PoliSci Test 1

Which of the following is not among the reasons why Americans delegate governance to representatives?
a. It is easier to let agents handle affairs.
b. Agents can specialize, gaining expertise.
c. The transaction costs of agency are high.
d. As principals,

The transaction costs of agency are high

The fact that "standing committees" in Congress accrue influence because they control certain policy areas is an example of
a. the history principle.
b. jurisdictional authority.
c. path dependency.
d. decisiveness.

Jurisdictional Authority

The idea that certain possibilities are made more or less likely because of the historical choices preceding them is called
a. path dependency.
b. de facto jurisdiction.
c. transactional facts.
d. the status quo.

Path Dependency

Political Scientist Harold Laswell said politics is the struggle over
a. who governs.
b. who gets there by whatever means.
c. the allocation of status, values, and legitimacy in society.
d. who gets what, when, and how.

Who gets what, when, and how

A government in which a small group of elites controls most of the governing decisions is
a. a democracy.
b. an autocracy.
c. an oligarchy.
d. a constitutional state.

Oligarchy

Governments that attempt to dominate or control every sphere of political, economic, and social life are
a. socialist governments.
b. oligarchies.
c. totalitarian governments.
d. authoritarian governments.

Totalitarian governments

Informal bargaining
a. is more effective the larger the group.
b. is more likely to be employed when the stakes are high.
c. is often associated with events that take place in official institutions.
d. is most successful when each party repeatedly "gives

Is most successful when each party repeatedly "gives a little to get a little.

The persistent influence of old political loyalties and attitudes exemplifies
a. the Rationality Principle.
b. the Collective-Action Principle.
c. the History Principle.
d. the Institution Principle.

The History Principle

Instrumental behavior
a. involves knee-jerk reactions.
b. is purposeful.
c. is mostly automatic or mechanical.
d. discounts the personal value of various outcomes.

is purposeful

When a single individual rules, it is said that the government is a(n):
a. oligarchy.
b. autocracy.
c. democracy.
d. anarchy.

Autocracy

What was Mancur Olson's solution to the collective action problem?
a. logrolling
b. compulsion through force
c. selective benefits
d. free riding

Selective Benefits

Autocracies differ from oligarchies in that
a. oligarchies are "totalitarian democracies."
b. autocracies cannot be authoritarian.
c. autocracies must contend with collective action problems.
d. oligarchies include more people in decision making.

oligarchies include more people in decision making

Institutions are connected to policy in part by the motivations of political actors, which include all of the following except
a. personal interests.
b. electoral ambitions.
c. ideological concerns.
d. family expectations.

Family expectations

Of the following which does NOT describe government?
a. the institutions and processes established to strengthen control over a land and its inhabitants
b. the processes that rulers establish to perpetuate their power
c. the source of all public authority

the informal melding of groups in society

Which of the following is not one of the five Principles of Politics described in the chapter?
a. History is just one random event after another.
b. All politics is collective action.
c. All political behavior has a purpose.
d. Institutions structure poli

History is just one random event after another

Which of the following is not an aspect of institutional arrangements that grants authority to politicians to pursue public policies?
a. jurisdiction
b. delegation
c. oversight
d. agenda power

oversight

When delegating authority to their agents or representatives, principals or constituents must take care to
a. monitor the agents' actions.
b. maximize transaction costs.
c. employ state coercion.
d. seem legitimate.

monitor the agent's actions

Veto power refers to
a. the ability of the Supreme Court to nullify acts of Congress.
b. the ability to block proposals from being made.
c. the ability to defeat something whether or not it becomes part of the agenda.
d. the ability of Congress to set its

the ability to defeat something whether or not it becomes part of the agenda

The control over what a group will consider for discussion and decision is
a. conscription.
b. selecting the benefits.
c. agenda power.
d. the tragedy of the commons.

agenda power

Which of the following is defined as a benefit that may be enjoyed by anyone and may not be denied to anyone once it has been provided?
a. public good
b. free rider
c. automatic instrument
d. selective benefit

public good

Successful collective action often involves all of the following except
a. some individuals enjoying the benefits of others' efforts without contributing themselves.
b. a leadership structure.
c. a means by which to sanction slackers if necessary.
d. esta

some individuals enjoying the benefits of others' efforts without contributing themselves

The textbook claims that the goal of politics is
a. to get all that you can from the government.
b. to protect your property from government tyranny.
c. to have a share or say in the composition, organization, and/or policies of the government.
d. to prom

to have a share or say in the composition, organization, and/or policies of the government

What is it called when people enjoy the benefits of some good while letting others bear the costs?
a. private good
b. free riding
c. transaction costs
d. sabotage

free riding

Institutions
a. generally say little about who has authority to act in a particular domain.
b. are a roadblock to collective action.
c. are routinized, structured relations that shape politics.
d. are groups of people acting in concert.

are routinized, structured relations that shape politics

Settings like legislatures, courts, and party conventions, where decisions are made on a repeated basis, are prone to
a. coercive resolution of conflict.
b. altruistic behavior.
c. informal bargaining.
d. formal bargaining.

formal bargaining

Government

The institutions and procedures through which a land and its people are ruled

Democracy

A system of rule that permits citizens to play a significant part in the governmental process, usually through the selection of key public officials

Constitutional Government

A system of rule in which formal and effective limits are placed on the powers of the government.

