through what area does the cerebrospinal fluid circulate around the brain and spinal cord
in the subarachnoid space
which if the following is the usual location of language centers
left hemisphere
what would be the effect of damage to the auditory association area in the left hemisphere
inability to understand what is heard
which of the following applies to the corticospinal tract
it is a pyramidal tract for efferent impulses
what is a major function of the limbic system
determines emotional responses
where are beta1 - adrenergic receptors located
cardiac muscle
what does a vegetative state refer to
loss of awareness and intellectual function but continued brainstem function
which of the following conditions is NOT part of the criteria for declaration of "brain death
presence of any head injury
what is the best definition of aphasia
the inability to comprehend or express language appropriately
what is an early indicator of increased intracranial pressure
decreased responsiveness
what is the rationale for vomiting in a patient who has increased intracranial pressure
pressure on the emetic center in the medulla
what is the typical change in blood pressure in a patient who has increased intracranial pressure
increasing pulse pressure
the largest category of primary malignant brain tumors that arise from calls in the central nervous system (CNS) are called:
gliomas
which of the following causes papilledema
increased pressure of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) at the optic disc
what is the effect of an enlarging brain abscess on cardiovascular activity
systemic vasoconstriction and slower heart rate
as intracranial pressure rises, the pupil of the eye, ipsilateral to the lesion, becomes dilated and unresponsive to light because of pressure on the:
peripheral nervous system (PNS) fibers in cranial nerve III
which of the following characteristic indicates that the CSF is normal
clear and colorless fluid
which of the following statements is TRUE about malignant brain tumors
primary brain tumors rarely metastasize outside the CNS
secondary brain tumors usually arise from
metastasized breast or lung tumors
what are focal or generalized seizures sometimes an early indication of a brain tumor
surrounding inflammation stimulates neurons to discharge spontaneously
which of the following is a TRUE statement about transient ischemic attacks (TIA's)
they can warn of potential cerebrovascular accidents
what is the probable source of an embolus causing a cerebrovascular accident (CVA)
common carotid artery
collateral circulation is most likely to be present when a CVA results from:
atherosclerosis
all of the following apply to CVA EXCEPT
maximum necrosis and infarction develop within several hours of onset
signs and symptoms of a stroke depend upon
location of obstruction, size of artery, and area affected
in the weeks following CVA, why might some neurological function return
1: presence of collateral circulation
2: immediate therapy to dissolve thrombi and maintain perfusion
3: reduced inflammation in the area
4: development of alternative neuronal pathways
which of the following statements about berry aneurysms in the brain is NOT true
CSF remains free of blood
in a case of bacterial meningitis, where does swelling and purulent exudate form
in the pia mater, arachnoid, and surface of the entire brain
what are the significant signs of acute bacterial meningitis
severe headache, nuchal rigidity, and photophobia
in many types of encephalitis, such as St. Louis encephalitis, how are the viruses transmitted
mosquitos and tick bites
all of the following apply to tetanus infection EXCEPT
sings of fever, vomiting, stiff neck, and paralysis
in cases of Guillain-Barre syndrome, what does the pathophysiology include
inflammation and demyelination of peripheral nerves, leading to ascending paralysis
how does a pressed skull fracture cause brain damage
a section of skull bone is displaced below the level if the skull, causing pressure on the brain
following a head injury, what is the most likely cause of secondary damage to the brain
hematoma or infection
an epidural hematoma is located between the
dura mater and the skull
what does the term otorrhea mean
CSF leaking from the ear
vertebral fractures are classified as
simple, compression, wedge, dislocation
following a spinal injury at C5, what is the expected effect during the period of spinal block
possible periods of apnea
following an injury at L2 to L3, what would indicate recovery from spinal shock
spastic paraplegia
what are the signs of autonomic dysreflexia in a person with cervical spinal injury
sudden marked increase in blood pressure with bradycardia
expressive aphasia is most likely to result from damage to:
The left frontal lobe
What is the usual result of damage to the right occipital lobe?
Loss of left visual field
How does the heart rate change as intracranial pressure increases?
Rate decreases
Which statement best describes herniation resulting from increases intracranial pressure?
Displacement of brain tissue downward toward the spinal cord
Which type of cerebrovascular accident (CVA) has the poorest prognosis?
Hemorrhagic CVA
Which of the following factor predispose(s) an individual to CVA?
Hypertension, Smoking cigarettes, history of coronary artery disease, diabetes mellitus
What are the significant early signs of a ruptured cerebral aneurysm?
Severe headache, nuchal rigidity, photophobia
The stroke scale used to rapidly diagnose a stroke includes:
capacity for speech, level of consciousness, motor skills, eye movements
With regard to meningitis, choose the correct combination of microbe and the age group commonly affected.
N. Meningitides": children and youth
Which of the following statements applies to a lumbar puncture?
It is usually performed at L3-L4
Which signs are indicative of post-polio syndrome?
Progressive fatigue and weakness
Which of the following does NOT apply to Reye's syndrome?
