An abnormal decrease in the size of a muscle is?
Atrophy
The cell from which a muscle develops is?
Myoblast
The abbreviation for Alzheimer's Disease?
AD
An Otoscope is used to?
Inspect the exterior ear canal
The procedure that is used to puncture the chest to remove fluid is called ?
Thoracentesis
Which of the following lab tests would be abnormal for a patient with anemia?
Hematocrit/hemoglobin
Hyperparathyroidism may be treated by which medical specialist?
Endocrinologist
An abnormal increase in total of WBCs is?
Leukocytosis
Extremely rapid breathing is called?
Hyperpnea
Which of the following suffixes refers to pain?
-algia
A suffix used to denote a surgical repair is?
-plasty
A mammogram is a radiograph of the?
Breast
The term alopecia is synonymous with?
Baldness
Another term for chewing is?
Mastication
A nevus in the antecubital area is a
Mole on the inside of the elbow
An inflammation of a joint is?
Arthritis
Fat makes up?
Adispose tissue
The cause of disease is referred to as?
etiology
The function of the olfactory nerve is?
Smelling
An oophorectomy is a surgical procedure of the?
Ovaries
The study of diseases and treatment of the male and female urinary bladder is?
Urology
A diagnostic procedure that alows for visualization of the urinary bladder is
Cystoscopy
A patient with hives most likely will report that he or she has
Urticaria
Lines body cavities that open to the outside?
A mucous membrane
The ventral region of the body is described as
Anterior
The body cavity that contains the intestines is the
Abdominal
Movement of a body part toward the midline of the body is
Adduction
The plane that divides the body into front and back halves is
Frontal
This Can follow a viral illness in children?
Reye's syndrome
The vertebrae of the lower back are the
Lumbar
An acute infectious skin disease caused by strep or staph is
Impetigo
The bone located in the posterior of the skull is the?
Occipital
The type of bone fracture in which the bone is bent and partially broken is a?
Greenstick fracture
the peripheral nervous system is composed of how many pairs of spinal nerves?
31
The pons and medulla make up the
Brain stem
A failure of bone marrow to produce red blood cells results in which type of anemia
Aplastic
Protrusion of a part of the stomach through the esophageal opening in the diaphragm is a?
Hiatal Hernia
The tympanic membrane is the?
Eardrum
The largest Artery in the body is the?
Aorta
The SA node Is the?
pacemaker of the heart
An x-ray taken to confirm a fracture of the distal forearm includes both the?
Radius and ulna
Which of the following demonstrates an involuntary muscle action?
heartbeat, breathing, peristalsis, pupil dilation
Which of the following organs are located in the RUQ?
Liver
An abnormal lateral curvature of the spine is known as?
Scoliosis
The diaphragm is stimulated by which nerve?
Phrenic
The alpha cells in the pancreas are responsible for the production of?
Glucagon
The surgical removal of the gallbladder is a?
Cholecystectomy
The cranial nerve involved in blindness is the?
Optic
The number of permanent teeth is?
32
Legally, a physician
May refuse to accept a patient if he or she chooses
An itinerary Is a?
a planned route or journey
Professionalism may best be displayed by?
Staying calm when dealing with angry patients
The ability to imagine taking the place of the patient and accepting the patient's behavior is?
Empathy
The patient's medical record belongs to?
The physician
A breast mass is found in a woman whose mother and sister have died from breast cancer. She cancels her next three follow-up appointments. Which defense mechanism is she using?
Denial
Personality differences are due to?
age, experience, heredity, environment)
Which is not a characteristic desirable in a medical assistant?
Impatience
Which is not an example of stereotyping?
Young children react differently to stressful situations
To release medical information the patient must sign a?
release form
Which of the following should be reported to the health department?
HIV
Which of the following is objective data?
Vital signs
Which of the following phone calls should be given immediately to the physician?
Another physician
In Maslow's hierarchy of needs, the need to be loved and free from loneliness is a?
Social need
If a patient refuses to consent to treatment, the medical assistant should?
Delay treatment and inform/consult the physician
An enforceable contract contains?
All of the above (an offer, an acceptance, a consideration, a capacity)
The opposite of anterior is?
Posterior
Informed consent should include which of the following elements?
All of the above (benefits and risks of the treatment, purpose of treatment, nature of the patient's condition, assessment of the patient's understanding o the treatment)
All of the following are reasons for revoking a physcian's license except?
Providing atypical care
The control center of a cell of?
Nucleus
Subcutaneous tissue is?
found under the skin, contains fat, is an injection site, connects the dermis to the muscle surface
Which is not a bone of the lower extremity?
Humerus
The muscle in the upper extremity that is used as an injection site is the?
Deltoid
Gas exchange in the lungs takes place in the?
Alveoli
The Liver makes?
bile, detoxifies harmful substances, produces heparin, stores glycogen
The fertilized ova implants into the?
Endometrium
Testosterone is produced in the?
Testes
There are _______pairs of spinal nerves?
31
Gustatory receptors are located in the?
Mouth
Insulin decreases ?
blood sugar level
A decrease in the total number of white blood cells?
Leukopenia
The physician is legally obligated to report?
deaths, births, communicable diseases, abuse
The prefix "Brady" means?
Slow
The opposite of superficial is?
Deep
An authorization in advance to withdraw artifical life support is an?
Advance Directive
Unconsciously avoiding the reality of an unpleasant event is called?
Denial
Tell me more about it" is an example of?
An open-ended statement
The study of the CAUSE of a disease is?
pathology
Nonverbal communication may be conveyed by?
All of the Above (touch, eye contact, body position, silence)
Bulimia is an?
Eating disorder
A cerebral vascular accident can also be called a?
Stroke
Rubeola is also called?
Measles
A sexually transmitted disease caused by a protozoal infestation is?
Trichomoniasis
An eletrolyte that has an important influence of the activity of the heart muscles is?
Potassium
Which of the following respiratory disorders is characterized by a loss of lung capacity?
Emphysema
The type of membrane that lines cavities of the body that open to the outside is?
Mucous
Another name for an open fracture is?
Compound Fracture
Which of the following types of scheduling is not a good type of time management?
Double-booking
What piece of mail should be placed on top when sorting the physician's mail?
Envelope marked "Personal
Open punctuation is characterized by?
Absence of punctuation after the salutation and a comma after the complimentary close
The federal insurance program that provides for the medically indigent is?
Medicaid
The process of transferring an amount from the day sheet to the ledger is?
Posting
A numeric filing system requires the use of an?
Alphabetical cross-reference
The file folder label for Jennie Holmes-Mathis should be?
Holmes-Mathis, Jennie
Third-party participation in an office indicates the relationship between the?
Physician, Patient and Insurance company
A claim may be rejected by an insurance company because of the omission of?
All of the Above (complete diagnosis, policy number, patient birth date, itemization of charges)
How much postage is required for a first-class letter that weighs 3 oz if the first ounce costs .34C and each additional ounce is .25?
.83 cents
When the word "Confidential" is to be typed on the envelope, it should be placed?
Below the Return Address
The most formal of complimentary closings is?
Very Truly Yours
When making an appointment, which of the following is not needed?
Insurance Information
This type of call allows more than one person in more than one place to talk simultaneously?
Conference Call
This computer procedure protects against the loss of data?
Backing-Up
A tickler file is?
Future events arranged in chronological order
All of the following would require a CPT code except?
Diarrhea
Which of the following characteristics of a receptionist could make an impression on a patient?
Appearance, professionalism, manners, attitude
A "V-code" Refers to?
Factors that influence health status
Mail that is opened accidentally should be?
Resealed with tape, and notes as "opened in error
Which of the following are E/M descriptors?
All of the Above (physical exam, school physical, well-baby check-up, pre-op physical)
Which is an example of a third-party payer?
Medicare
In the POMR (PROBLEM ORIENTED) system, the intial database includes?
A numbered list of present problems
A trial balance is a comparison of the?