Authoritarian Government

A system of rule in which the government recognizes no formal limits but may nevertheless be restrained by the power of other social institutions

Totalitarian Government

A system of rule in which the government recognizes no formal limits on its power and seeks to absorb or eliminate other social institutions that might challenge it

Politics

The conflicts and struggles over the leadership, structure, and policies of government.

Instrumental

Done with purpose, sometimes with forethought, and even with calculation.

Institutions

The rules and procedures that provide incentives for political behavior, thereby shaping politics.

Jurisdiction

The domain over which an institution or member of an institution has authority

Agenda Power

The control over what a group will consider for discussion

Delegation

The transmission of authority to some other official or body for the latter's use (though often with the right of review and revision).

Principal-Agent Relationship

The relationship between a principal and his or her agent. This relationship may be affected by the fact that each is motivated by self-interest, yet their interests may not be well aligned.

Transaction Cost

The cost of clarifying each aspect of a principal-agent relationship and monitoring it to make sure arrangements are complied with.

Collective Action

The pooling of resources and the coordination of effort and activity by a group of people (often a large one) to achieve common goals.

Public Good

A good that (1) may be enjoyed by anyone if it is provided and (2) may not be denied to anyone once it has been provided.

By-product Theory

The idea that groups provide members with private benefits to attract membership. The possibility of group collective action emerges as a consequence.

Selective Benefits

Benefits that do not go to everyone but, rather, are distributed selectively�only to those who contribute to the group enterprise.

Path Dependency

The idea that certain possibilities are made more or less likely because of the historical path taken.

Articles of Confederation and Perpetual Union

America's first written constitution. Adopted by the Continental Congress in 1777, the Articles of Confederation and Perpetual Union were the formal basis for America's national government until 1789, when they were superseded by the Constitution.

Great Compromise

An agreement reached at the Constitutional Convention of 1787 that gave each state an equal number of senators regardless of its population but linked representation in the House of Representatives to population.

Three-fifths Compromise

An agreement reached at the Constitutional Convention of 1787 stipulating that for purposes of the apportionment of congressional seats, every slave would be counted as three-fifths of a person.

Bicameralism

The division of a legislative assembly into two chambers, or houses.

Expressed Powers

The notion that the Constitution grants to the federal government only those powers specifically named in its text.

Necessary and Proper Clause

Article I, Section 8, of the Constitution, which enumerates the powers of Congress and provides Congress with the authority to make all laws "necessary and proper" to carry them out; also referred to as the elastic clause.

Judicial Review

The power of the courts to declare actions of the legislative and executive branches invalid or unconstitutional. The Supreme Court asserted this power in Marbury v. Madison (1803

Supremacy Clause

A clause of Article VI of the Constitution that states that all laws passed by the national government and all treaties are the supreme laws of the land and superior to all laws adopted by any state or any subdivision.

Separation of Powers

The division of governmental power among several institutions that must cooperate in decision making.

Federalism

The system of government in which a constitution divides power between a central government and regional governments.

Bill of Rights

The first 10 amendments to the U.S. Constitution, adopted in 1791. The Bill of Rights ensures certain rights and liberties to the people

Checks and Balances

The mechanisms through which each branch of government is able to participate in and influence the activities of the other branches.

Tyranny

Oppressive government that employs the cruel and unjust use of power and authority.

The Connecticut Compromise is called the Great Compromise because it
a. ended the dispute over slavery.
b. established a single national currency.
c. established that three-fifths of the House seats would be apportioned by state population.
d. solved the

solved the problem of representation by creating a bicameral legislature

The framers of the Constitution adopted Montesquieu's notion of a "mixed regime" when they
a. adopted a federal rather than a unitary system.
b. gave the president the veto power.
c. gave each of the branches a distinctly different constituency.
d. balanc

gave each of the branches a distinctly different constituency

Which is a constitutional power of the president?
a. declaring war
b. accepting ambassadors from other countries
c. borrowing money
d. resolving conflict between federal and state laws

accepting ambassadors from other countries

Which state refused to send delegates to the Constitutional Convention?
a. Rhode Island
b. Maryland
c. New Jersey
d. South Carolina

Rhode Island

The Constitution has been amended how many times?
a. 10
b. 27
c. 29
d. 51

27

Which of the following is not an "unalienable" right mentioned in the Declaration of Independence?
a. life
b. democracy
c. pursuit of happiness
d. liberty

Democracy

The relationship between Congress and the states under the Articles of Confederation most resembles that between
a. the United Nations and its member states.
b. the present United States and its allies.
c. state government and local counties.
d. local gov

the United Nations and its member states.

