MICROBIOLOGY FINAL STUDY GUIDE

The microbes commonly known as _____ are single-celled eukaryotes that are generally motile.
A) viruses
B) fungi
C) archea
D) protozoa
E) bacteria

D

The microbial production of alcohol from sugar is known as
A) antisepsis
B) abiogenesis
C) pasteurization
D) metabolism
E) fermentation

E

Which of the following statements about fungi are FALSE?
A) fungi are eukaryotes
B) fungi have a cell wall
C) molds form hyphae
D) yeasts are unicellular
E) fungi are photosynthetic

E

The study of the body's defenses against pathogens is called
A) chemotherapy
B) immunology
C) epidemiology
D) molecular biology
E) etiology

B

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of viruses?
A) they are smaller than prokaryotic cells
B) they are visible with a light microscope
C) they are composed of genetic material and protein
D) they are obligatory parasites
E) they are acellular

B

Which of the following was NOT an aspect of Pasteur's experiments to disprove spontaneous generation?
A) the flasks were free of microbes until they were opened.
B) the flasks were incubated for very long periods of time.
C) he boiled infusions to kill an

E

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of protozoa?
A) they are single-celled organisms
B) they frequently possess cilia or flagella
C) they are the microbes most similar to plants
D) most exhibit asexual reproduction
E) They are eukaryotic organi

D

Which of the following scientists was first to develop a taxonomic system for classifying organism?
A) Pasteur
B) Linnaeus
C) Needham
D) Lister
E) Leewenhoek

B

Which of the following is NOT an observation Pasteur made concerning the fermentation of groups
A) yeasts cells can grow and reproduce in grapefruit juice
B) bacteria produce acid in grape juice
C) yeast can grow in sealed or open flasks of grape juice
D)

E

The work of Lister, Nightingale, and Semmelweis all contributed to controlling infectious disease by
A) developing methods for reducing nosocomial infections
B) developing vaccines
C) identifying sources of infectious agents
D) determining the taxonomic r

A

Using a microscope you observe an amoeba moving toward a food source. This is an example of
A) reproduction
B) responsiveness
C) growth
D) cellular structure
E) metabolism

B

Which of the following is NOT a component of bacterial flagella?
A) hook
B) basal body
C) filament
D) flagellin
E) tubulin

tubulin

Which of the following bacterial cell structures plays an important role in the creation of biofilms?
A) pili
B) glycocalyx
C) flagella
D) fimbriae
E) fimbriae and glycocalyces

E

Short, hairlike structures used only by eukaryotic cells for movement are called
A) fimbriae
B) pili
C) cilia
D) flagella
E) psuedopodia

C

A bacterial cell moving toward light would be an example of
A) positive chemotaxis
B) tumbles
C) negative chemotaxis
D) positive phototaxis
E) negative phototaxis

D

Lipid A is also known as
A) mycolic acid
B) teichoic acid
C) lipopolysaccharide
D) endotoxin
E) pilin

D

Bacteria of the Genus mycoplasma are distinguished from other bacterial cells by
A) absence of cell wall
B) absence of cytoplasmic membrane
C) the presence of mycolic acid in their cell walls
D) unique ribosomes
E) cell walls composed solely of amino acid

A

Lipid-Soluble molecules would be expected to cross the cytoplasmic membrane by which of the following processes?
A) facilitated diffusion
B) active transport
C) group translocation
D) osmosis
E) diffusion

E

ATP is expended in which of the following processes?
A) facilitated diffusion
B) diffusion
C) active transport
D) both active transport and group translocation
E) group translocation

D

The glycocalyx of a eukaryotic cell performs all of the following functions EXCEPT
A) cellular recognition and communication
B) strengthening the cell surface
C) anchoring cells to each other
D) transfer of genetic material between cells
E) protection aga

D

Which of the following is unique to archea?
A) peptidoglycan
B) LPS
C) hami
D) fimbriae
E) pili