Ledger card totals and account-receivable balance
When adding information to the medical record, new notes are added?
Newest to the front
Which of the following calls require immediate transfer to the physician?
Calls from Another physician
Appointments should be scheduled?
In consecutive order without larg gaps
Which is not part of basic information obtained at the patient's first visit?
Diagnosis
Standard size paper and envelope for business correspondence is
8 1/2 x 11; no. 10 envelope
Patient's ledger cards should be kept In a?
Separate ledger file
The bank statement is reconciled with the?
Checkbook
The record of the proceedings of a meeting is the?
Minutes
Which of the following protects data from being lost?
Backing-Up
The scheduling system based on scheduling similar appointments or procedures together is called?
Grouping
Appropriate information to include in a patient information brochure would be?
Information about the scope of the practice
A new employee must complete which of the following?
W-4 form
Which of the following abbreviations is not correct?
HGB
Patient information that is released without patient's authorization could result in legal charge of?
Invasion of privacy
A correctly addressed envelope includes?
Omission of all punctuation
Which of the following circumstances would waive the need for a written release of medical records?
A subpoena
In double-entry bookkeeping, the original entry is put onto the?
Daily log
The correct way to indicate an enclosure notation is?
Enclosure
A superbill provides which of the following?
Insurance Claim
Which of the following is the purpose of records management?
All of the Above (storage, arranging, accessibility, classifying)
Which coding system is not associated with medical procedures?
ICD9-CM
Which is not an indexing rule?
Initials come after complete names
ICD-9-CM codes that refer to factors that may influence the patient's health status are
V-Codes
The smallest piece of information that the computer can process is a (n)?
Bit
The index of files on a disk is the?
Directory
The appointment system of the office should take into account the needs of the?
Physcians and Patients
Dear Mrs. May" is an example of?
Mixed punctuation
A master list of equipment inventory includes all of the following except the?
Operating Manuals
Which of the following hospital records may be released by the authorization of the attending surgeon only?
Operative Notes
An illness that existed before an insurance policy is written is known as a?
Pre-Existing Condition
A patient has not been seen in the office for two years. HIs record would be found in the?
Inactive Files
An important consideration when deciding how to position the computer monitor at the reception desk is?
Patient Confidentiality
Which group of patients should be escorted to the exam room and given instructions on what they ar to do?
All of the Above (Children, New patients, established patients, elderly)
Which information is not essential for the surgery scheduler when requesting a surgery date?
Name of Assisting Physcian
The notation "Julia Jones, MD" means
A copy of the letter is sent to Dr. Jones
A "History and Physical" usually contains all of the following except?
Results of lab tests
Under a manged care plan, the physcian agrees to?
Accept predetermined fees
Which type of insurance organization uses the fee-for-services concept?
PPO
Which factor is not included when determining the level of service for E and M codes?
Cost of Services
When money is placed in an account, which of the following documents is prepared?
Deposit Slip
The most common color-coding system color codes the?
Patient's surname
Standard precautions are designed to be used for?
All patients
Disposable single-use gloves should be worn?
When handling specimens, and when performing venipuncture
Normal oral tempature, in degrees, is?
98.6 f
Normal respiratory rate for an adult is?
14-20 breaths per minute
Vital signs include?
Blood Pressure
The pulse rate is usually higher in?
Children than adults
Pulse rate is decreased by?
All of the Above (sleep, brain injury, causing increased pressure, hypothyroidism)
A high fever occurs when the body temperature, in degrees, is?
103-105 f
The pulse pressure is?
The difference between the systolic and dialstolic blood pressure
A patient who weighs 45 kg also weighs how many pounds?
99
A patient who is 72 inches tall is?
6 feet
During a physical exam, percussion is most commonly used to examine the?
Chest and back
A patient's reaction to stress, use of defense mechanisms, and resources for support would be recorded under?
Social History
Subjective findings include?
How the patient feels, information about the patients family, previous pregnancies
Visual acuity is?
Clearness of Vision
The purpose of a Proctoscopy is to examine the?
Rectum
A patient in the Sims' position is lying on the?
Left side and chest, with right leg flexed
A patient lying flat on the abdomen is in the?
Prone Position
The physician uses which of the following to examine the patient's eyes?
Ophthalmoscope
The patient should be placed in which of the following positions for examination of the head and neck?
Sitting
For an obstetrics exam, urine is routinely checked for the presence of?
Glucose and protein
A patient should be taught that the best time to perform a self-breast exam is about?
One week after her period
An infection that has a rapid onset, severe symptoms, and subsides in a short period of time is called?
Acute
Sterile wrapped items can be safely stored, and considered sterile, for up to?
21-28 days
When removing a pack from the autoclave, you notice that the sterilization indicator has not changed color. You should?
Unwrap the pack; rewrap the pack; replace the indicator; resterilze
Scrubbing an item with soap and water before sterilization is?
Sanitization
The type of immunity that develops from having the disease is?
Acquired active
When opening a sterile pack, the top flap should be opened?
Away from the body
The finest suture material of the following list is?
8-0
A type of instrument that is used to grasp or hold tissues or objects is a?
Forceps
Betadine (providone-iodine) should not be used on the skin of a patient who is allergic to?
Iodine
Wound drainage that contains pus is charted as?
Purulent
The angle for the insertion of the needle for an ID injection is?
10-15 degrees
A medication that is placed under the tongue is being administered by which technique?
Sublingual
To administer an intramuscular injection, which needle would you use?
1 1/2 21 gauge
A type of drug that increases urinary output is?
Diuretic
The physician orders 250 mg amoxicillin IM. The vial reads "500 mg per 1 ml." How much would be given to the patient?
0.5 ml
When a specimen is placed in a centrifuge, a tube of similar size containing liquid of similar weight should be placed?
Directly opposite the specimen
Microscopic examination pf a urine sample should be performed?
Within 1/2 hour of collection
The absence of urinating formation is termed?
Anuria
Normal specific gravity is generally between?
1.010-1.025
A CBC includes?
All of the Above (platelet count, hemoglobin and hematocrit, WBC count)
Capillary blood is usually obtained?
From a skin puncture
A cholecystogram is used to view the?
Gallbladder
Heat application dilates?
blood vessels
The wave on an EKG that represents contraction of the atria is?
P
The pacemaker of the heart is called the?
Sinoatrial Node
A standard EKG has how many leads?
12
The standard speed for recording an EKG is?
25mm/sec
To cauterize a small lesion on the oral mucosa, the physician may use an applicator with?
Silver Nitrate
A common lab test that may be ordered for a patient on Coumadin therapy is?
Pro Time
Which one of the following types of suture material is absorbable?
Catgut
The minimum number of cells to be counted in a differential blood smear is?
100
A hemoglobin of 10 g/dl is approximately equivalent to a hematocrit of?
30 %
Which of the following lab results should be called to the attention of the physician?
Sed rate: 30mm/hr
The stain used to identify bacteria is the?
Gram stain
On standing for a long time, a urine sample becomes?
Alkaline
A blood sample for serum is collected in which of the following tubes?
Red-stoppered
Which of the following are categories to classify instruments used in surgery?
All of the above (probing and dilating, cutting and dissecting, grasping and clamping, retracting)
The first thing that should be done in an emergency situation involving an unconscious person is to?
Assess victim's airway
A physical examination of a urine sample includes?
All of the above (odor, color, transpareency, specific gravity)
Most drugs are metabolized in the?
Liver
The Ishihara test tests for?
color-blindness
Which is not a common symptom of a myocardial infarction?
Polyuria
Hemostats are a type of?
Forceps
The normal ratio for respiration to pulse is?
4 to 1
Symptoms of insulin shock include?
All of the above (restless and confusion, cold, clammy skin, profuse sweating, rapid, weak pulse)
Which is the most important route for the elimination of drugs from the body?
Kidney
Prozac is an example of an?
Anti-depressant
The two most important factors in performing an effective handwash are?