Which was a major deficiency of government under the Articles of Confederation?
a. The costs of the military grew into a major budget expenditure.
b. Travel between states was time-consuming.
c. Each state retained its own sovereignty.
d. Congress could r

Each state retained its own sovereignty.

In the struggle over the Constitution, who was more likely to advocate greater democracy and insist that representatives must be "a true picture of the people"?
a. an Antifederalist
b. a Federalist
c. a Tory
d. a Publican

Antifedaralist

That the Constitution would deem national laws and treaties superior to the laws adopted by states is known as
a. the supremacy clause.
b. the necessary and proper clause.
c. the elastic clause.
d. the full faith and credit clause.

the supremacy clause

Under the Constitution of 1787, all of the following were true of Congress except that
a. the Senate, but not the House, was given the power to ratify treaties and approve presidential appointments.
b. members of the House were apportioned according to st

some members of Congress served two-year terms, while others served four-year terms

Judicial review was the product of which Supreme Court decision?
a. Marbury v. Madison
b. McCullough v. Maryland
c. Brown v. Topeka Board of Education
d. Griswold v. Connecticut

Marbury v. Madison

The major event occurring just before the Constitutional Convention that stimulated many states to seek reforms was
a. the tobacco famine of 1786.
b. a resurgence of loyalist sentiment.
c. Shays's Rebellion.
d. the Annapolis Convention.

Shay's Rebellion

Which is not a reason why the national government failed under the Articles of Confederation?
a. competition among the states for foreign commerce
b. overbearing national government policies, which led to a backlash in the states
c. inability to levy taxe

overbearing national government policies, which led to a backlash in the states

What is the institutional principle that created three branches of government called?
a. separation of powers
b. jurisdictional authoritarianism
c. federalism
d. amendments

separation of powers

Under the Articles of Confederation, the government
a. had no judicial branch.
b. had the power to tax.
c. had a separate independent executive.
d. lasted until 1865.

had no judicial branch

The Eighteenth Amendment, regarding Prohibition, was
a. later repealed by the Twenty-fourth Amendment.
b. along with its repeal, the only instance in which the country tried to legislate by constitutional amendment.
c. ratified in 1865.
d. the first of ma

along with its repeal, the only instance in which the country tried to legislate by constitutional amendment

The notion that the Constitution grants to the federal government only those powers specifically named in its text is called
a. federalism.
b. separation of powers.
c. expressed power.
d. necessary and proper.

expressed powers

The works of Alexander Hamilton, James Madison, and John Jay to dispel fears of a national authority and to persuade opponents to adopt the Constitution are collectively known as
a. New Republic.
b. The Federalist Papers.
c. Common Sense.
d. The Antifeder

The Federalists Papers

Who did not author some of the Federalist Papers under the pseudonym "Publius"?
a. John Jay
b. Thomas Jefferson
c. James Madison
d. Alexander Hamilton

Thomas Jefferson

Compared to the Articles of Confederation, the Constitution's principle of federalism represented
a. severe limitations on the power of the national government.
b. the status quo in the power relationship between states and the central government.
c. a st

a step toward the greater centralization of power in the national government

Which of the following is not a method of passing a constitutional amendment as defined in Article V of the Constitution?
a. passage by majorities in both Houses; then ratification by national popular referendum
b. passage by two-thirds votes in both Hous

passage by majorities in both Houses; then ratification by national popular referendum

Shays's Rebellion revealed that
a. the French had betrayed the colonies.
b. the Articles of Confederation had succeeded in uniting the colonies.
c. the colonists were more concerned with religious differences than taxation.
d. Congress as created by the A

Congress as created by the Articles of Confederation lacked the power to act in a crisis

In order for the new Constitution to take effect, how many states needed to ratify the document?
a. 7
b. 9
c. 13
d. 17

9

Why did the Antifederalists object to ratification of the Constitution?
a. They thought the federal government should be stronger.
b. They claimed the Constitution too strictly separated legislative power from executive power.
c. They feared the Constitut

They feared the Constitution would prove a threat to the states and to individual rights

Which of the following is not true of slavery and its role during the debates of the Constitutional Convention?
a. Over 90 percent of slaves resided in just five states.
b. It gave rise to the three-fifths compromise, under which five slaves would count a

It was an easily reconciled issue since most of the framers favored slavery

Sovereignty

Supreme and independent political authority.