C

When cells are placed in a hypertonic solution, they lose water and shrivel. This process is called
A) endocytosis
B) crenation
C) plasmalemma
D) periplasm
E) passive transport

B

Which of the following is classified as a membranous organelle of eukaryotes?
A) endoplasmic reticulum
B) cytoskeleton
C) ribosome
D) centriole
E) both C and D

A

Which of the following processes require a carrier protein?
A) diffusion
B) endocytosis
C) facilitated diffusion
D) activated transport
E) both C and D

E

Which of the following chemical substances contributes to the unique characteristics of acid-fast bacteria?
A) lipoteichoic acid
B) endotoxin
C) mycolic acid
D) N-acetylglucosamine
E) peptidoglycan

C

The ability of a lease to gather light is referred to as its
A) magnification
B) resolution
C) refraction
D) contrast
E) numerical aperture

E

Which of the following is (are) (a) magnifying lens(es)?
A) dark-field stop
B) objective
C) ocular
D) condenser
E) both B and C

E

Why does immersion oil improve resolution?
A) it increases numerical aperture and maintains a uniform speed of light
B) it increases the angle of refraction of the site of light
C) it decreases the working distance
D) it allows light to travel at uniform

A

If you were trying to visualize flagella without staining, which microscope would you use?
A) phase-contrast
B) dark-field
C) fluorescent
D) bright-field
E) confocal

A

If a microbiology lab technician left the safranin out of the gram stain procedure, what would be the result?
A) G+ cells are pink, G- cells purple
B) all cells purple
C) G+ cells purple, G- colorless
D) G+ colorless, G- pink
E) all cells pink

C

A patient suffering from tuberculosis could be diagnosed by use of _____ stain.
A) flagellar
B) endospre
C) gram
D) acid-fast
E) capsule

D

Which of the following staining procedures use(s) heat to drive the stain in?
A) endospore stain
B) gram stain
C) acid-fast stain
D) capsule stain
E) Both A and C

E

Carl Woese proposed the concept of the domain based on differences of which of the following cellular molecules?
A) proteins
B) transfer RNA
C) ribosomalRNA
D) membrane lipids
E) DNA

C

Which category of microbe is NOT included in Whittaker's taxonomic scheme?
A) fungi
B) animals
C) protista
D) viruses
E) bacteria

D

Why have some microbiologists proposed using rRNA as a basis for defining bacterial species?
A) bacteria are not interbreeding populations and rRNAs are highly covered genes present in all prokaryotes
B) bacteria vary too little in their physical and bioc

A

Which of the following phenomena produces magnification?
A) numerical aperture of lens
B) wavelength of a radiation source
C) refraction of radiation as it passes through a lens
D) the thickness of a microscope specimen
E) the length of an objective lens

C

A virologist wants to observe the surface features of virus particles she is studying. Which of the following microscopes would NOT be useful for her observations?
A) atomic force
B) scanning tunelling
C) differential interference contrast
D) transmission

C

Which of the following statements about Transmission Electron Microscopy is false?
A) electrons are the source of illumination
B) stains can be applied to improve contrast
C) glass lens are used
D) the sample is placed in a vacuum
E) thin segments must be

C

A cell that uses organic carbon source and obtain energy from light would be called?
A) chemoheterotroph
B) lithoautotroph
C) chemoautotroph
D) photoautotroph
E) photoheterotroph

E

A(n) _____ organism is one that requires oxygen for growth.
A) aerotolerant
B) anaerobic
C) obligate aerobic
D) facultative anaerobic
E) both A and B

C

A microbe that grows only at the bottom of a tube of thioglycollate medium is probably a(n)
A) obligate aerobe
B) obligate anaerobe
C) aerotolerant anaerobe
D) microaerophile
E) facultative anaerobe

B

At temperatures higher than the maximum growth temperature for an organism,
A) proteins are permanently denatured
B) hydrogen bonds are broken, proteins are features, and membrane becomes too fluid.
C) membranes become too fluid for proper function
D) hyd