There is no permanent damage in the body
Which type of fracture typically occurs at the base of the skull?
Basilar
The primary reason for seizures frequently occurring with head injuries is:
Presence of blood irritates the neurons
Brain injury where the brain is injured when it bounces off the skull due to sudden acceleration or deceleration is referred to as a/an:
Contrecoup injury
The rabies virus is usually transmitted by:
Bites from infected animals
Common manifestations of rabies infection include:
Headache, foaming at the mouth, and difficulty swallowing
Which statement is TRUE about tetanus infection?
Infection usually develops in deep puncture wounds
Which of the following impairments results from infection by the polio virus?
Loss of function of motor neurons of the spinal cord and medulla
Herpes zoster can be identified by a typical:
Unilateral rash and pain along a cranial nerve or dermatome.
Which of the following conditions is marked by focal signs?
Brain abscess
Typical signs of TIA include:
Transient muscle weakness in a hand or leg
In cases of noncommunication hydrocephalus, why does excess cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) accumulate?
An obstruction is present in the aqueduct of Sylvius or other channel
All of the following are typical signs of hydrocephalus in the neonate EXCEPT:
vomiting, headache and paralysis
The best description of a myelomeningocele is:
Herniation of the meninges, CSF, and spinal cord or nerves through a vertebral defect
How is the presence of spina bifida diagnosed?
Prenatally by ultrasound or detection of alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) in maternal blood or amniotic fluid
What characteristic is common to all individuals with cerebral palsy?
Some degree of motor disability
Which of the following applies to cerebral palsy?
Nonprogressive brain damage to the fetus or neonate
Which of the following is characteristic of generalized seizures?
The uncontrolled discharge of neurons in both hemispheres
From the following, choose the two events (in correct sequence) that immediately follow the aura during a tonic-clonic event:
Loss of consciousness, then the tonic stage
what does the clonic stage of a seizure consist of
alternating contractions and relaxation of skeletal muscle
how would a seizure consisting of bizarre or inappropriate activity be classified
psychomotor seizure
which of the following is characteristic of multiple sclerosis
remissions and exacerbations
which statement does NOT apply to the pathophysiology of multiple sclerosis
progressive random degeneration of peripheral nerves
which of the following are common early signs of multiple sclerosis
areas of numbness, weakness in the legs, visual problems
which of the following applies to parkinsons disease
usually develops in men and women over 60 years of age
what is the pathophysiological change in parkinsons disease
degeneration of the basal nuclei with a deficit of dopamine
which of the following are common early manifestations of parkinsons disease
tremors at rest in the hands and repetitive motion of the hands
in which type of neuron is progressive degeneration occurring with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)
upper and lower motor neurons
which of the following statements does NOT apply to myasthenia gravis
dementia develops in the later stage
which statement applies to huntingtons disease
it presents with choreiform movements in the upper body and decreased ability to concentrate
what are the characteristic changes in the brain of a patient with alzheimers disease
cortical atrophy with plaques and neurofibrillary tangles, impairing conduction
which disease is associated with excessive dopamine secretion, decreased gray matter in the temporal lobes, and abnormal hippocampal cells in the brain
panic disorder
in which disorders do biochemical abnormalities involving the neurotransmitters in the brain occur
1: bipolar disease
2: schizophrenia
3: huntington's disease
which of the following are typical characteristics associated with schizophrenia
disorganized thought processes, short attention span, delusions
what is the typical initial effect of a herniated intervertebral disc at the L4 to L5
lower back pain radiating down the leg
what causes a herniated intervertebral disc
a protrusion of the nucleus pulposus through the annulus fibrosis
which of the following dietary supplements has reduced the incidence of spina bifida in recent years
folic acid
which of the following is the most common cause of brain damage in children with cerebral palsy
hypoxia
the ataxic form of cerebral palsy results from damage to the
cerebellum
which of the following is used to confirm the diagnosis of, and classify, seizures
electroencephalogram
which statement does NOT apply to status epilepticus
person does not lose conscious ness during seizure
which type of seizure commonly occurs in children
absence
all of the following may precipitate a seizure EXCEPT
hypoventilation
which of the following is NOT a typical effect of advanced parkinsons disease
loss of vision
which of the following is a typical early sign of amyotrophic sclerosis (ALS)
weakness and muscle atrophy in upper limbs
which of the following classes of drugs may provide temporary improvement in cases of myasthenia gravis
anticholinesterase agents
which of the following are typical early signs of alzheimers disease
1: behavioral changes
2: reduced ability to reason and problem solving
which of the following is NOT considered to be a common contributing factor to AIDS dementia
development of arteriosclerosis
communicated hydrocephalus causes increased intracranial pressure because of
failure of the subarachnoid to absorb CSF
failure of the spinous processes to fuse but without herniation of meninges, is called
spina bifida occulta
which statement is TRUE about amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)
cognitive function remains normal
creutzfeldt-jakob disease is caused by
infection in the brain by a prion
huntingtons disease is diagnosed by
DNA analysis
which statement is TRUE about depression
it is classified as a mood disorder