Friction and running water
At which age is the first MMR vaccination recommended?
Twelve months
If a patient describes an aura before the onset of a severe headache, this if often a sign of a?
Migraine
A function of hemoglobin is to?
Carry oxygen and carbon dioxide
A quality assurance program in the lab?
Ensures the accuracy of results
The reaction of the PPD test is read?
48-72 hours after it is administered
The abbreviation for "both ears" is?
AU
The blood type known as the "universal donor" is?
O
A lower GI series is performed to outline the?
Colon
A technique that provides soft tissue images in three dimension is?
CT Scan
Massive and prolonged exposure to radiation can result in?
Cancer
The first group of leads to be recorded on an EKG are?
Leads I, II, and III
Streptococci are arranged in?
Chains
Pulse rate may be increased in all of the following except?
Increasing age
The electrode that is used for grounding in an EKG is?
RL (right leg)
Which federal agency oversees the safety of health facilities?
OSHA
A drug reference contains all of the following information except?
Cost
Ibuprofen has analgesic and antipyretic properties and is used to treat?
All of the above (pain, arthritis, headache, sysmenorrhea)
Which of the following patient instructions is critical for a successful Holter Monitor recording interpretation?
Keep a written recording of all daily activities
The involuntary muscular action that moves food along the GI tract is called?
Peristalsis
The first dose of DTP (DTap) vaccine should be administered at?
Two months
A ligament connects?
Bone to bone
Tissue samples removed during a biopsy would be sent to which department of the lab?
Histology
Which of the following would be least likely to contaminate the sterile field?
Nonsterile person entering the room
An antihistamine that may be used to treat an allergic reaction is?
Benadryl
Each of the following abbreviations is correctly defined except?
qod-every day
Surgical asepsis should be maintained when performing which of the following?
Needle Biopsy
How often should quality control tests be performed in the lab?
Daily
This type of nerve conducts impulses toward the brain?
Afferent
Sweat glands are termed?
Sudoriferous glands
An infectious inflammatory skin disease caused by staphylococci and characterized by vesicles that later crust is called?
Impetigo
A decrease is bone density may indicate?
Osteoporosis
The largest portion of the brain is the?
Cerebrum
An impairment of vision due to old age is/
Presbyopia
An infection of the middle ear may be charted as?
Otitis Media
The valve located between the right atrium and left ventricle is the?
Tricuspid
The medical term for whooping cough is?
Pertussis
The region between the lungs that contains the heart, aorta, esophagus, and bronchial tubes is the?
Mediastinum
Inflammation of the nasal mucosa results in?
Rhinitis
A disease that is characterized by muscle rigidity, a shuffling gait, and progressive tremors is?
Parkinson's disease
Which of the following accessory organs of digestion stores and concentrates bile?
Gallbladder
Micturition is a synonym for?
Urination
Which of the following indicates an aggravation of symptoms?
Exacerbation
A woman who has given birth to two or more children may be called?
Multipara
The release of an ovum from the ovary is?
Ovulation
Male sterilization is called a?
Vasectomy
Which of the following are ways in which pathogens can be spread?
All of the above (transmission by a vector, person-to-person contact, environmental contact, object-to-person contact)
The "colored" portion of the eye is known as?
Iris
All of the following are bones of the middle ear except the?
Pinna
The combining form for "bone" is?
Osteo-
Slow heartbeat is also called?
Bradycardia
A temporary absence of respiration is?
Apnea
A collection of blood in the pleural cavity is called a?
Heomthorax
An endoscopic examination of the rectum is charted as a?
Sigmoidoscopy
The downward projection from the lower edge of the soft palate is the?
Uvula
The combining form "labio" means?
Lip
The hollow, muscular organ that temporarily stores urine in the?
Urinary Bladder
The secretion from an endocrine glad is called a?
Hormone
Progesterone is produced by the?
Corpus Luteum
The region between the vagina and anus is termed the
Perineum
Which of the following is not a part of the axial skeleton?
Scapula
A wound that barely penetrates the skins is charted as being?
Superficial
A surgical opening into the eardrum to avoid rupture is a?
Myringotomy
An antipyretic agent works against?
Fever
-Stasis?
to stop or control
Splenomegaly?
Enlargement of spleen
Sten/o?
Narrowing
-Stomy?
Forming a new opening
Subpulmonary?
Below the lungs
Tenodynia?
Painful tendon
Thrombectomy?
Surgical removal of blood clot
Tympan/o?
Eardrum or drumlike
Unilateral?
On one side
Transthorax?
Across the chest
-Pexy?
Suspension or fixation
Abortion?
Termination of pregnancy before viability
Rrhexis?
Rupture of a vessel, organ, or tissue
Hypoglycemia?
Less than normal blood sugar
9 Quadrants in a human body are?
Cranial, Spinal, Dorsal, Thoracic, Diaphram, Abdominal, Ventral, Pelvic, and Abdominopelvic
The human body has 206 bones, cartilage and ligaments. The framework of the body is called the?
Skeletal System
Alplasia?
Lack of formation or development; usually refers to organ
12 pair of bones that make up the thorax; the bars of the cage?
Ribs
Lordosis (swayback)?
Excessive curvature in the lumbar portion of the vertebral column
Scoliosis?
Abnormal lateral curvature of the vertebral column
A tort is ?
A type of civil law.
Malfeasance is one form of?
malpractice
Kyphosis (hunch back)?
An excessive curvature in the thoracic portion of the vertebral column.
AIDS (Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome)?
Decreased immunity resulting from infection with the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) Leaving the victim suscetible to opportunistic diseases.
Tachycardia?
Increased heart rate (pulse)
Muscular System?
Contains approx. 650 muscles that form of the body.
Mammoplasty?
Surgical reconstruction of the breast
Menigocele?
Herniation of the meninges
Lymphadentitis?
Inflammation of the lymph gland/ nodes
Inter/o
Between in the midst
Malacia?
Softening of the tissues
Myc/o?
Fungus or mold
Vas/o?
Vessel or duct
Arthritis, Arthr/o?
Inflammation of the joints
-Itis?
Inflammation
Rhinorrhea?
flow or discharge from the nose
Anteroposterior?
Passing from front to rear
Anterior (ventral)?
Front of the body
Dactyl/o?
Digit, finger, or toe
Cytology?
study of cells
Cystitis?
Bladder inflammation
Cholecysitis?
Inflammation of the gallbladder
Cyanosis?
Bluish condition of the skin
Chiroplasty?
surgical repair of the hands
Cervicofacial?
pertaining to the face and neck
Cardiomegaly?
enlargement of the heart
Bradycardia?
slow heart rate (pulse)
Hemiplegia?
Paralysis of the one half of the body
Gynecopathy?
any disease of the female reproductive system
Nasopharyngeal?
pertaining to nose and throat
Metrorrhexis?
Rupture of the uterus
Absorption?
The transfer of the products of the digestion into the blood and lymph for circulation.
Menostasis?
suppression of the menses
Posterior (dorsal)?
Back of the body
Pneum/o?
Air
Peri?
around about
Adrenomegaly?
enlargement of the adrenal glands
Abdominocentesis?
surgical puncture of the abdomen to remove fluid
Neuralgia?
pain in nerves
Onchocryptosis?
An ingrown nail (hidden in the nail bed) nail, finger or toenail
Neurotripsy?
surgical crushing of a nerve
-Logy?
the study of
Necrosis?
Death of tissue or bone
Nephrolysis?
Destruction of the kidney tissue
Intracerebral?
within the main part of the brain
Intravascular?
within a vessel
Nephropathy?
Disease of kidney
Leukopenia?
Decreased white cells
Onychomycosis?
condition of fungus of the nails
oophorectomy?
excision of an ovary
Litholysis?
destruction of a stone
Nervous system?
Regulates body functions and processes. Communicates stimuli and responses throughout the body. Generates thoughts, sensations, emotions and perceptions.
Chemicals are made up of?
atoms and molecules
Organ?
group of tissues working together to perform a function
Tissues?