B

MacConkey agar plates represent _____ medium.
A) a differential
B) a selective
C) a minimal
D) both A and B
E) both B and C

D

During which growth phase are bacteria more susceptible to antimicrobial drugs?
A) death phase
B) log phase
C) lag phase
D) the susceptibility is the same for all phases
E) stationary phase

B

The use of salt and sugar in preserving various types of foods is an application of which of the following concepts?
A) osmotic pressure
B) hydrostatic pressure
C) pH
D) nitrogen fixation
E) quorum sensing

A

Microbes that move by mean of cilia are _____.

Protozoa

A cell that contains a nucleus is called a(n) _____ cell.

eukaryotic

A(n) _____ is a type of glycocalyx that is firmly attached to the cell.

capsule

The total magnification using a 10 ocular and a 100 objective would be?

1,000

The bacterial chromosome is
A) found in a nucleoid
B) found in a nucleus
C) usually circular
D) both A and C
E) both B and C

D

Which of the following statements is true of bacterial plasmids?
A) they can replicate autonomously.
B) they carry genes for essential metabolic functions.
C) they are found in the nucleoid.
D) they are small circular DNA molecules that can replicate auto

D

Beta-lactam antibiotics have an effect on which of the following types of cells?
A) fungal cells
B) virus-infected cells
C) bacterial cells
D) animal cells
E) both A and D

E

Which of the following is NOT a target of drugs that inhibit protein synthesis?
A) movement of the ribosome from one codon to the next
B) interference with alanine-alanine bridges
C) the shape of the 30S ribosomal subunit
D) the tRNA
E) the enzyamtic site

B

Which of the following must be removed from a eukaryotic mRNA molecule before it can be translated?
A) intron
B) anticodon
C) exon
D) codon
E) promoter

A

Which of the following is involved in translation?
A) rRNA
B) tRNA
C) mRNA, rRNA, and tRNA are all involved
D) both mRNA and RNA
E) mRNA

C

Semiconservative DNA replication means that
A) nucleotides are constantly being recycled as cells make DNA.
B) each daughter DNA molecules is composed of one original strand and one new strand.
C) the cell can proofread its newly synthesized DNA only part

B

Which of the following statements regarding eukaryotic transcription is FALSE?
A) multiple transcription factors are required.
B) transcription occurs in the nucleus, mitochondria, and chloroplasts (if present).
C) there are four different RNA polymerases

D

A charged tRNA first enters the ribosomal _____ site and then moved into the _____ site.
A) E,A
B) P,A
C) A,E
D) P,E
E) A,P

E

DNA helicases
A) synthesize short DNA molecules important for he function of DNA polymerase.
B) assist in recognition of promoters during transcription.
C) seals gaps between DNA fragments.
D) break hydrogen bonds between complementary nuccleotides.
E) pr

D

Which of the following statements about the zone of inhibition is FALSE?
A) the larger the zone, the more resistant the organism is.
B) it is a result of diffusion of the drug out of the paper disk.
C) it is a clearing zone with no growth.
D) it is measur

A

Probiotics
A) involve the use of extracts from microorganisms.
B) is a term for resistance to antibiotics.
C) are an alternative to use of chemotherapy.
D) are an alternative to use of chemotherapy involving microbial antagonism.
E) involve microbial anta

D

Most drugs that inhibit the synthesis of the cell wall act by
A) disrupting the formation of mycolic acid layer of the cell wall.
B) preventing the cross-linkage of NAM subunits.
C) preventing the formation of alanine-alanine bridges.
D) preventing the fo

B

Most broad-spectrum antibiotics act by
A) inhibiting metabolic pathways.
B) inhibiting nucleic acid synthesis.
C) inhibiting protein synthesis.
D) inhibiting the synthesis of the cell wall.
E) disrupting the cytoplasmic membrane.