Implied Powers

Powers derived from the necessary and proper clause (Article I, Section 8) of the Constitution. Such powers are not specifically expressed but are implied through the expansive interpretation of delegated powers

Reserved Powers

Powers, derived from the Tenth Amendment to the Constitution, that are not specifically delegated to the national government or denied to the states; these powers are reserved to the states.

Police Powers

The power reserved to the government to regulate the health, safety, and morals of its citizens

Concurrent Powers

The authority possessed by both state and national governments, such as the power to levy taxes.

Full Faith and Credit Clause

The provision in Article IV. Section 1, of the Constitution requiring that each state normally honors the public acts and judicial decisions that take place in another state

Privileges and immunities

The provision in Article IV, Section 2, of the Constitution stating that a state cannot discriminate against someone from another state or give its own residents special privileges.

Home rule

The power delegated by the state to a local unit of government to manage its own affairs

Dual federalism

The system of government that prevailed in the United States from 1789 to 1937, in which fundamental governmental powers were shared between the federal and state governments, with the states exercising the most important powers

Commerce clause

Article I, Section 8, of the Constitution, which delegates to Congress the power "to regulate Commerce with foreign Nations, and among the several States, and with the Indian Tribes." This clause was interpreted by the Supreme Court to favor national powe

Cooperative Federalism

A type of federalism existing since the New Deal era, in which grants-in-aid have been used strategically to encourage states and localities (without commanding them) to pursue nationally defined goals. Also known as intergovernmental cooperation.

grants-in-aid

A general term for funds given by Congress to state and local governments

categorical grants-in-aid

Funds given by Congress to states and localities and that are ear-marked by law for specific categories, such as education or crime prevention

Project grants

Grant programs in which state and local governments submit proposals to federal agencies and for which funding is provided on a competitive basis.

Formula grants

Grants-in-aid in which a formula is used to determine the amount of federal funds a state or local government will receive.

unfunded mandates

National standards or programs imposed on state and local governments by the federal government without accompanying funding or reimbursement.

block grants

Federal funds given to state governments to pay for goods, services, or programs, with relatively few restrictions on how the funds may be spent.

states' rights

The principle that states should oppose increases in the authority of the national government. This view was most popular before the Civil War

state sovereign immunity

A legal doctrine holding that states cannot be sued for violating an act of Congress

legislative supremacy

The preeminent position assigned to Congress by the Constitution

Divided government

The condition in American government in which the presidency is controlled by one party while the opposing party controls one or both houses of Congress.

Executive Privelege

The claim that confidential communications between the president and the president's close advisers should not be revealed without the consent of the president.

writ of habeas corpus

A court order demanding that an individual in custody be brought into court and shown the cause for detention. Habeas corpus is guaranteed by the Constitution and can be suspended only in cases of rebellion or invasion.

Civil Liberties

The protections of citizens from improper governmental action.

Miranda rule

The convention derived from the Supreme Court's 1966 ruling in the case of Miranda v. Arizona whereby persons under arrest must be informed of their legal rights, including their right to counsel, before undergoing police interrogation.

establishment clause

The First Amendment clause that says, "Congress shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion." This law means that a wall of separation exists between church and state.

Lemon Test

Rule articulated in Lemon v. Kurtzman according to which governmental action in respect to religion is permissible if it is secular in purpose, does not lead to "excessive entanglement" with religion, and neither promotes nor inhibits the practice of reli

Free Exercise Clause

The First Amendment clause that protects a citizen's right to believe and practice whatever religion he or she chooses

clear and present danger

The criterion used to determine whether speech is protected or unprotected, based on its capacity to present a "clear and present danger" to society.

speech plus

Speech accompanied by activities such as sit-ins, picketing, and demonstrations. Protection of this form of speech under the First Amendment is conditional, and restrictions imposed by state or local authorities are acceptable if properly balanced by cons

prior restraint

An effort by a government agency to block the publication of material it deems libelous or harmful in some other way; censorship. In the United States, the courts forbid prior restraint except under the most extraordinary circumstances.

libel

A written statement made in "reckless disregard of the truth" and considered damaging to a victim because it is "malicious, scandalous, and defamatory.

slander

An oral statement made in "reckless disregard of the truth" and considered damaging to a victim because it is "malicious, scandalous, and defamatory.

fighting words

Speech that directly incites damaging conduct

due process

Proceeding according to law and with adequate protection for individual rights.

exclusionary rule

The ability of courts to exclude evidence obtained in violation of the Fourth Amendment.

grand jury

A jury that determines whether sufficient evidence is available to justify a trial. Grand juries do not rule on the accused's guilt or innocence.

