does the electrocardiogram monitor the heart?

Records waves of depolarization of structures within the heart

What identifies depolarization of the atria, ventricles and perkinje fibers?

QRS complex

P wave =

Depolarization of atria

Q wave =

Depolarization of ventral septum

R wave =

Depolarization of ventricles

S wave =

Depolarization of Perkinje fibers

T wave =

Repolarization of ventricles

What represents depolarization of ventricular muscle cells?

QRS complex

What are the 3 jobs of the digestive system?

1. processes food (digestion)
2. extracts nutrients from it (absorption)
3. eliminates the residue (defecation)

The digestive system provides material for _______________

Cell division, growth and development

What are organs of the alimentary canal?

Oral cavity
Pharynx
Esophagus
Stomach
SI
LI

What are accessory organs of the digestive system?

Salivary glands
Liver
Pancreas

What has a continuous tube that opens to the external environment at both ends?

Alimentary canal

What is the process of hydrolyzing larger food molecules (polymers) into absorbable monomers?

Digestion

For materials to reach the inner cells of the body what must happen?

Pass through epithelial cells of the digestive tract into the blood (absorbed)

What parts of SI become specialized for absorption?

Villi and microvilli

Review what happens during digestion
(In PowerPoint)

...

What are 2 types of metabolism?

Anabolism and catabolism

What type of reactions build large molecules out of smaller ones?

Anabolic

What type of reactions require input of energy?

Anabolic reactions

What type of reactions break down (hydrolyze) large molecules into their subunits?

Catabolic reactions

What type of reactions release the subunit molecules into the blood?

Catabolic

What type of reactions are endergonic?

Anabolic

What type of reactions are exergonic?

Catabolic

Diet maintains 4 things:

1. Supply of nutrients to body cells
2. Energy source for fuel
3. Growth
4. Replacement of worn out parts

What are 6 nutrient classes recommended for daily consumption?

1. Carbohydrates
2. Fats
3. Proteins
4. Vitamins
5. Minerals
6. Water

What can only provide energy measured in Kilocalories?

Carbohydrates, fats and proteins

1 gram of carbohydrate = ______ kilo calories of energy

4

1 gram of fat = ______ kcal

9

1 gram of protein = ____ kcal

4

_______ calories = 1 kilocalorie

1000

What are examples of lipids?

Triglycerides, phospholipids and steroids

What are artificially prepared by hydrogenating vegetable oils?

Trans fats

What raise LDL cholesterol ("bad cholesterol")?

Saturated fats and trans fatty acids

What lower the HDL ("goof cholesterol")?

Saturated fats and trans fatty acids

Nutrients that do not contribute energy to the body do not require _____________

Digestion

What facilitates the absorption of fat soluble vitamins which are absorbed from the small intestines?

Digestion, emulsification and absorption of lipids

Recommended daily calorie intake for women?

1200-1400

Recommended daily calorie intake for men?

2000-3000

Recommended daily intake of carbohydrates?

175 g/day

Recommended daily intake of fats?

greater than 30% of daily calorie intake

Recommended daily intake of protein?

44-60 g/day (15% of daily calorie intake)

Recommended daily intake of cholesterol?

Greater than 200 mg/dL

Recommended daily intake of water?

1 mL per 1 kcal of energy

Body weight depends on ________________

Balance between anabolism and catabolism (balance between intake and use of energy)

The balance between anabolism and catabolism is influenced by the intake of energy from food molecules and is regulated by ____________________

Peptide hormones

What regulates the balance between anabolism and catabolism?

Hypothalamus

How do we gain weight?

More energy is taken into the body than what can be used (anabolism predominated)

The shifts in metabolism are regulated by ___________________

levels of hormone secretion

BMI =

height-to-weight ratio

BMI stands for

Body mass index

How do we figure out BMI?

body weight/height (meters) squared (W/h2)

What is the minimum amount of energy required by the body at rest?

Basal metabolic rate (BMR)

Most of our caloric output is spent when?

At rest

Saliva contains what enzyme and what does that enzyme do?

Amylase; breaks down starches into polysaccharides and disaccharides

The bolus passes through the esophagus pass the ___________ to enter the stomach

Cardiac sphincter

Where does the stomach end?

Pyloric sphincter

What do we call the liquid that results from the mechanical and chemical activity of the stomach with the bolus?

Chyme

What are the 2 functions of the stomach?

Store food after ingestion
Regulate the flow of food into the SI

What is the major site for food degradation and absorption of food molecules into the body?

SI

What does the pancreas produce?

Lipase
Sodium bicarbonate

What does lipase break down?

Fats

What is the pH of the stomach?

1.5

What does sodium bicarbonate do?