C

It is appropriate to prescribe antibacterial agents to treat colds or the flu because
A) these diseases are transmitted by endospores, which are hard to kill.
B) these diseases can act synergistically with each other.
C) these diseases are caused by virus

C

Which of the following statements is true of selective toxicity?
A) Selective toxicity takes advantage of structural and/or metabolic differences between host and pathogen.
B) Selective toxicity takes advantage of structural differences between host and p

A

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of okazaki fragments?
A) they begin with an RNA primer
B) they are checked for accuracy by DNA polymerase III
C) they are longer in eukaryotic cells.
D) they make up the lagging strand of replicated DNA.
E) t

C

Which of the following are considered to be a frameshift mutation.
A) inversions
B) deletions
C) insertions
D) A and C
E) B and C

E

The horizontal transfer process known as transduction
A) requires a cell to be "competent"
B) involves a mutagen
C) requires a plasmid
D) requires a pilus
E) involves a virus

E

If the codon AAA is changed to AAG, it still codes for the amino acid lysine; this is an example of a
A) silent mutation
B) gross mutation
C) nonsense mutation
D) frameshift mutation
E) missense mutation

A

Put the following steps in the correct order needed to produce a recombinant vector containing a human gene insert.
I - Introduce the recombinant plasmid into a bacterial cell.
II - Isolate the human gene and the vector DNA using restriction enzymes.
III

D

Which of the following restriction enzyme sites would produce blunt-ended fragments?
A) A/AGCTT
B) C/CGG
C) G/AATC
D) CCC/GGG
E) G/GATCC

D

Which of the following is essential in PCR?
A) DNA ploymerase
B) DNA primase
C) antisense RNAs
D) reverse transcriptase
E) both A and B

E

If a researcher used Escherichia coli DNA polymerase instead of Thermus aquaticus DNA polymerase in the PCR procedure, what would be the result?
A) PCR would stop after one cycle
B) PCR would only occur more slowly than normal
C) PCR would not occur at al

PCR would stop after one cycle

Which of the following would be an appropriate sequence of temperatures for PCR? (in degree celcius)
A) 94 C, 37 C, 55 C
B) 65 C, 72 C, 94 C
C) 94 C, 65 C, 72 C
D) 72 C, 65 C, 94 C
E) 94 C, 55 C, 37 C

C

If you started with a single DNA molecule, how many would you have at the end of six PCR cycles?
A) 32
B) 16
C) 100
D) 64
E) 4

D

Which of the following devices is used for PCR?
A) an electrophoresis chamber
B) a DNA sequencer
C) a gene gun
D) a nucleic acid synthesis machine
E) a thermocycler

E

Which of the following procedures might be used to detect the presence of genetic sequences of a virus in a patients blood?
A) creation of a gene library
B) electroporation
C) genome mapping
D) southern blotting
E) xenotransplantation

D
*PCR can also be used

An effective tool for screening a large number of genetic sequences at once is known as
A) gel electrophoresis
B) restriction analysis
C) cDNA synthesis
D) micro array
E) F.I.S.H

D

Which of the following is true of disinfectants?
A) disinfectants are effective in destroying endospores.
B) disinfectants are used on living tissue.
C) disinfectants are used for sterilization.
D) disinfectants are only effective for short periods of tim

E

Which of the following is an example of sterilization?
A) A surgeon washes her hands before surgery.
B) heat is used to kill potential pathogens in apple juice.
C) an autoclave machine is used to prepare nutrient agar.
D) a nurse prepares an injection sit

E

In gel electrophoresis, DNA molecules move toward the _____ electrode because they have an overall _____ charge.
A) negative and positive, neutral
B) positive, positive
C) positive, negative
D) negative, negative
E) negative, positive

C

Which of the following would NOT be bacteriostatic?
A) autoclaving
B) refrigeration of mesophiles
C) freezing below 0 C
D) lyophilization
E) desiccation

A

Which of the following is most appropriate pairing of microbe and bio-safety level?
A) tuberculosis, BSL-1
B) E. coli, BSL-3
C) antrhax, BSL-1
D) ebola, BSL-2
E) methicillin - resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA), BSL-2