double jeopardy

The Fifth Amendment right providing that a person cannot be tried twice for the same crime.

eminent domain

The right of the government to take private property for public use, with reasonable compensation awarded for the property.

right to privacy

The right to be let alone, which has been interpreted by the Supreme Court to entail free access to birth control and abortions

The First Amendment protection of a citizen's right to believe and practice whatever religion he or she chooses is called:
a. the free exercise clause.
b. the establishment clause.
c. the privileges and immunities clause.
d. the privacy right.

the free exercise clause

Which of the following is not a case involving the right to privacy?
a. Roe v. Wade
b. Kelo v. City of New London
c. Lawrence v. Texas
d. Griswold v. Connecticut

Kelo v. City of New London

Eminent domain involves all of the following except
a. the power of government to take private property for public use.
b. the requirement that government provide reasonable compensation.
c. the sole doctrine that has never been fully incorporated into th

the sole doctrine that has never been fully incorporated into the Fourteenth Amendment

Which case held that the national government was under no obligation to protect the "privileges and immunities" of citizens of a particular state against arbitrary actions by that state's government?
a. Chicago, Burlington, and Quincy Railroad v. Chicago

the Slaughter-house cases

Which of the following is not one of the conditions under which the Supreme Court, in Lemon v. Kurtzman (1971), argued that government aid to religious schools was permissible?
a. The aid had a secular purpose.
b. The effect of the aid was neither to adva

The recipient conveyed religious content in a nondenominational framework.

Those who argue that the government can provide assistance to religious institutions so long as it shows no favoritism take a(n)
a. non-establishment position.
b. accommodationist position.
c. strict separation view.
d. intermediate scrutiny position.

accommodationist position

The "nationalization" of the Bill of Rights refers to the:
a. extension of constitutional protection to former slaves.
b. reintegration of the secessionist states into the Union and the Constitution.
c. extension of the Bill of Rights to protect citizens

extension of the Bill of Rights to protect citizens against state governments

In Mapp v. Ohio, the Supreme Court did all of the following except
a. prohibit illegally obtained evidence from being introduced in a trial.
b. expand citizens' Fourth Amendment rights.
c. affirm the "exclusionary rule."
d. rule that suspects have a right

rule that suspects have a right to counsel during police interrogations.

The requirement that persons under arrest be informed of their legal rights, including right to counsel, is known as
a. the sphere of privacy.
b. the Mapp rule.
c. the Miranda rule.
d. the exclusionary rule.

the Miranda rule

Which Amendment addressed advocates' concerns that some might construe the Bill of Rights as an exhaustive list?
a. the First Amendment
b. the Ninth Amendment
c. the Tenth Amendment
d. The Bill of Rights is an exhaustive listing of Americans' rights and l

The Ninth Amendment

In Barron v. Baltimore, the Supreme Court ruled that the Bill of Rights:
a. applied to state and local governments.
b. applied to states, but not local governments.
c. did not apply to state and local governments.
d. did not apply to interstate commerce.

did not apply to state and local governments

The constitutional doctrine of prior restraint
a. allows the government to censor obscene material.
b. requires a waiting period prior to broadcast during which government officials may review corporate advertising.
c. involves protection of speech accomp

prohibits government agencies from trying to prevent publication of material by the press except under extraordinary circumstances.

The Supreme Court's ruling in Barron v. Baltimore ushered in what era of civil liberties?
a. Marshall freedoms
b. era of good feelings
c. dual citizenship
d. unitary liberty

dual citizenship

A written statement made in "reckless disregard of the truth" and damaging to a victim because it is "malicious, scandalous, and defamatory"
a. is libel.
b. is slander.
c. is generally not a punishable offense.
d. is protected by the First Amendment.

libel

What was the fundamental issue in Gitlow v. New York?
a. freedom of association
b. right to privacy
c. right against self-incrimination
d. freedom of speech

freedom of speech

Which Supreme Court case struck down a key portion of the 2002 Bipartisan Campaign Reform Act (BCRA)?
a. U.S. v. Lopez
b. McCain v. Feingold
c. Buckley v. Valeo
d. FEC v. Wisconsin Right to Life

FEC v. Wisconsin Right to Life

All of the following are true with respect to the First Amendment except that
a. many forms of speech are protected almost absolutely.
b. saying something negative against the government may result in prosecution under the Alien and Sedition Acts.
c. spee

saying something negative against the government may result in prosecution under the Alien and Sedition Acts.

Essentially, Civil liberties are
a. freedoms civilians have that military personnel do not.
b. spelled out in great detail in the Constitution.
c. government action.
d. protections of citizens from improper government action.

protections of citizens from improper government action.