Groups of cells with similar structures and functions (such as the connective tissues)
Cells?
Structural and functional units of life
-Lysis?
Destruction, Destroy and Dissolution
Pneumon/o?
Lung
Phonia or Phon/o?
voice
Phag/o?
Ingest or eat
Algesia?
pain or sensitivity to pain
Gastritis?
inflammation of the stomach
Gastrectasia?
stretching of the stomach
Enteritis?
Inflammation of the small intestine
Endocarditis?
inflammation of the inside lining of the heart
Encephalitis?
inflammation of the brain
-Emia?
pertaining to the blood
Dyspepsia?
indigestion or painful digestion
Gastritis or Gastr/o?
inflammation of the stomach
Neuropathy?
disease of the nerves
Rrhagia?
burst forth or hemorrhage
Lateral?
side of body
Medial?
middle of body
Duodenscopy?
Inspection of the duodenum with a scope
Homeostasis?
The equilibrium or health of the body as measured by established norms for blood pressure, heart rate, temperature, resp. rate, and other indicators.
Bones and related structures that support?
Skeletal system
Muscles and related structures that accommodate movement?
Muscular system
Dextr/o?
Right
Dermatosis?
Any skin lesion or eruption
The study of body structure?
Anatomy
The study of body function?
Physiology
The study of abnormal changes in body structures or functions?
Pathology
Skin and related structures that contain and protect?
Integumentry system
A group of organs working together to perform a set of related functions are?
Systems
Dacryocystitis?
Inflammation of a tear sac
cytoscopy?
microscopic examination of cells
Abduction?
Moving away from the body mid-line. (The opposite of adduction)
AB?
away from; absent
Orchid?
testicle
Orchidectomy?
surgical removal of the testicle
Osteoarthropathy?
Disease of joints and bones
Osteocyte?
Bone cell
-Pepsis?
Digestion
Phleborrhexis?
Rupture of a vein
Proctorrhagia?
Hemorrhage of the rectum
Pyeloplasty?
surgical repair of the renal pelvis
Arteriosclerosis?
thickening (hardening) of the arteries
Antipyretic?
against fever; fever reducing
Analgesia?
to take away pain, free from pain
Hemostasis?
Control bleeding or to stop bleeding
ot/o?
ear
Algia?
pain
Otalgia?
ear pain
Posteromedial?
middle of the back or middle of the back side
hypothermia?
below normal temperatue
retinopathy?
disease of the retina
Hepatomegaly?
Enlargement of liver
Hysterorrhapy?
suturing of the uterus
Acrocyanosis?
Blue condition of the extremities
Retroperitoneal?
Behind the peritoneum
Proper interaction with pediatric patients includes the following EXCEPT?
Telling a child that a procedure will not hurt at all.
The salutation of a letter is placed?
Two lines below the inside address.
A urine test that compares the weight of urine to that of distilled water is?
specific gravity
The ECG lead that measures the difference in electrical potential between the right arm and left arm is?
Lead I
Intra?
Within
Sub?
Beneath, below, or under
Lith/o?
Stone
Gingivoglossitis?
Inflammation of the gums and tongue
Laparotomy?
Incision of the abdominal wall
Dys?
Difficult, or painful
Kinesi/o?
Movement, or motion
-ia?
Pertaining to
Dyskinesia?
Difficult movement
Adeno?
Gland
-oma?
Tumor
Adenoma?
Tumor of a gland
-Pathy?
Any disease
Gyneco?
Female
Pyogenesis?
Formation of pus
Hyperplasia?
Excessive formation of cells or tissue
Hemi?
Half, one half
Plegia?
Pertaining to paralysis
Spinal cavity?
Contains the spinal cord;runs continuously from the brainstem in the cranial cavity to the end of the spinal cord
Cranial cavity?
Contains the brain
Thoracic cavity?
Contains the heart,lung, and large blood vessels;it is separated from the abdominal cavity by the diaphragm;within the thoracic cavity lies the mediastinum a smaller cavity between the lungs that contains the heart and large blood vessels
Abdominal cavity?
Contains the stomach, most of the intestines, the kidneys, liver, gallbladder, pancreas, and spleen; it is separated from the thoracic cavity (superior) by the diaphragm and from the pelvic cavity
Pelvic cavity?
Contains the urinary bladder, rectum, and internal organs of the male and female reproductive system
The body contains different types of_____ found in the diverse organs and systems?
Tissues
The study of tissue is called?
Histology
Forms the outer surface of the body?
Epithelial tissue
Squamous (flat and irregular) cuboidal or columnar?
Cells
Simple or stratified?
Layers
Supports and connects other tissues and structures?
Connective tissues
Produces movement?
Muscular tissue
_______ are thin sheets of tissue that line and protect structures?
Membranes
The main tissue of the outer layer of the skin is?
Epithelial membrane
The glands that are saclike in structure and produce oily secretions that lubricate the skin are?
Sebaceous
The portion of skeletal bone that manufactures blood cells is the?
Red bone marrow
The structure that attach muscles to bone are?
Tendons
Nerve fibers are insulated and protected by a fatty material called?
Myelin
The function of the lacrimal apparatus is to?
Produce tears to lubricate the eye
A bone that is part of the pelvic girdle is the?
Ischium
The cellular components of blood include?
Erthrocytes, leukocytes and platelets
An organ located in the left upper quadrant is the?
Spleen
The structure in the body also known as the voice?
Larynx
The wavelike movement the propels food through the digestive tract is called?
Peristalsis
The process that does not require oxygen for the breakdown of glucose is referred to as being?
Anaerobic
The term that means the body is in a state of equilibrium or balance is?
Metabolism
The funnel shaped basin that forms the upper end of the ureter is the?
Renal pelvis
In both males and females the entire pelvic floor is called the?
Perineum
A pregnancy that develops in a location outside the uterine cavity is referred to as?
Ectopic pregnancy
Which of the following body systems includes the thyroid and pituitary glands
Circulatory
The term inguinal pertains to what area or structure of the body?
Groin
The measure of acidity or alkalinity of solution is called?
pH ( hydrogen ion)
The thoracic and abdominal cavities of the body are separated by the?
Diaphragm
The chambers of the heart are the?
Ventricles and atria
An example of active immunity is?
Producing antibodies as a result of having a disease
The structure in the body also known as the voice box is the?
Larynx
The wavelike movement that propels food through the digestive tract is called?
Peristalsis
The process that DOES NOT REQUIRE oxygen for the breakdown of glucose is referred to as being?
Anaerobic
The term that means the body is in state of equilibrium or balance?
Homeostasis
The funnel shaped basin that forms the upper end of the uterus?
Renal cortex
In both males and females the entire pelvic floor is called?
Perineum
The measure of acidity or alkalinity of a solution is called?
p-h
A term that describes a solution that has the same concentration as cell fluids is?
Isotonic
The fibrous bands that support organs to hold them in place are?
Fascia
The membrane that surrounds the heart is the?
Pericardium
The small tip of the cartilage at the lower end of the sternum is the?
Xiphoid process
A major muscle in the body that assists in raising the arm away from the body is the?
Satorius
Cells that carry or transmit impulses toward the central nervous system are called?
Afferent neurons
The spaces in the brain where cerebrospinal fluid is formed is/are the?
Ventricles
Impulses from the receptors for smell are carried to the brain by the?
Olfactory nerve
The hormone that is essential for growth is produced in the?
Pituitary gland
Which of the following represents layers of the heart?
Epicardium and myocardium
The blood vessel that brings blood from the head, chest, and arms back to the heart is the?
Superior vena cave
Which of the following is the proper sequence for the flow of blood in the body?
Artery ?? vein?? arteriole
The condition and f inflammation of the lymphatic vessels is called?
Lymphangitis
The lymphatic system includes the following organs and tissue EXCEPT?
Hypothalamus
The process in which white blood cells take in and destroy waste and foreign material is called?