E

Which of the following types of radiation is non-ionizing and has the shortest wavelength?
A) infrared radiation
B) gamma rays
C) ultraviolet light
D) X rays
E) microwaves

C

Which of the following describes flash pasteurization?
A) passing liquid through steam at 140 C
B) heating at 72 C for 15 seconds
C) heating at 134 C for one second
D) heating at 72 C for 15 minutes
E) heating at 63 C for 30 min

B

Which of the following procedures is currently the standard test used in the United States for evaluating the efficiency of antiseptics and disinfectants?
A) microbial death rate
B) in-use test
C) use-dilation test
D) phenol coefficient
E) thermal death p

C

Which of the following would be used to sterilize a mattress?
A) heavy metals
B) autoclaving
C) radiation
D) formaldehyde
E) ethylene oxide

E

A library of cloned sequences representing the expressed genes of an organism is known as a(n)
A) FISH library
B) gene library
C) DNA fingerprinting
D) micro array
E) cDNA library

E

The abbreviation _____ stands for the smallest amount of a drug that will inhibit the growth and reproduction of a pathogen.

MIC (minimum inhibitory concentration)

Extrachromosomal pieces of DNA called _____ promote horizontal transfer of genes among bacteria and contribute to the spread of antimicrobial resistance.

plasmids

Nucleic acid molecules used to deliver new genes to cells are called _____.

vectors

A(n) _____ is a specific sequence of nucleotides that codes for a protein or an RNA molecule.

gene

The _____ of a transfer RNA molecule is a complimentary to a codon in a messenger RNA molecule.

anticodon

_____, first isolated from bacterial cells, cut DNA molecules at specific sites.

restriction enzymes

_____ means that a given antimicrobial agent is more toxic to a pathogen than to the host being treated.

selective toxicity

Sterilization procedures generally focus on inactivating or eliminating bacterial.

endospres

Central Dogma of Genetics

replication, transcription, translation

An antimicrobial that inhibits cell wall synthesis will result in which of the following?
A) cells become more susceptible to osmotic pressure
B) the replication of cells, including cancer cells, slow down.
C) Ribosomes lose their function.
D) The sterols

A

Which of the following correctly describes the order of a PCR reaction?
A) denaturation, extension, priming
B) extension, priming, denaturation
C) denaturation, priming, extension
D) priming, extension, denaturation
E) extension, denaturation, priming

C

Which of the following correctly describes the steps and proteins involved in DNA replication?
A) DNA polymerase unwinds DNA double strands.
B) DNA helicase breaks hydrogen bonds and separate two DNA strands
C) DNA strands are formed from 3' end to 5' end

B

Which of the following is a characteristic of Okazaki fragments.
A) they begin with a promoter region.
B) they are checked for accuracy by primase.
C) they are longer in eukaryotic cells.
D) they make up the lagging strand of replicated DNA.
E) they are j

D

If the codon AAA is changed to UAA, it codes for a stop codon, this is an example of a
A) silent mutation
B) gross mutation
C) nonsense mutation
D) frameshift mutation
E) missense mutation

C

A charged tRNA leaves the translation complex from ribosomal _____ site, and then it can be recycled.
A) E
B) P
C) A
D) D
E) F

A

If the codon AAA is changed to AGA, it codes for a new amino acid; this is an example of a
A) silent mutation
B) gross mutation
C) nonsense mutation
D) frameshift mutation
E) missense mutation

E

Which of the following is a characteristic shared by DNA and RNA polymerases?
A) efficiency of proofreading
B) dependance of helicase
C) types of nucleotides used
D) direction of polymerization/elongation
E) speed

D

Which of the following restriction enzymes site would produce blunt ended fragments?
A) A/AGCTT
B) C/CGG
C) G/AATTC
D) C/CCGGG
E) GGA/TCC

