Why is the dermal layer sometimes referred to as the "true sin"?
It comprises the largest percentage of total skin mass.
What is one of the principal functions of the subcutaneous layer of the skin?
It provides insulation for the body.
Which type of lesion is a sign of a partial-thickness burn?
Bulla.
Which statement does NOT describe a result of a full-thickness burn?
Severe pain immediately after the injury.
Which is NOT an appropriate action when treating frostbite?
Gently rubbing the affected area.
Antipruritics would be useful in treating which of the following conditions?
Herpes zoster.
Which highly contagious disorder caused by streptococci and characterized by itchy vesicles and pustules?
Impetigo.
Which statement describes a major advantage of topical over systemic drugs?
They are less likely to cause side effects.
What major preventative action can patients take to prevent malignant neoplasms?
Use lotions with a high SPF.
When obtaining an exudate sample from a wound for culture, it is important not to?
All of the above. Remove too much exudate, irritate the wound by inserting the swab too deeply, use cotton swabs to collect the sample.
When educating patients about the care of their skin, it is best to:
Emphasize preventative measures that help promote healthy skin.
The medical term that means the "study of the skin" is:
Dermatology
The meaning of the word intradermal is:
within the skin
Which of the following is NOT considered one the the three layers of the integumentary system?
a.) epidermis
b.)dermis
c.) hair papilla
d.) subcutaneous
Hair papilla
The part of the integumentary system that contains fat as a stored energy source is the:
Subcutaneous layer
A blister is called a:
Bulla
A freckle is called a:
Macule
A raised lesion is called a:
Papule
Redness of the skin is called:
Erythema
A bruise is also known as:
Ecchymosis
The medical term for itching is:
Pruritis
The bluish coloration of the skin is called:
Cyanosis
___ causes a yellow discoloration of the skin
Jaundice
Which highly contagious disorder is caused by a parasite?
Scabies
All of the following statements are true about herpes zoster EXCEPT that is:
a.)can be prevented in adults older than 60 years with Zostavax.
b.) can cause chronic pain.
c.) appears as a vesicular, erythematic, pruritic, papular rash.
d.) affects bilatera
Appears as a vesicular, erythemic, pruritic, papular rash.
A procedure in which revolving wire brushes or sandpaper is used to remove superficial scars is called:
Dermabraision
Palliative treatment is prescribed to do which of the following?
Ease the symptoms of a condition.
Samantha Trace is diagnosed with tinea unguium. Which term describes the condition of her nails?
Opaque.
Mr. Gonzales is diagnosed with an autoimmune disorder of the integumentary system. What does this mean?
His immune system is attacking his body's cells.
A patient with scabies may have which of the following signs of infestation?
Excoriation of surrounding tissue.
which of the following is caused by an inflammation of the skin that is associated with an allergic response?
Exzema
Zostavax is recommended for which of the following patients?
All adults older than 60 years, regardless of whether they have had shingles.
A patient diagnosed with herpes simplex may be prescribed which of the following medications?
Valtrex
Mrs. Anderson is scheduled for skin testing next week. What is an important part of the preparation?
The patient should stop taking all antihistamines or allergy medication 3 to 10 days before testing.
Which of the following is true about the Mohs technique?
It is used to remove cancerous skin lesions layer by layer to minimize the chance of regrowth.
The muscular action that moves food along the gastrointestinal tract is called:
Peristalsis
A patient reporting abdominal pain points to an area of the stomach. What would you note in the chart to indicate this location?
LUQ
Helicobacter pylori infection has been discovered to be a possible cause of:
Stomach ulcers
Which procedure would be most likely to have a long-lasting psychological effects on the patient?
Colostomy
To which specialist would a patient most likely be referred is a routine physical examination revealed abnormality in the lower portion of the descending colon?
Gastroenterologist
If the result of occult blood screening is positive, the patient:
Should have further tests to determine the cause.
The most common procedure or treatment for food poisoning is to:
Prevent dehydration
To confirm a diagnosis of gallstones, all the following procedures may be ordered EXCEPT a(n):
Serum bilirubin measurement
When a patient is positioned for a proctologic examination, it is critical that the:
Body is flexed at the hip joint.
Which of the following is NOT a part of the colon?
Ileum
The first part of the small intestine, where the food enters the stomach, is the?
Duodenum
The condition of having gallstones is called?
Cholelithiasis
Diverticulitis, pancreatitis, and pyloric stenosis are disorders of which body system?
Digestive system
A condition of inflammation of the gallbladder is called:
Cholecystitis
Colon cancer can be visualized during a(n):
CT scan
Pouches or tunnels in the large intestine that can trap seeds are called:
Diverticuli
Constipation can be treated with:
Water
Mr. Grassi is diagnosed with a cancerous tumor of the cecum. He is scheduled for a resection of which of the following areas of the colon?
Sigmoid colon
Which anatomic structure is at the distal end of the gastric mucosa?
Pyloric sphincter
the absorption of nutrients is the primary role of the:
Stomach
You are responsible for conducting patient education in preparation for a three-time stool collection for occult blood. Which foods should the patient avoid?
Red meat
Sclerotherapy is the treatment of choice for which of the following disorders?
Hemorrhoids
Blood vessels that surround the villi of the small intestine carry absorbed materials through the portal circulation to which organ?