Phagocytosis
The structure common to the respiratory and digestive systems is the?
Pharynx
An accumulation of air in the pleural space that may lead to collapse of the lung is called?
Pneumothorax
The leaf shaped cartilage that covers the opening of the larynx is the?
Epiglottis
Most of the digestive process occurs in the?
Small intestine
The lining of the stomach has many folds called?
Rugae
The first portion of the small intestine?
Duodenum
An accumulation of excessive fluid in the intercellular spaces is called?
Edema
The kidneys are located in the?
Retroperitoneal space
The term hydronephrosis means?
Distention of the renal pelvis resulting from obstructed flow of urine
The sex glands of the male and female reproductive system are the?
Testes and ovaries
The bone that lies between the hip and the knee is the?
Femur
The largest artery in the body is the?
Abdominal aorta
The term that refers to absence of mentsral flow in a woman of reproductive age is?
Amenorrhea
The hormone produced by the embryonic cells of the fetus?
Human chorionic gonadotropin hormone
A substance necessary for proper formation of a blood clot is?
Thrombin
The left atrioventricular AV valve in the heart is also known as the?
Mitral valve
The only artery in the body that carries deoxygenated blood is the?
Pulmonary artery
A localized dilation resulting from weakness of a blood vessel wall is a?
Aneurysm
An example of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is?
Emphysema
A portion of the large intestine is the?
Sigmoid
A chronic degenerative disease of the liver is?
Cirrhosis
The tube that permits urine to pass from the bladder to the outside of the body is the?
Urethra
The innermost layer of the uterus is the?
Endometrium
The frontal or coronal plane of the body divides the body into?
Front and rear
The membrane attached to internal organs is the?
Visceral layer
The term that describes a disorder that breaks down tissues in a body system is?
Degenerative
The study of the cause of any disease or of all factors that may be involved in the development of a disease is?
Etiology
The chronic skin condition characterized by a red flat area covered with silvery scales is?
Psoriasis
Which of the following is not one of the cranial bones?
Maxilla
The bone that is part of the shoulder girdle and is between the sternum and the scapula is the?
Clavicle
The type of muscle responsible for producing peristaliyis?
Smooth
The type of joint motion that allows movement away from the midline of the body such as moving the arms straight out to the sides is?
Abduction
The sympathetic system of the autonomic nervous system is responsible for?
Dilation of bronchi of the lungs
The portion of the brain that aids in the coordination of voluntary muscle action is the?
Cerebellum
Strabismus is a condition of the eye causing?
Cross eyed appearance
A structure found in the inner ear is the?
Cochlea
The clusters of cells called the islets of langerhans are located in the?
Pancreas
A goiter is associated with abnormal function of the?
Thyroid gland
The Rh factor in Blood is?
An antigen that affects a persons blood type
A heart disease that is present at birth is?
Congenital heart disease
Which of the following blood vessels is proximal to the heart?
Ascending aorta
The human immunodeficiency virus is the cause of which disease
Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome
Which of the following statements is accurate about the lungs?
The sac covering the lungs is the pleural sac
A communicable infectious disease of the lungs is?
Tuberculosis
An example of inflammatory bowel disease is?
Crohns disease
A form of gum disease in the mouth is?
Vincent's disease
A chronic malignant disease characterized by enlargement of the lymph nodes and spleen is the?
Hodgkin's disease
The fluid contained within the body cells is called?
Intercellular fluid
Plasma?
Is the liquid part of blood and interstitial fluid is tissue found in spaces between cells
Isotonic?
Means the same concentration of fluid inside and outside a cell.
Two important electrolytes found in the body are?
Sodium and potassium
Zinc and magnesium?
Are minerals
Protein and carbohydrates?
Are nutrients
Nitrogen and carbon dioxide?
Are gases
A condition resulting from renal failure and causing high levels of blood urea nitrogen is?
Uremia
The period of pregnancy is called?
Gestation
The hormone that causes contraction of uterine muscle during labor is?
Oxytocin
The region located directly below the umbilical region is the?
Hypogastric region
An example of exocrine glands are?
Sebaceous glands
The order of the vertebral column from top to bottom is?
Cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, coccyx
The muscle located on the anterior thigh and that functions to extend the leg is the?
Quadriceps femoris
The artey located in the upper arm is the?
Brachial artery
What arteries are located in the neck?
Carotid artery
What artery is located in the armpit axillary area?
The subclavian artey
Any foreign body substance that enters the body and induces an immune response is a?
Antigen
An immunoglobulin?
Also known as an antibody is a substance produced in response to an antigen
An enzyme?
Is a protein produced in the body that causes a breakdown of food
A globulin?
Is a protein in the blood associated with antibodies
The smaller leg bone lateral to the tibia is?
The fibula
The femur?
Is the largest bone in the body, is the thigh bone
The patella?
Is the kneecap
Tarsals?
Refer to any one of the seven ankle bones
The small pouch that the first part of the large intestine is the?
Cecum
The small intestine are parts of the?
Jejunum, duodenum, and ileum
The region between the stomach and small intestine is the?
Plyorus
The hormone that regulates the amount of water that is eliminated with urine is?
ADH; anti diuretic hormone
ACTH; adrenocorticotropichormone?
Stimulates the adrenal cortex to produce cortical
Hormones that aid in protecting he body in stress and injury
FSH; follicle stimulating hormone?
Stimulates the growth and activity of the ovarian follicle
TSH; thyroid stimulating hormone
Stimulates thyroid gland to produce thyroid hormones
Diabetic retinopathy is a result of damage to the?
Eyes
Which of the following statements is TRUE?
Type 2 diabetes is non insulin dependent diabetes
Which of the following is protein found in a he epidermis that makes the skin waterproof?
Melanin
What is a protein found in the dermis to that provides strength and flexibility?
Collagen
What are hairlike processes that trap and move foreign particles?
Cilia
What is the most common condition of the eye associated with aging?
Presbyopia
What is a condition of farsightedness in which the distant objects can be seen more clearly that closer objects?
Hyperopia
A condition causing impaired vision from an irregular curve of the cornea?
Astigmatism
A inability of both eyes to simultaneously focus on a subject?
Strabismus
Abnormal growth of blood vessels or other materials in the retina?
Macular degeneration
What structure is at the neck of the bladder and surrounds the urethra?
Prostate
The epigastric anatomical region of the abdomen is located?
Distal to the sternum
Collagen a substance found in the dermis is a?
Fibrous protein
Which of the following glands are located in the sides of the vaginal opening and produce mucus?
Bartholin gland
The prostate and Cowper gland?
Are glands associated with the male reproductive system
Endocrine glands?
Have no ducts and secrete hormones directly into the blood stream
When the foot is moved outward the joint movement is?
Abduction
Circumduction?
Is moving in a circular motion
Flexion?
Is bending a body part
Is moving toward the body or inward?
Adduction
Extension?
Is straightening a body part
The master gland of the body is the?
Pituitary gland
A fracture of the radius characterized by bending of the bone with the skin left intact is referred to as?
Green stick closed
Spermatozoa normally fertilize the female ovum in the?
Fallopian tube
The glomerulus is a cluster of blood capillaries found in the?
Nephron
The disorder characterized by uncontrollable episodes of falling asleep is?
Narcolepsy
The regulation of body temperature is controlled by the?
Hypothalamus
Which of the following is NOT A NEUROTRANSMITTER?
Aldosterone
Acetylcholine, norepinephrine, and epinephrine?
Are all neurotransmitters
Cranial nerve 1, the olafactory nerve, is related to the sense of?
Smell
A blood cell that carries oxygen and has no nucleus is an?
Erythrocyte
During respiration exhaled air contains primarily?
Carbon dioxide
A condition causing backflow of the stomach acid through an incompetent esophageal sphincter is called?
GERD
Which of the following is the best example of nonverbal communication?
Body language
When a person generalizes the behavior or characteristics of all members of particular culture, race or religion it is referred to as?