E

The horizontal transfer process known as conjugation
A) requires a cell to be "competent"
B) involves a mutagen
C) requires a plasmid
D) requires a pilus
E) involves a virus

D

Which of the following characteristics is shared by the skin and mucous membranes?
A) they both have cilia
B) lysozymes are always present
C) the outer layer are composed of dead cells
D) they are both constantly shedding and replacing cells
E) sebum may

D

The residual body is
A) a type of granule in a granulocyte
B) the union of a phagosome with lysosomes
C) the remains of a phagosome after digestion
D) the attachment of a phagosome to the surface of a pathogen
E)a dead phagocyte

C

The complement cascade and its by products contribute to
A) triggering inflammation
B) triggering inflammation and attracting phagocytes of infection.
C) triggering release of interferons
D) attraction of phagocytes to sites of infection
E) triggering inf

B

_____ molecules determine which epitopes elicit an immune response because TCRs only recognize antigens presented by APC through this molecule.

MHC

What is the most efficient and cost effective way to control infectious diseases?
A) autoimmunization
B) active immunization by vaccination
C) passive immunotherapy using immunoglobulins
D) immune testing
E) variolation

B

Which of the following cells increase in number during a helminth infection?
A) macrophages
B) basophiles
C) eosinophils
D) lymphocytes
E) neutrophils

C

Which of the following statements regarding antibody is FALSE?
A) they can facilitate cytotoxic attack by natural killer lymphocytes
B) they can facilitate phagocyte attack on bacteria with a capsule
C) they can bind more than one pathogen at a time, form

E

Which of the following is (are) activities of neutrophils?
A) formation of neutrophil extracellular traps, phagocytosis, and production of nitric oxide.
B) enzyme production that leads to the formation of nitric oxide
C) formation of neutrophil extracellu

A

Which of the following statements regarding the cell mediated immune response is true?
A) cytotoxic T lymphocytes interact with antibodies that have bound antigen to identify their target
B) cytotoxic T lymphocytes do not require antigen presentation to b

C

Blood stem cells located in the bone marrow produce the three types of formed elements found in the blood. This process is called _____.

hematopoiesis

Which of the following describes the stages of phagocytosis correctly?
A) Adherence, Chemotaxis, Ingestion, Maturation, Killing, Elimination
B) Chemotaxis, Adherence, Maturation, Ingestion, Killing, Elimination
C) Chemotaxis, Adherence, Ingestion, Maturat

C

Which of the following would test positive for the tuberculin response?
A) someone who has previously been injected subcutaneously with tuberculin
B) someone who has been immunized with the tuberculosis vaccine
C) someone who has been immunized with the t

D

Which of the following statements concerning specific immunity is FALSE?
A) it is the third line of defense
B) it is acquired
C) it is the body's ability to respond to specific pathogens
D) it changes little with repeated exposure to the same pathogen
E)

D

A sick child may have influenza A or B. The child's antibody titer test results are as follows: anti-influenza A antibodies are all IgA and IgG, and anti-influenza antibodies are primarily IgM. Which of the following is the most appropriate interpretation

C

Major histocompatibility complex are
A) glycoproteins found in the cytoplasmic membranes of most vertebrate animal cells
B) antigens that provoke allergic reactions
C) not really antigens, but rather antibodies produced to mask foreign substances
D) antig

A

Which of the following statements about T lymphocytes is FALSE?
A) There are fewer types of T cell receptors than B cell receptors, and therefore the T lymphocyte cannot react with as many types of antigens.
B) T lymphocytes are major players in the cell-

A

The body recognizes antigens by the three-dimensional shapes of regions known as _____.

epitopes

Protection from infection known as species resistance is a result of
A) the salty, acidic condition of normal skin.
B) the lack of suitable environment in the body.
C) the absence of receptors required for microbial attachment
D) both the absence of neces

D

When a T cell and an antigen-presenting cell interact, a specialized contact called a(n) _____ forms between them.

synapse

Which of the following is an example of type I hypersensitivity reaction?
A) the tuberculin response
B) farmer's lung
C) deposition of immune complexes in the kidney
D) watery eyes after exposure to animal dander
E) destruction of RBC's after an incompati

D

An infected cell uses MHC I molecule to present an endogenous antigen to an unactivated Th lymphocyte, then this Th lymphocyte will develop into a mature _____ lymphocyte to help cell-mediated immunity.