Liver
Peptic ulcers caused by H. pylori bacteria are treated with which of the following medications?
Antibiotics
Patients who have undergone bariatric surgery may have which of the following complications if they return to a diet high in simple sugars?
Duping syndrome
Malabsorption problems are expected in patients after weight loss surgery because of which of the following?
The duodenum is bypassed, so nutrients are not completely broken down
All the following are symptoms of crohn's disease EXCEPT:
a.)diaphoresis
b.) melna
c.) diarrhea
d.) anorexia
Diaphoresis
Ulcerative colitis differs from crohn's disease in what way?
Ulcers form on the surface of the colon, starting in the rectum and spreading proximally
Which of the following types of infectious hepatitis is (are) transferred via blood and body fluids?
HBV
Which of the following is a GI system medication prescribed to block histamine production?
Pepcid
which of the following is (are) categorized as proton pump inhibitors?
Prevacid
The cervix controls the opening to which organ?
Uterus
An elective cesarean section may be recommended if the mother has which STD?
HIV
which of the following is NOT a means of transmitting the HIV virus?
shaking hands
which type of examination usually involves taking pelvic measurements?
Initial prenatal visit LEEP procedure
Which of the following can potentially cause cancer?
Genital warts
Hormonal contraceptives include:
All of the above; an impanon implant, Depo-provera injections, A birth control pill or patch
Which method of birth control has the highest failure rate?
Diaphragm
Menses lasting longer than 7 days is called?
Menorrhagia
Bleeding between menses is called:
Metrorrhagia
Pain or cramps with mentruation is called:
Dysmenorrhea
Failure to have a mentrual period is called:
Amenorrhea
Candidiasis is characterized by:
Itching
Genital herpes is characterized by:
Ulceration
Syphilis is associated with:
A chancre
HPV is associated with:
Cancer
Stage___ is the stage of labor in which the baby is born
II
Stage ___ is the stage of labor in which the placenta is delivered
III
Stage ___ is the stage of labor in which the cervix dilates
I
Which type od abortion may require a D&C:
Missed
Which type of abortion is characterized by spotting without dilation of the cervix?
Threatened
which of the following is NOT true about the fallopian tubes?
They may develope adhesions from chronic inflammation
Development of the mammary glands is controlled by which hormone?
Estrogen
Depo-provera is a good contreceptive choice for which of the following?
Patients who want to delay pregnancy for at least 18 months
An untreated maternal gonorrheal infection can result in which problem(s) for the infant?
Life threatening blood infection
The leading cause of gynecologic cancer death is ___ cancer
Ovarian
A child whose urine has a mousy smell most likely would be diagnosed with:
Phenylketonuria (PKU)
Which of the following is NOT used to measure specific gravity?
Microscope
A urine sample that can be collected at any given time is called a:
24-hour sample
A turbid urine sample means that the specimen is:
Cloudy
You are examining a patient' urinalysis report. Which of the following factors is normal?
Color, light amber.
One of the first detectable signs of liver disease is:
Bilirubinuria
A small amount of which of the following is always present in normal urine?
Urobilinogen
A urine specimen is tested and shown to have a pH of 8.0. This value is:
Midrange normal
The cell most likely seen in a normal specimen of urine is a:
Squamous epithelial cell
In the microscopic observation of urine sediment, yeast most resembles
Red blood cells
One of the first detectable signs of renal disease is:
Proteinuria
A urine pregnancy test result is positive:
From implantation of the fertilized egg through delivery
Which patients should be screened for gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM)?
Pregnant women at 24 to 28 weeks' gestation
Which of the following is an indication that a breast mass is NOT cancerous?
There is bloody discharge from the nipple
Which of the following is a tubular structure found in the urine and composed mainly of mucoprotein secreted by certaincells of the kidney?
Cast
the specific gravity of a urine specimen reads 1.035g/mL. This value is considered:
Abnormally high
On chemical analysis a urine specimen from a female with a urinary tract infection (UTI) most likely reveals ___ pH, ___ nitrate, and ___ leukocyte esterase.
Decrease; increase; increase
You open a urine sample for testing and immediately detect a fruity odor. The level of which test result do you expect to be elevated on chemical analysis?
Keytones
Physical assessment of a urine sample reveals clear, pale, straw-colored urine, with a sweet odor. Which pathogenic condition might this suggest?
Diabetes mellitus
When instruction a female patient on how to obtain a clean-catch, midstream urine specimen, you should tell her to use how many antiseptic towelettes?
Three
A 24-hour urine sample is ordered to determine which of the following?
Creatinine clearance rates
Which statement is true about the pH o urine?
the urine pH varies with the diet
Urine suspected of having high levels of which substance should be stored in a dark place before testing?
Bilirubin
A medical assistant instructs a patient to collect a first morning specimen for which of the following test?
All of the above. Pregnancy testing, culture for bacteriuria, quantitative protein determination.
Casts in a urine specimen develop in which part of the urinary tract?
Renal tubules
If a urine specimen cannot be analyzed within 30 minutes, the best course of action is to:
Refrigerate the specimen
A cloudy urine specimen may be the result of the presence of which of the following?
Lipids
Which if the following mismatched concerning urine color and the likely pathologic cause?
Reddish brown-diabetes
The primary reason for HIV screening of all pregnant women is that:
Properly treating the woman helps protect the fetus from HIV