Stereotyping
Three elements necessary for basic communication include?
Message, sender and receiver
To have proper verbal communication with a patient you should use?
Conversation at the patients educational level
Communicating with someone who is grieving the loss of a loved one is difficult when the person refuses to acknowledge the loss. This type of behavior is referred to as?
Denial
To communicate with a sight impaired patient it is important to?
Tell the patient each time before you touch him or her
To communicate with a hearing impaired patient it will be advisable to?
Speak slowly and distinctly to the patient
Which of the following is an example of and opened ended question you would ask a patient?
What day can you come in for a follow up appointment
When communicating with a difficult challenging patient you should?
Exhibit a diplomatic attitude
Which of the following is an example of behavior that demonstrates open nonverbal communication?
Leaning forward to listen
When individual is overemphasizing certain behaviors to accommodate for real or imagined weaknesses he or she is?
Compensating
Maslow's hierarchy of human needs is based on the he concept that?
Physiological needs are the most basic but are necessary for a person to progress any further toward reaching self actualization
The receiving and interpreting of a message is known as?
Decoding
Psychological behaviors that protect a person from guilt and shame are?
Defense mechanisms
WHEN COMMUNICATING with a non English speaking patient it is appropriate to?
Use gestures to demonstrate information
PREJUDICE IS A TERM that means?
You hold an opion or bias concerning an individual because of his or her affiliation with a specific group
TO ENCOURAGE further comments from a patient the interviewer can repeat what the patient has said using open ended statements that require the patient to respond. This technique is called?
Reflecting
A PATIENT WHO IS withdrawn, weeping, and isolated from others may experiencing?
Depression
MAINTAINING A PROFESSIONAL relationship with the patient means that you should?
Deliver patient care that allows you to continue to provide objective medical care
PROPER FLOW OF communication occurs in the following order?
Message, response, clarification and feedback
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING is an issue that becomes predominant during the adolescent stage of development?
Self image
TO SET THE STAGE for successful communication you should?
Sit at the patients level eye to eye and maintain eye contact with the patient if culturally appropriate
COMMUNICATION techniques that are used when interviewing a patient include?
Reflecting and summarizing
AVOID discussing patient problems in the office?
To avoid breaching confidentiality you should
THE PROGRESSION OF A persons needs from basic survival to reaching ones pinnacle or self actualization is known as maslows?
Hierarchy
THE 4 D'S?
Duty, derelict, direct cause and damage
THE BILL OF RIGHTS?
Include the right to confidentiality
THE CODE OF HAMMURABI?
Was written in 2500 bce
AN ADVANCED DIRECTIVE STATES the patients decisions for medical care before an incapacitating event?
A living will
WAS DESIGNED TO encourage health care workers to stop at the scene of emergencies by protecting them from liability for civil damages?
The Good Samaritan act
CC
Chief Complaint
Segment
Line between two wave forms
P-wave
Atrial Depolarization
How many 1mm boxes are in a 6 second Rythm strip?
30 one millimeter boxes
The SA node represents which waveform on the ekg?
Only the P-wave
What is the reading you can get from the RR interval?
Ventricular Pulse
What is the primary stage of Hemolisis?
Vascular phase and platelet phase together
What is Electophoresis?
Analyzation of the chemical components of blood e.g. hemoglobin, serum, urinem cerebrospinal fluid based on electrical charge.
Positive testing for occult blood in a stool sample turn which color?
Turns Blue on a positive test for occult blood in feces.
The stages of Hemostasis:
1. Vascular 2. Platelet Phase 3. Coagulation Phase 4. Fibronolysis
Blood Vessels
Aorta, arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venues, veins, superior and inferior vena cavae.
Outer connective tissue layer of a blood vessel
Tunica adventitia
Inner endothelial tissue layer of a blood vessel
Tunica Intima
The inner smooth layer of a blood vessel
Tunica media
The standards of right and wrong in a medical setting
Code of Ethics
What do you find in capillaries?
A mixture of venous and arterial blood is found
The average adult has how many liters of blood?
5-6 liters
What is the percentage of water in blood?
92%
Percentage of plasma in blood
55%
Percentage of Formed Elements in the blood
45%
99% of formed elements in blood
RBC's or Erythrocytes
Where you find Hemoglobin
RBC's
Where do all blood cells originate?
Bone Marrow
How many RBC's per microliter of blood
4.2-6.2 million
What is the second most numerous WBC?
Lymphocyte with 20-40%
Their numbers increase in intracellular infections and TB
Monocytes
Their numbers increase in bacterial infections and often are first on scene
Neutrophils
These WBC's play an important role in viral infection as well as in immunity.
Lymphocytes
Number of leukocytes for average adult per micrometer
5000-10000
Leukopenia
Decrease in WBC's seen with viral infection and leukemia
Comprises 3-8% of wbc or leukocytes
Monocytes
Largest in size of the leukocytes
Monocytes
Carries Histamine
Basophil
Injury to a blood vessel that causes it to constrict, slowing the clot of blood
Cascular phase of hemostasis
Preferred site for venipuncture
Antecubital fossa
Test used to evaluate the intrinsic pathway and monitor heparin therapy
APTT also know as PTT
Test used to evaluate the extrinsic pathway and also used to monitor warfarin therapy
PT
Fibrinolysis
Breakdown and removal of a clot
Converts the temorary platelet plug into a stable fibrin clot
Coagulation phase
2nd choice vein for venipuncture most often the only one palpatable in an obese pt
Cephalic vein
Antiseptics used in Phlebodtomy
70% isopropyl alcohol pads most common, provolone iodine for bc, s and chlorhexidine gluconate for patients that are allergic to betadine/ iodine
Length of needle commonly used in venipuncture
1 ince (up to 1.5")
Guage of needle that can cause hemolysis
Smaller than 23 guage
Average gauge of needle used for drawing blood
21-22
3 skills of the phlebotomist
social, clerical, technical
Analytical errors during collection of blood
extended tourniquet time, hemolysis, wrong order of draw, failure to invert tubes, faulty technique under filling tubes
Analytical errors before collection of blood
Patient misidentification, improper time, wrong tube, not fasting, exercise (cortisol levels), PT posture, poor coordination with other treatments, improper side prep, medication interference
Analytical errors after blood collection
Failure to separate serum from cell (glycolisis), improper use of serum separator (not inverting tubes or not spinning tubes) delays in processing, exposure to light, improper storage conditions, dimming clots
Fistula
Permanent surgical connection between an artery and a vein, never used for venipuncture
Edima
Accumulation of fluid in tissue
Thrombophlebitis
Inflammation of a vein with a clot formation
Explanation of Hemoconcentration
The increase in proportion of formed elements to plasma caused by leaving on the tourniquet for more than two minutes
Consequence of insufficient pressure applied after withdrawal of needle
Thrombus
additives in green top tube
heparin, sodium, litium, ammonium
Why is the green top tube never used for hematology
Green tops additive heparin interferes with the Wright's stained blood test
Common tests for the lifht blue sodium citrate tube
Coagulation studies, PT (extrinsic, warfarin) APTT, PTT (intrinsic, heparin) TT, BT, FDP
Common tests for the lavendar edta tube
CBC, differential or diff., ESR, sickle cell screening
Common tests for this color tube are chemistry tests performed on plasuma such as Ammonia, carboxyhemoglobin and STAT electrolytes
Green top tube (heparin) Tests
How long does it take for blood to clot by normal coagulation process in the red top tube?