Th 1

Which of the following cytokines act as a signal between leukocytes?
A) interleukins
B) tumor necrosis factors
C) chemokines
D) interferons
E) growth factors

A

Which of the following substances stimulates the phagocytic activity of phagocytes?
A) antiviral proteins
B) alpha interferons
C) beta interferons
D) leukotrines
E) gamma interferons

E

Which of the following statements concerning the alternative complement system is true?
A) it plays a very significant role in the elimination of parasitic helminths.
B) it is not useful in the early stages of fungal infection
C) its activation is indepen

C

The key player that activates the alternative pathway of complement system is _____.
A) C3
B) C5
C) C2
D) C4
E) C1

A

Which of the following is true about the basic structure of the antibody molecule?
A) antibody molecule is composed of two peptide chains
B) the tow identical short chains are known as heavy chains
C) the two identical long chains are called light chains

D

Alpha and beta interferons
A) help protect virus-infected cells from the effects of the pathogen
B) protect the cells that secrete them from being invaded by a virus
C) produce no adverse effects in the body
D) are produced by infected fibroblasts and mac

D

MACs are
A) the initial trigger for the classical complement system
B) the initial trigger for the alternative complement system
C) the end result of only the alternative complement system
D) the end result of both classical and alternative complement sys

D

Killed vaccines work by stimulating
A) the production of antibodies
B) the action of Th1 cells.
C) cytotoxic T cells
D) the cell-mediated immune response
E)lymphocyte proliferation

A

Which of the following statements concerning B cell receptors (BCRs) is FALSE?
A) They are bound to the surface of B lymphocytes and have two antigen-binding sites.
B) Scientists estimate that each person forms at least 10^23 different types of B lymphocy

C

Which of the following statements regarding ELISAs is true?
A) They can be used to detect antibody or antigen
B) They are very labor intensive
C) They involve the use of membrane filters
D) The antibody label is a fluorescent molecule
E) They require larg

A

Which cell becomes a macrophage when leaving the bloodstream?
A) eosinophil
B) lymphocyte
C) neutrophil
D) monocyte
E) basophil

D

Which of the following is the key difference in the roles of the classical and alternative pathways of the complement system?
A) triggering inflammation
B) production of chemotactic factors
C) the formation of MACs
D) the effectiveness in killing gram-neg

E

Antibodies act against foreign antigens in many ways. Which of the following includes the correct mechanisms of their actions?
A) neutralization, osponization, activation of complement cascade, ADCC, conjugation
B) agglutination, neutralization, osponizat

B

Which is a component of body's second line of defenses?
A) mucous membrane
B) complement system
C) skin
D) cell mediated immunity
E) normal microbiota

B

The Fc portion of an antibody is formed by
A) the upper portion of the light chains
B) the upper portion of the heavy chains
C) the lower portion of the light chains
D) the lower portion of the heavy chains
E) one light chains and one heavy chain

D

Which of the following are phagocytic cells found in the epidermis?
A) microglia
B) neutrophils
C) natural killer lymphocyte
D) dendritic cells
E) wandering macrophages

D

Which of the following leukocytes have bi-lobed nucleus and coarse blue granules in heir cytoplasm?
A) basophils
B) monocytes
C) lymphocytes
D) eosinophils
E) neutrophils

A

Microbial antagonism refers to
A) the presence of resident bacteria on the surface of the body and in cavities that connect to the surface
B) the presence of normal microbiota that can become pathogens under certain conditions
C) the presence of normal mi

