What do CAT scans detect?
Small lesions or blood clots
What do PET scans detect?
Metabolism of substances in the brain
What do EEGs detect?
Brain activity
How does an extradural hematoma usually result?
Skull fracture (temporal bone) with rupture of the middle meningeal artery.
What is usually caused from a tearing of the bridging veins between the pia and the dura mater?
Subdural hematoma
Which type of hematoma are typically seen in the elderly and alcoholics?
Subdural hematomas
Injury to which segment(s) of the spinal cord cause paraplegia?
T1-L2
Damage to which segment(s) of the spinal cord results in respiratory difficulties?
C4
What area of the brain is affected by the majority of CVA's?
Basal ganglia
Where do the emboli generally originate in a cerebral embolism?
Left side of the heart
What is the result after an influx of glutamate in the brain?
Influx of calcium (activates enzymes that digest cell proteins, lipids and nuclear material) resulting in mitochondria failure.
What is pyogenic meningitis typically caused by?
Bacteria (H. influenzea, pneomococcus and meningococcus)
What is the most common fungus which can cause granulomatus meningitis?
C. neoformans
What is lymphocytic meningitis typically caused by?
Viruses (polivirus, mumps virus and ECHO virus)
What is multiple sclerosis?
Demyelination of axons within the brain. (Can be local or widespread-results in decreased/inhibited transmition)
What is a demyelinating disease that reseambles MS but it evolves without remissions?
Schilders disease
What disease is associated with ascending paralysis?
Guillain-Barre Syndrome
What metabolic disorder is associated with encephalopathy and fatty changes in liver?
Reye's syndrome
What disease is associated with brain atrophy and especially diffuse loss of neurons in the cerebral cortex?
Alzheimer's disease
What are the microscopic changes that are associated with Alzheimer's disease?
Neurofibrillary tangles and senile plaques.
What are the gross changes that are associated with Alzheimer's disease?
Symmetrical dilation of cerebral ventricles.
Which disease is due to selective degeneration of the basal ganglia?
Parkinson's disease
What is a Lewy body and what disease is it associated with?
An abnormal aggregate of protein that develops in nerve cells seen in Parkinson's disease.
How is Huntington's Chorea developed?
Through an inherited dominant trait
When does Huntington's chorea typically develop.
When a person is in their 30's-40's.
What is a petit mal?
Absence seizure (associated with staring spells)
What is a grand mal?
Generalized seizure
What is a psychomotor epilepsy?
Temporal lobe epilepsy
What is the demyelinating process and accompanying changes occuring secondary to trauma or interruption of peripheral nerves?
Wallerian degeneration
What is the paralysis of botulism associated with?
The prevention of the release of ACh into the motor end plate synapse.
What is ALS?
Disease of motor nerve cells (neurons) in the spinal cord and brain making them no longer able to send messages to muscles.
What are some feature of spina bifida?
Paraplegia, bowel dysfuntion, and urinary incontinence.
In CVS's there is _________ sensory deficit in most patients.
Unilateral
Which axonal degeneration proposes that degeneration of each axon starts at the distal end and moves retrogradely?
Dying-back" degeneration
How does axonal degeneration differ from Wallarian degeneration?
In pace, axonal occur slowly and "die-back
How does Wallerian degeneration occur?
Through transection or crushing of an axon resulting in myelin andaxon degeneration.
True or False: Meniere's disease is more common in men than women.
False (More common in women)
Is macular degeneration repairable or treatable?
Not repairable but can be treated by making the process occur more slower.
What are the two forms of macular degeneration?
Dry and wet (much worse, happens much quicker than dry)
What are the two autoimmune diseases which can cause dry eye?
Rheumatoid arthritis and Sjogren's disease
What sort of things can contribute to cataracts formation?
Age, genetics, diabetes mellitus and radiation injury
What makes up the hindbrain?
Medulla oblongata, pons and the cerebellum
Which lobe of the forebrain regulates motor function?
Frontal lobe
Which lobe of the forebrain receives sensory information from the thalamus. Also knowing "where" the body is in space?
Parietal lobe
What is the delicate layer covering the surface of brain & spinal cord.
Contains blood vessels that penetrate the brain and spinal cord?
Pia mater
What is the non-vascular, spider-web looking layer containing the
cerebrospinal fluid?
Arachnoid mater
What is the strong, connective tissue layer providing significant protection
to the brain and spinal cord?
Dura mater
What is the falx cerebri?
Part of the dura mater which separates the cerebral hemispheres.
What is the tentorium cerebelli?
Part of the dura mater which separates the cerebrum from the cerebellum.
Which layer of the meninges produces cerebrospinal fluid?
Pia mater
What structure actually produces the cerebrospinal fluid?
Choroid plexus (In the Pia mater)
What are the genetic disorders that produce progressive degeneration and
necrosis of skeletal muscle fibers and eventual replacement with fat and connective
tissue?
Muscular dystrophy
What is the most common and severe form of muscular dystrophy?
Duchene
Which muscular dystrophy appears late in childhood/adolescence
and has a slower and less severe course of progression?
Becker
What two drugs inhibit acetylcholinesterase activity, used in myasthenia gravis?
Physostigmine and neostigmine.