30-60 mins
The primary purpose is to provide reliable data about a patients health status by ensuring the accuracy of a test while detecting and eliminating error
What is quality control
Common test for the red topped tube
Serum chemistry tests, serology tests, blood bank (glass only)
Order of draw for cappilary specimens
lavender first, then tubes with other additives, then tubes with out additives
Antiseptic not used on a dermal puncture site
Betadine (because it interferes with several tests like bilirubin, uric acid, phosphorus and potassium
For which procedure would you warm the site for a minimum of 3-4 minutes to increase blood flow?
dermal punctures (heel sticks)
Which are the preferred sites for dermal punctures
the distal segment of the third or fourth finger of the non-dominant hand
heel sticks are performed on which patients?
infants less than 1 year old
Where on the foot is the dermal puncture made on patients less than a year old
the medial and lateral areas of the plantar surface of the foot
dermal puncture is made in
the fleshy portion of the finger slightly to the side of the center perpendicular to the lines of the fingerprints
What will occur if you puncture the heel too deep? more than 2 mm
osteomyalitis
What are the identification requirements for blood bank
Pt's full name and DOB, hospital id # or ssn for outpatient, date and time of collection as well as the phlebotomist's initials
This section of the lab uses serum to analyze the presence
Serology (immunology) Section
When checking for hormones in urine when do you collect the urine sample
first voiding in the morning
Which urine specimen provides the clearest, most accurate results?
Clean catch midstream specimen
Which urine sample requires aseptic technique?
Clean catch specimen
Examination of urine consists of
physical, chemical, microscopic
Physical examination of urine consists of
colume (adequate for testing, observing color and appearance, odor, specific gravity
What amount of urine must you have to be sufficient for analysis?
25ml
What is the normal range of specific gravity of random collection
1.005-1.030
normal range of specific gravity of urine in adults with normal diet and fluid intake
1.015-1.025
Microscopic examination of urine requires this amount
10-15ml
Urine Specific gravity
The ratio of weight of a given colume of urine to the weight of the same volume of distilled water at a constant temperature
Glycosuria
presence of glucose in the urine
Symptoms of patients with diabetes mellitus
glycosuria, polyuria, and thirst
A urine pH of what is considered neutral?
7.0 pH
the copper reaction test is used for what?
screening for glucose in urine
The presence of leukocytes in urine is an indicator for what?
bacteruria or UTI
Urine Screening for UCG or HCG
Pregnancy Test
HIPPA is for?
Patient Confidentiality
The four elements of Negligence
Duty, duty of care, derelict= breach of duty of care, direct cause, damage
Tort
Wrongful act that results in injury to one person to another
Examples of Tort
Battery, invasion of privacy, defamation of character
Defamation of character by written statement is considered
libel
Consists of injury to another person's reputation , name or character through spoken (slander) or written (libel)
Defamation of character
unpriveleged touching
Battery
The release of medical records with out the patient's knowledge or permission
Invasion of privacy
Good Samaritan Law
Rendering first aid within the scope of knowledge by a health care worker with out fear of being sued for negligence
Hypothalamus
regulates and maintains body temperature
Functions necessary for life
heart function, blood pressure, respiration, temperature
Rectal Temperature range in celsius
37.0 -38.1 C
Oral temperature range in Fahrenheit
97.6-99.6 F
Axillary temperature range in celsius
35.9-37.0C
Tympanic temperature range in F and C
98.6 F and 37C
Intermittent fever
Fluctuating fever that returns to or below the baseline then rises again
Remittent Fever
Fluctuating, remains elevated and does not return to baseline
Continuous Fever
remains constant above baseline, does not flucuate
Rectal temperature is not taken from the following patients
Patients with heart disease
WHen taking axillary temerature how long should it be taken
5-10 mins or as required by office policy
Pulse is taken where and how long
radial for 30sec x2, if tachy or brady take it 1 minute
Explain blood pressure
measurement of amount of force blood excertes on peripheral artery walls
BP cuffs too short and narrow can give false reading of what?
Hypertension
Taking BP hearing two consecutive beats gives which reading
Systolic
Patient laying on back with knees flexed, soles of feet on bed
Dorsal recumbant
This position is used to promote drainage or ease of breathing
Fowler's
This position is used for examination of the pelvic organs
Dorsal Lithotomy
Prone position is used for
used to examine back and spine
patient lays on his/her stomach with head turned to one side for comfort
prone position
Patient in on left side with the right knee flexed against abdomen
Sim's position
Patients with leg injuries or arthritis can not assume this position
Sim's position
This position is usually used for taking rectal temperature
Sim's position
This position is usually used for rectal or vaginal examination
Knee Chest
This position is used for surgical procedures of pelvic abdomen and also for shock treatment
Trendelenburg
Never leave the patient alone in the room when he/she is in this position
Knee Chest
This position is used for surgical procedures of pelvic and abdomen and also for shock treatment
Trendelenburg
If skin or eyes come in contact with chemicals wash area with water for ?
5 minutes
MSDS
Material Safety Data Sheet
What are the symptoms of shock
plale cold clammy skin, blank stare, rapid weak pulse, fast shallow breathing
First aid for shock
Open airway, call assistance, position head lower, control bleed if any, keep warm
Modes of transmission
contact (direct or indirect) droplet, airborne, common vehicle, vector
What is the least expensive and most available disinfectant for surfaces
1:10 bleach solution
Define surgical asepsis
All microbial life, pathogen and non pathogens are destroyed
What is used at 250-254F, 15 pounds of pressure for 20-40 minutes
Autoclave
Used for instruments that easily corrode
dry heat sterilization
What is the most important means of preventing the spread of infections?
Handwashing
PPE includes?
mask, goggles, face shields, respirator
What defines standard precautions?
All patients are presumed to be infective for blood borne pathogens
This is an infection control method designed to prevent direct contact with blood or other body fluids
Standard precautions
This replaces universal precautions and body substance isolation
Standard precautions
Don gloves, face shields if danger of splashing, dispose of all needles with out recappiong into the sharps container
Standard Precautions
This is the second tier of precautions used when patient is contagious
Transmission based precautions
Define contact precautions
Reducing the risk of transmission of microorganisms direct or indirect
Special air handling and ventilation are required to prevent
Airborne diseases under Airborne Precautions
This is an emerging and important problem in the health care field
Latex Sensitivity
Every health care worker with this latex allergy should wear this
Medical alert bracelet
po
Per oral
pr
Per rectum/suppository
sl
sublingual under tongue
IM
Intramuscular
SQ
Subcutaneous
qd
every day
bid
twice a day
tid
three times a day
qid
four times a day
pc
post consumption/ after a meal
qhs
each night or at bed time
prn
as necessary or when needed
sig
from the latin, let it be labeled
The inner most layer of the heart
endocardium
a muscular hollow organ located in thoracic cavity between lungs
the heart
actually the inner visceral layer of the pericardium
Epicardium
the sac containing the heart
pericardium
serous fluid
prevents friction as the heart beats
recieves deoxygenated blood returning to the heart from the body
Right Atrium
recieves deoxygenated blood from the right atrium which it pumps to the lungs throguh the pumonary artery
Right Ventricle
receives oxygenated blood from the left atrium and pumps it to the body thru the aorta
Left Ventricle
The av valves
Tricuspid and Mitral (bicuspid ) valves
The Semilunar valves
Aortic and pulmonic
Valve located between the left atrium and the left ventricle
Mitral or bicuspid
Valve lovated between the right ventricle and the pulmonary trunk
pulmonic valve
heart sounds produced by closure of the valves
murmors
caused by diseases of the valves or other structural abnormalities
Murmors
First heart sound due to the closure of the mitral and tricuspid valves
S1 in the upper chambers or the atria
S2 in the ventricles
second heart sound due to the closure of the aortic and pulmonic valves
arteries supplying the heart
right and left coronary from the aorta
Arteries supplying the heart
right and left coronary from the aorta
The ans or autonomic nervous system is subdvided into
sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system
The SP or sympathetic nervous system affects
both, the atria and the ventricles by increasing heart rate conduction and irritability
The pns or parasympathetic nervous system affects
atria only by decreasing heart rate, conduction and irritability
Automaticity
ability of the cardiac cells to initiate own electrical impulses without outside stimulation
Excitability or irritability
ability of cardiac cells to respond to external stimulus
Contractility
ability of cardiac cells to shorten (muscle contraction) in response to electrical stimulus
Digitalis, dopamine, epinephrine
Drugs that increase the contractility of the heart
Results in myocardial relaxation
repolarization
Consists of anterior, middle and posterior divisions that distribute electrical impulses by SA to AV node
Internodal pathway
This fires at 20-40 bpm
Purkinje fibers
limb leads consist of
3 bipolar and 3 augmented leads
These record electrical potentials in the frontal plane
Lead I, Lead II, Lead III and the chest leads
On Lead III, which is the positive lead
the left leg is positive
Which limb is always the ground
right leg
Waveform
movement away from the isoelectric line either positive or negative
Interval
waveform plus a segment
Complex
Several waveforms
The normal P wave in standard and precordial leads does not exceed
0.11s in duration or 2.5 mm in height
The vertical axis on the ekg paper measures
Amplitude or voltage
J (RST) junction
point at which QRS complex ends and the ST segment begins
ST segment
from J point to the onset of the T wave
Normal indication for a stress test
Evaluation of a patient withchest pain and a normal ekg, arrythmia, monitoring a pt, with a recent MI
The percentage of the target heart rate during a stress test that makes it valid
85%
Hematocrite is made up of
hemoglobin x 3
Define hematocrit
The percentage by colume of packed red blood cells in a given sample of blood after centrifugation
Opposite of anemia
polycythemia
When taking a pharmacologic stress test, it is concluded when
85% of the target rate is achieved
Drugs used for a pharmacologic stress test
adeosine, dipyridamole, dobutamine
Ectopic Rythms
electrical impulses originating from somewhere else but the SA node
Pre-excitation Syndrome
Electrical impulses of the heart bypass the normal pathway and instead go down an accessory shortcut
Conduction Block
electrical impulses go down but encounter blocks and delays
Indication for temination of a stress test
SOB (shortness of breath), chest pain, dizziness, blood pressure abnormalities
Ischemia
decrease in amount of blood flow
What is the hallmark of a infarction
The presence of abnormal Q waves
List some cardiac markers
Triponin, CK, LDH, SGOT, AST
What is a negative holter?