Which of the following is not a right guaranteed to the criminally accused at both the state and federal levels?
a. the demonstration of probable cause to justify being held in custody
b. protection from being tried more than once for the same crime
c. pr

guarantee of a grand jury to determine whether a trial is justified

All of the following fall outside the protections of the First Amendment except
a. speech that directly incites damaging conduct.
b. speech that interferes with a school's goal of teaching students the limits of socially acceptable behavior.
c. hate speec

hate speech

Civil Rights

The legal or moral claims that citizens are entitled to make on the government

equal protection clause

The provision of the Fourteenth Amendment guaranteeing citizens "the equal protection of the laws." This clause has been the basis for the civil rights of African Americans, women, and other groups

separate but equal" rule

The doctrine that public accommodations could be segregated by race but still be equal

de jure segregation

Racial segregation that is a direct result of law or official policy.

de facto segregation

Racial segregation that is not a direct result of law or government policy but is, instead, a reflection of residential patterns, income distributions, or other social factors.

intermediate scrutiny

The test used by the Supreme Court in gender discrimination cases. Intermediate scrutiny places the burden of proof partially on the government and partially on the challengers to show that the law in question is constitutional.

Affirmative Action

A policy or program designed to redress historic injustices committed against specific groups by making special efforts to provide members of these groups with access to educational and employment opportunities

Which of the following is not among the important events that occurred on the road toward civil rights for women?
a. Seneca Falls Convention of 1848
b. Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964
c. ratification of the Equal Rights Amendment in 1982
d. the

ratification of the Equal Rights Amendment in 1982

Given the distinction between rights and liberties, which of the following is most often an example of a civil right rather than a civil liberty?
a. freedom of speech
b. equal employment opportunity
c. separation of church and state
d. right to bear arms

equal employment opportunity

The test employed by the Supreme Court in gender discrimination cases in which the burden of proof falls partially on the government and partially on the challengers is called
a. the Lemon test.
b. strict scrutiny.
c. intermediate scrutiny.
d. fighting wo

intermediate scrutiny

Which Supreme Court case extended the right to privacy to gay men and lesbians?
a. Bowers v. Hardwick
b. Lawrence v. Texas
c. Griswold v. Connecticut
d. Romer v. Evans

Lawrence v. Texas

The most important judicial extension of civil rights in education after 1954 is:
a. the Swann decision of 1971 involving busing.
b. called for in Title VII of the Civil Rights Act.
c. Milliken v. Bradley (1974) on the issue of de jure segregation.
d. the

the Swann decision of 1971 involving busing

When segregation is a result of law or official policy, it is known as
a. de jure segregation.
b. de facto segregation.
c. an equalization strategy.
d. habeas corpus.

de jure segregation

In what case did the Supreme Court assert the "separate but equal" doctrine?
a. Plessy v. Ferguson
b. Brown v. Board of Education
c. Hamdi v. Rumsfeld
d. Furman v. Georgia

Plessy v. Ferguson

In the years immediately following Brown v. Board of Education
a. it became clear that equal protection could be achieved through the courts alone.
b. groups like the Southern Christian Leadership Conference created pressure for federal action to guarante

groups like the Southern Christian Leadership Conference created pressure for federal action to guarantee civil rights.

Civil rights
a. were a requirement upheld in many of the thirteen colonies that one must belong to the official state religion.
b. are the freedoms of speech, press, and religion.
c. are claims that citizens make on the government for equal citizenship an

are claims that citizens make on the government for equal citizenship and protections from discrimination by other citizens or government agencies.

With respect to Native Americans, all of the following are true except that:
a. their political status was left unclear in the Constitution.
b. those who were born in the United States were granted citizenship according to legislation passed by Congress i

the federal government has neither recognized their sovereignty nor freed them from state regulations.

Which clause of the Fourteenth Amendment has been used to launch progress in civil rights?
a. affirmative action clause
b. home rule clause
c. equal protection clause
d. integration clause

equal protection clause

Which president of the United States deployed U.S. troops to Little Rock?
a. Clinton
b. Eisenhower
c. Truman
d. Kennedy

Eisenhower

Affirmative action
a. may legally involve a "rigid numerical quota."
b. has not been the subject of ballot referenda.
c. aims to overcome the consequences of past discrimination by making special efforts to encourage greater diversity.
d. was declared unc

aims to overcome the consequences of past discrimination by making special efforts to encourage greater diversity.

The Supreme Court's 1992 ruling in Franklin v. Gwinnett County Public Schools did all of the following except
a. decide that violations of Title IX of the 1972 Education Act could be remedied with monetary damages.
b. open the door for more legal action i

open the door for more legal action in the area of education.

Which of the following Supreme Court decisions led Congress to pass a law protecting those who wished to file pay discrimination charges against employers?
a. Boumediene v. Bush
b. Ledbetter v. Goodyear Tire and Rubber Co.
c. R.A.V. v. City of St. Paul
d.