C

Mucous membranes are quite thin and fragile. How can such delicate tissue provide defense against microbial invaders?
A) both the mucus and the outer later of cells are shed frequently
B) the mucus contains a variety of antimicrobial chemicals and molecul

E

Which of the following statements concerning plasma cells is FALSE?
A) they live a long time and function as memory cells
B) the antibodies they produce can remain in circulation for years
C) they secrete antibodies molecules with antigen-determining site

A

The most prevalent type of antibody in the blood is _____.
A) IgG
B) IgD
C) IgM
D) IgE
E) IgA

A

Enhanced immune responses to subsequent exposures to an antigen to which the body has already been exposed are known as
A) third-degree immune responses
B) memory responses
C) autoimmune responses
D) allergic responses
E) primary immune responses

B

Dan has been exposed to Ebola virus. He receives both anti-serum IgG injection and the Ebola vaccine. What does this strategy represent?
A) active immunization combine with passive immunotherapy
B) viral hemagglutination inhibition
C) active immunization

A

What type of immunity is produced by the body when a person gets a disease?
A) innate immunity
B) naturally acquired passive immunity
C) artificially acquired passive immunity
D) naturally acquired active immunity
E) artificially acquired active immunity

D

Adaptive immune systems of a healthy person will not attack this person's own cells and tissues. Which of the following statements provides a basis for this?
A) Lymphocytes reactive to normal body components are removed.
B) To become activated, lymphocyte

A

Larry has been exposed to rabies receives HRIG (human rabies immunoglobulin) injected near the bite site. What does this strategy represent?
A) viral hemagglutination inhibition
B) passive immunotherapy combined with viral hemagglutination inhibition
C) a

E

Humoral immune response is attributed to the action of
A) monocytes
B) macrophages
C) T lymphocytes
D) neutrophils
E) B lymphocytes

E

Which of the following cells increase in number during a parasitic worm infection?
A) basophils
B) macrophages
C) eosinophils
D) lymphocytes
E) neutrophils

...

The leukocytes that have multi-lobed nuclei and are abundant in a healthy person's blood are _____.
A) basophils
B) macrophages
C) eosinophils
D) lymphocytes
E) neutrophils

E

The largest type and firstly produced antibody in the blood is _____.
A) IgD
B) IgM
C) IgA
D) IgE
E) IgG

B

A sick child may have influenza or RSV. These viruse infections have different treatment options, so the physician requests antibody titer tests. The results are as follows: anti-influenza antibodies are primarily IgM, and anti-RSV antibodies are all IgA

E

TCRs only recognize antigens presented by APC, therefore, _____ molecules ultimately determine which epitopes elicit an immune response.

MHC

Which complement protein is the key to activating the alternative pathway pf complement activation?
A) C3
B) C5
C) C4
D) C1
E) C2

A

What type of immunity is produced by the body when a person gets a vaccine?
A) naturally acquired passive immunity
B) naturally acquired active immunity
C) artificially acquired passive immunity
D) artificially acquired active immunity
E) innate immunity

D

An APC presents an exogenous antigen to an unactivated Th lymphocyte on an MHC II molecule and secretes cytokine at the same time. As a result, the Th lymphocyte differentiates into a(n) _____ lymphocyte.

Th 2

Antigens are
A) specific molecules, or parts of molecules,that the body recognizes as foreign
B) proteins on the surface of our cells that pathogens attach to.
C) proteins that body produces against invading substances
D) enzymes secreted to destroy a pat

A

The surface of each B lymphocyte is covered with about 250,000 to 500,000 identical copies of _____.

BCRs (B cell receptors)

Which of the following produces an exogenous antigen?
A) the malaria parasite inside a red blood cell
B) a virus inside a cell
C) a bacterium inside a cell
D) a bacterium outside a cell
E) a noninfected human cell

D

_____ is part of the body's 3rd line of defense.
A) Fever
B) Normal microbiota
C) Phagocytosis
D) Complement proteins
E) Cell-mediated immunity

E