Neutralizes the chyme as it enters the SI

What does the liver secrete?

Bile

Where is bile stored?

Gall bladder

What increases the surface area for absorption?

Villi and microvilli

Chyme is transformed into ______

Feces

What are the 2 functions of the LI?

Concentrate chyme by removing water
Contains bacteria which produce vitamins K and B

What factors are examined when looking at a urine sample?

Appearance and color
Odor
pH
specific gravity

What is the end product breakdown of hemoglobin?

Urachrome

The color of urine depends on the concentration of the pigment ______________

Urachrome

What might a pale yellow urine color indicate?

diabetes insipidus
granular kidney
or can be very dilute due to a large intake of water

What might a milky color urine indicate?

Fat globules or pus corpuscles and possibly indicated a UTI

What might reddish color urine indicate?

Due to food pigments, certain drugs or blood in the urine

What might a greenish color urine indicate?

Bile pigment or certain bacterial infections

What might a brown-black urine color indicate?

metallic poisonings, hemorrhages due to things like renal injury or malaria

A fishy smell of urine may indicate what?

Cystitis

A fecal smell of urine may indicate what?

Intestinal urinary fistula

What conditions could be present if the urine is "sweet-tasting"?

Diabetes or acetonuria

What is the average urine pH?

4.5-8.0

What could lower pH?

Fever and acidosis

What could raise pH?

Anemia, vomiting and renal retention

What do we call the measure of the density of a substance compared to the density of water?

Specific gravity

What is the usual specific gravity range of urine?

1.015-1.025

Specific gravity is inversely proportional to _________________

Urine volume

A high specific gravity can indicate what disease?

Nephritis or diabetes mellitus

A low specific gravity can indicate what disease?

Nephritis

What hormone does a pregnancy test recognize?

human chorionic gonadotropin

Common crystals may be present normally in ___________________________

Acid, neutral or alkaline urine

Abnormal types of crystals are almost always associated only with _____________

Acid or neutral urine

What represent cylindrical molds formed in the renal tubular lumina?

Cast

How are cast formed?

Precipitation of proteins and agglutination of cells within the renal tubules

What are the major classes of casts?

Hyaline
Epithelial
Granular
Fatty
Waxy
RBC
WBC

Where do cast originate from?

Renal parenchyma

What can the presence of albumin in the urine indicate?

Kidney malfunction since one of the functions of the kidneys is to filter out albumin and glucose and return it to the body

The presence of glucose can indicate what disease?

Diabetes mellitus

Diabetes mellitus is characterized by ______________

Insulin deficiency

What is a hallmark of diabetes?

Increase concentration of blood sugar levels

What are symptoms of diabetes mellitus?

Excessive urine output, dehydration accompanied by thirst and increased appetite

If one has diabetes what else can be found in the urine?

Ketones

What disease may a person have when he or she suddenly begins a very low carb diet?

Ketones

Phenylketonuria is a failure of what?

The body to produce the enzyme necessary to oxidize phenylalanine

How many people suffer from PKU?

1 in every 11,000

How does one get PKU?

Its a recessive trait (so both parents have to have it)

How is PKU tested in babies?

Not by urine test but blood test by a prick in the foot

After birth, how many weeks may past before phenylpruvic acid is excreted into the urine?

2-6 weeks

State laws require PKU testing within _______________

28 days or less

Oxygen is transported through the blood bound to _______________

Hemoglobin

What is the structure of hemoglobin?

4 subunits (2 alpha and 2 beta) and 4 heme groups

What is the byproduct of cellular metabolism?

Carbon dioxide

Where does constant gas exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide take place?

Capillaries

What is the total volume of air that the lungs contain?

Lung capacity

When studying pulmonary compliance there are 2 main factors being observed:

Gas/air and volume

What is the volume of air inhaled and exhaled in one cycle during regular breathing? Average measurement?

Tidal volume; 500 mL

What do we call the amount of air in excess of tidal volume that can be exhaled with maximum effort? Average measurement?

Expiratory reserve volume; 1200 mL

What do we call the amount of air in excess of tidal volume that can be inhaled with maximum effort? Average measurement?

Inspiratory reserve volume; 3000 mL

What do we call the remaining air in the lungs after maximum expiration? Average amount?

Residual volume; 1300 mL

What do we call the total amount of air that can be inhaled and then exhaled with maximum effort? Average amount?

Vital capacity; 4700 mL

How do we find vital capacity?

ERV + TV + IRV

What do we call the maximum amount of air the lungs can contain? Average amount?

Total lung capacity; 6000 mL

How do we calculate total lung capacity?

RV + VC

What is the percentage of the vital capacity that can be exhaled in a given time interval?

Forced expiratory volume