Ledbetter v. Goodyear Tire and Rubber Co.

In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court decide that school districts must provide education for students whose English is limited?
a. United States v. Wong Kim Ark
b. Frontiero v. Richardson
c. Law v. Nichols
d. MALDEF v. California

Law v. Nichols

Which of the following is not true of California's Proposition 187 regarding illegal immigrants?
a. It denied them all services except emergency medical care.
b. Most of it was declared unconstitutional by a federal court.
c. It was adopted by a majority

It was repealed in a 2000 ballot referendum

Which Supreme Court case overturned a policy of school segregation aimed at Mexican Americans?
a . Mendez v. Westminster
b. LULAC v. Los Angeles County Public Schools
c. Brown v. Board of Education
d. Gonzales v. Oregon

Mendez v. Westminster

In which case did the Supreme Court apply strict scrutiny to an affirmative action case but nevertheless find in favor of the affirmative action program?
a. Regents of the University of California v. Bakke
b. Adarand Constructors v. Pena
c. Grutter v. Bol

Grutter v. Bollinger

The Supreme Court's decision in Brown v. Board of Education
a. had an almost immediate effect in integrating southern schools.
b. continued de jure (if not de facto) segregation.
c. had only a delayed impact in increasing the percentage of southern black

had only a delayed impact in increasing the percentage of southern black schoolchildren attending

The concepts of rights for people with disabilities
a. achieved its greatest success with the passage of the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990.
b. began to emerge at the turn of the twentieth century.
c. has led to little public accommodation of the

achieved its greatest success with the passage of the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990

5 Principles of Politics

1. All political behavior has a purpose
2. Institutions structure politics
3. All politics is collective action
4. Political outcomes are the products of individual preferences, institutional procedures, and collective action
5. How we got here matters

Which of the following interests in colonial society was mostly likely to organize in opposition to taxes on commerce such as the Stamp Act and the Sugar Act?
a. New England merchants
b. Southern planters
c. Royalists
d. Shopkeepers, artisans, and laborer

New England merchants and Southern planters

The Declaration of Independence

All men are created equal."
Governments derive their legitimacy from the consent of the governed.
Declares that when a government no longer serves the needs of the people, the people have a right to revolt.
Does not create a government.

The first American constitution...

The articles of confederation

The Articles of Confederation was primarily concerned with
a. preventing domestic insurrection
b. limiting the powers of the central government
c. generating new tax revenues
d. regulating trade among the colonies
e. centralizing currency and monetary pol

limiting the powers of the central government

Article I of the US Constitution provides for the:
a. judicial branch
b. executive branch
c. legislative branch
d. role of state governments
e. freedom of speech, religion, press

legislative branch

Article II of the US Constitution provides for the:
a. judicial branch
b. executive branch
c. legislative branch
d. role of state governments
e. freedom of speech, religion, press

Executive branch

Article III of the US Constitution provides for the:
a. judicial branch
b. executive branch
c. legislative branch
d. role of state governments
e. freedom of speech, religion, press

Judicial Branch

Which of the first three articles is longest and most specific in its grant of governmental power?

Article I - Legislative branch

The terms of the senators are staggered so that the terms of one-third senators expires every:
a. year
b. two years
c. fours years
d. five years
e. six years

two years

Which constitutional clause generally obligates states to honor the "Public Acts, Records, and Proceedings" of other states?
a. supremacy clause
b. commerce clause
c. full faith and credit clause
d. necessary and proper clause

full faith and credit clause

Federalists favored ratification and national government

...

The type of federalism that existed from 1789 to 1937 in which the state and federal governments' powers are best described as layered is knows as:
a. double security
b. dual federalism
c. confederal cooperation
d. shared federalism

dual defederalism

In the system devised by the framers of the Constitution, sovereignty was vested in
a. the federal government only
b. state government only
c. both the federal and state governments
d. local governments
e. the executive branch

both the federal and state governments

During the Constitutional Convention, the motion to include a Bill of Rights was:
a. tabled at the insistence of delegates from Rhode Island
b. approved almost unanimously
c. incorporated as part of the full faith and credit clause
d. overwhelmingly rejec

overwhelmingly rejected by the Federalists

The AntiFederalists were in favor of:
a. a strong central government
b. the virginia plan
c. expanding slavery to the North
d. protecting states' rights

protecting states' rights

The Federalists understood that majorities could abuse their power in a democracy, but Madison argued that such an outcome is less likely if the nation is:
a. large with diverse interests
b. small with diverse interests
c. large with common interests
d. s

large with diverse interests

The First Amendment to the Constitution was specifically concerned with limits on the:
a. courts
b. Congress
c. President
d. state governments

congress

Federal subsidies of special state and local activities are called:
a. mandates
b. grants-in-aid
c. bonus payments
d. apportionments

grants-in-aid

Which presidents advocated converting federal programs into block grants as a strategy labeled the "New Federalism"?
a. Carter and Clinton
b. Eisenhower and Kennedy
c. Ford and Clinton
d. Nixon and Reagan