What is an autoimmune disorder of the neuromuscular junction that affects impulse
transmission between the motor neuron and the innervated muscle cell?
Myasthenia gravis
What is an acute, life-threatening polyneuropathy. It is
characterized by rapidly progressive limb weakness and a loss of tendon
reflexes?
Gullain-Barre syndrome
What is a progressive degenerative disorder of basal ganglia function
that results in variable combinations of tremor, rigidity, and bradykinesia?
Parkinson's disease
What neurotransmitter accumulates in a patient with ALS?
Glutamate
What is a demyelinating disorder characterized by inflammation and selective
destruction of CNS myelin?
Multiple Sclerosis
What are patches of clusters of degenerating nerve terminals
arranged around a central amyloid (protein) core?
Neuritic (senile) plaques
What exists in the cytoplasm of abnormal neurons; consist
of fibrous proteins that are wound around each other in a helical fashion?
Neurofibrillary tangles
Which herpes is Type 1?
Herpes simplex (oral)
Which herpes is Type 2?
Herpes hominis (genital)
What are aphthlous stomatitis?
Canker sores
What are two features of many upper respiratory infections?
Tonsillitis and pharyngitis
What is a viral infection involving the salivary glands and most prominently the parotid salivary glands?
Mumps
What is a disease of the salivary glands which is characterized by dry eyes and dry mouth resulting from immunologically medicated injury of the lacrimal and salivary glands?
Sjogren's syndrome
What virus is associated with carcinomas of the nasopharynx?
Epstein-Barr virus
How many decibels is the threshold for aural pain?
130
How many decibels is there going to be mechanical damage to the ear?
160
What part of the skeleton do cancers favor?
Axial
Which fracture occurs when one side of the bone breaks, but because it is moderately elastic it doesnt break all the way through?
Greenstick fracture
What fracture occurs when there is a clean break in the bone separating it into two parts and does not penetrate the skin?
Simple fracture (closed fracture)
What fracture occur when there is a clean break in the bone separating it into two parts and it does penetrate the skin?
Compound fracture (open fracture)
What fracture occurs when when the bone is broken into more than two fragments?
Comminuted fracture
What fracture occurs when one fragment of a disrupted bone is firmly driven into another fragment?
Impacted fracture
What bacteria is acute osteomyelitis most often caused by?
Staph aureus
What metabolic bone disorder is due to inadequate levels of calcium and phosphorus being available for appropriate mineralization of bone tissue?
Rickets
When does osteomalacia most often occur?
In who have had their bone calcium reserves drained during pregnancy or multiple pregnancies
What is renal rickets?
When too much calcium is excreted by the kidneys resulting in demineralization
What results from an excess secretion of parathyroid hormone by the parathyroid gland?
Hyperparathyroidism
What does an increased secretion of parathyroid hormone cause?
Resorption of bone tissue
In hyperparathyroidism when there is a resorption of bone tissue, what disease can occur?
Osteitis fibrosa cystica
What is due to idiopathic hyperplasia or neoplasia of the parathyroid gland (usually a benign neoplastic condition)?
Primary hyperparathyroidism
What is induced as a result of persistently low levels of serum ionized calcium?
Secondary hyperparathyroidism
In what two instances can osteoporosis occur secondary to?
Malabsorption and prolonged glucocorticoid use
What is a chronic disorder which results in enlarged and misshappened bones, and involves excessive breakdown and formation of bone tissues?
Pagets disease of bone
What is the rare autosomal recessive disease which results in the density and thickness of bones to be increased?
Osteopetrosis
What happens when the excess bone tissue formed in osteopetrosis impinges upon the bone marrow cavity?
Blood cell production is decreased
What is one of the most frequent forms of dwarfism?
Achondroplasia
Where is the defect in achondroplasia?
Epiphysis (growth plate)
Which arthritis is due to an autoimmune phenomena?
Arthritis associated with rheumatic fever
Which arthritis occurs more frequently in woman then man?
Rheumatoid arthritis
Which arthritis occurs more frequently in man then woman?
Ankylosing spondylitis
What is generally affected in rheumatoid arthritis?
Small joints of hands and feet
What is generally affected in ankylosing spondylitis?
Vertebral joints and large peripheral joints
What is degenertative osteoartheritis?
wear and tear on the spine and large weight bearing joints (not inflammatory)
What is the most frequent malignant neoplasm arising from a joint or bursa?
Synovial sarcoma
What happens during immobilization and the skin integrity is reduced?
Pressure sores develop
Why is there impaired oxygen process during immobility?
Decreased blood volume, cardiac output and chest expansions.
What is a joint injury in which some of the fibers of a supporting ligament are ruptured bu the continuity of the ligament remains intact?
sPrain
What occurs with overexertion?
sTrain
What is a spasm which is persistent?
Tonic spasm
What is a spasm which is characterized by alternate contraction and relaxation?
Clonic spasm
What is a cramp?
A painful spasm
What does the term luxation mean?
Dislocation
What are myopathies?
Disorders of muscle tissue not related to neurologic lesions
True or False: Polymyositis and Dermatomyositis are immunologically mediated.
TRUE
What are some other selected causes for muscle weakness and dysfuntion?
Severe anemia, hyperthyroidism/Cushings, hypo-/hyperkalemia, hypoglycemia,