Nixon and Reagan

Within the separation of powers, the framers provided for supremacy of the:
a. judiciary
b. executive
c. Electoral College
d. legislature

legislature

The protection of citizens from improper governmental actions are called:
a. civil rights
b. civil liberties
c. civic duties
d. civic entitlements

civil liberties

The Bill of Rights is basically an amendments on what:
a. citizens must do
b. citizens must not do
c. the federal government must do
d. the federal government must not do

the federal government must not do

In the 1833 case of Barron v. Baltimor, the facts of the case revolved around the deprivation of:
a. life
b. privacy
c. free speech
d. property

property

The piecemeal application of the Bill of Rights to the states is known as:
a. singular appropriation
b. selective incorporation
c. sequential appropriation
d. gradual adaptation

selective incorporation

Of all forms of speech, the most consistently protected is:
a. artistic
b. political
c. religious
d. individual

political

The difference between libel and slander is that:
a. libel is spoken and slander is written
b. libel is written and slander is spoken
c. libel is illegal while slander is not
d. there is no difference

libel is written and slander is spoken

Which is not part of the constitutional framework for federalism?
a. Tenth Amendment
b. "necessary and proper" clause
c. Second Amendment
d. Expressed powers in Article I, Section 8

Second Amendment

Which of the following constitutional principles has become directly entangled in the debate over gay marriage?
a. the necessary and proper clause
b. the supremacy clause
c. the full faith and credit clause
d. the prohibition on dual officeholding

the full faith and credit clause

The requirement that persons under arrest be informed of their legal rights, including the right to counsel, is known as
a. the Mapp rule
b. the Miranda rule
c. the exclusionary rule

the Miranda rule

The "nationalization" of the Bill of Rights refers to the:
a. extension of constitutional protection to former slaves
b. reintegration of the secessionist states in the Union
c. extensions of the Bill of Rights to protect citizens against state government

extensions of the Bill of Rights to protect citizens against state government

In the years immediately following Brown v. Board of Education
a. it became clear that equal protection could be achieved through the courts
b. de factor segregation ended
c. collective action fighting for civil rights increased

collective action fighting for civil rights increased

Which clause of the 14th Amendment has been used to launch progress in civil rights?
a. affirmative action clause
b. home rule clause
c. equal protection clause
d. integration clause

equal protection clause

The test employed by the Supreme court in gender discrimination cases which the burden of proof falls partially on the government and partially on the challengers is called:
a. The lemon test
b. strict scrutiny
c. intermediate scrutiny
d. dialectical reas

intermediate scrutiny

Which Amendment granted women the right to vote?
a. 19th
b. 35th
c. 1st
d. 10th

19th

A policy or program designed to redress historic injustices committed against specific groups by making special effort to provide members of these groups with access to education and employment opportunities is know as:
a. reparations
b. affirmative actio

affirmative action

Racial desegregation that is direct result of law or official policy is known as __ segregation.
a. de facto
b. legal
c. de jure
d. political

de jure

In 1954, the supreme court in Brown v. Board of Education overturned the infamous "separate but equal" doctrine aticulated in which previous case:
a. Mapp v. Ohio
b. Plessy v. Ferguson
c. Duncan v. Louisiana
d. Dred Scott v. Sanford

Plessy v. Ferguson

The equal protection clause appears in the ___ Amendment.
a. 19th
b. 17th
c. 14th
d. 12th

14th

McCulloh v. Maryland

Congress can charter a bank under the necessary and proper clause, but state cannot tax federal entity because of the supremacy clause

Gibbons v. Ogden

The constitution can permit the federal government to regulate navigation.

Dual citizenship

citizens have liberties that protect them against national government action and a separate set of liberties that protect them against state government action

Near v. Arizona case

Freedom of Press.

MApp v. Ohio case

Developed the Exclusionary rule- the ability of the courts to exclude evidence obtained in violation of the Fourth Amendment

McDonald v. Chicago case

Freedom of right to bear arm.

Morse v. Frederick case

Freedom of speech

The Fifth Amendment provides protection against double jeopardy and self-incrimination

...

Gideon v. Wainwright case

Right to counsel into the 14th amendment

the 8th amendment

rights of the accused

Roe v. Wade case

rights to privacy

Plessy v. Ferguson

separate but equal

Griggs v. Duke Power

discrimination in employment

Lau v. Nichols

required education that students can understand (foreigners)