A negative holter will have no significant arrhythmias or ST changes
How long is a holter monitor worn?
24 hours or longer
Why is a holter monitor done?
To rule out arrhythmia's or ischemia
How many electrodes are on a holter monitor
5
A positive holter is one that recorded at least one or more of these abnormalities
Tachy or bradycardia, ST segment elevation or depression, pauses
When is the event monitor used?
Only when symptoms occur
List drugs givenfor acute MI
Oxigen, Epinephrine, Isoproterenol, Dopamine (Intropin) Beta blocker (olol), Lidocaine, Verapamil, Digitalis, Morphine, Nitroglycerin
What is a powerful smooth muscle relaxant with the side effect of headache
Nitroglycerin patch or SL
Digitalis does
increases the force of cardiac contractions as well as cardiac output, tocicity in 20% of patients
Butterfly
Winged infusion set
What is the most important task of a phlebotomist
patient ID
With the bevel upward insert the needle at which angle?
15-30 degrees
Prandial
Fasting
What is important to do first after dermal puncture?
Wipe away the first drop
Timed specimens
Hormone levels, blood levels of medications, monitor PT condition E.G. Hemoglobin level *internal bleeding )
While administering a OGTT it is important to take what with each sample
Urine Sample
When are OGTT scheduled to begin?
0700-0900 7-9am
The two hour postprandial test is used for?
evaluation of diabetes mellitus
The OGTT test is used for ?
Diagnosing diabetis mellitius and evaluating patients with frequent low blood sugar
The 3 hour OGTT is used to test for
To test for hyperglycemia
The 5 hour OGTT is used for
To test for hypoglycemia, for disorders of carbohydrate metaolism
PKU
Tests for babies and to detect phenylketouria, a genetic disease that causes mental retardation and brain damage
Cold Agglutinins
Antibodies produced in response to atypical pneumonia must be kept at 37c
ABG, AMMONIA, lactic acid, pyruvate, parathyroid test handling
Chilled in crushed ice and water mixture
Billi
Bile
Which blood tests can NOT be done using dermal puncture
ESR, BC
You have the right to caring staff who believe your reports of pain
Example of the patient bill of rights for pain management
Method of taking pulse used on children and patient with irregular heartbeat
Apical pulse
Orthopenia
Difficulty breathing when laying flat
Define Cheyne- Stokes
Regular pattern of irregular breathing rate
Medical Assistant role in the physical examination
Room prep, patient prep, assisting the doctor
Hazards
Physical, chemical , biological
This technique is not permitted in the lab
Never draw a pipette by mouth
Expresionless face and staring eyes are indications of
Shock
Agents are
Any infective microorganisms, viruses,fungi, bacteria, and parasites
Define common vehicle
Water, food, drinking from the same glass, kissing
What fires at 40-60 bpm
AV junction, bundle of HIS
Which are unipolar leads?
aVR, aVL, aVF
Whhich test is used to evaluate primary hemostasis
Bleeding time test
How long is the lifespan of a platelet?
9-12 days
When the vaccutainer method can not be used you would use
10-12ml Syringes
Which tube nmust be filled completely?
Light Blue sodium citrate tube to maintain a ratio of 9:1
Chief Complaint
the reason why the patient came to see the physician.
History of Present Illness
explanation of the CC to determine the onset of the illness.
Past,family,and social history
summary of personal and family health problems as well as social to include marital status, occupation, use of drugs, etc.
Body Processes necessary for life:
Body Temperature, Respiration, Heart Function
Vital Signs of body function:
temperature, pulse, respiration, blood pressure
Febrile
presence of fever
afebrile
absence of fever
intermittent fever
fluctuating fever that returns to or below baseline
remittent fever
fluctuating fever that remains elevated and does not return to baseline
continuous fever
fever that remains constant; does not fluctuate
axillary temperature
least accurate; taken under the arm
tympanic temperature
useful for children; placed in the ear
rectal temperature
per rectum; most effective
normal adult pulse range
between 60-100 bpm
apical pulse
taken over the apex of the heart by auscultation
normal respiration rate
12-20 per minute (Adults)
apnea
temporary complete absence of breathing
tachypnea
respiration rate greater than 40 per minute
bradypnea
decrease in the numbers of respiration
cheyne stokes
regular pattern of irregular breathing rate
orthopnea
decrease in numbers of respiration
hypoventilation
reduced amount of air enters the lungs resulting in decreased oxygen level
hyperpnea
abnormal increase in the depth and rate of breathing
hyperventilation
increased amount of air entering the lungs
Systole
the highest amount of pressure exerted during the cardiac cycle
Diastole
the lowest amount of pressure exerted during the cardiac cycle
Palpation
the sense of touch to determine the characteristics of an organ system
Percussion
tapping or striking the body to determine the position, size and density of the underlying organ/tissue
Auscultation
listening to sounds produced by internal organs
Horizontal Recumbent Position
patient lies on back w/legs extended (used for most physical exams)
Dorsal Recumbent Position
patient lies on back with knees flexed and soles of the feet flat on the bed
Fowler's Position
semi/sitting position where back of the table is elevated.
Dorsal Lithotomy Position
patient lies on back with knees flexed, legs seperated and thighs are acutely flexed. feet are usually in stirrups,
Prone position
patients lies on abdomen with head turned to side
Sim's position
patient lies on left side with right knee flexed against the abdomen and left knee slightly flexed
knee-chest position
patient is on knees with chest resting on the bed and elbows resting on the bed above head
OSHA
Occupational Safety and Health Administration
external hemorrhage
controlling the bleeding is most effectively accomplished by elevating the affected part above heart level
Shock
occurs when there is insufficient return of blood flow to the heart
CPR
Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation
AMS
Agent, Modes of Transmission, Susceptible Hosts
agents
infectious microorganisms that can be classified into groups; viruses, bacteria, fungi, and parasites
Portal of Exit
the method by which an infectious agent leaves the reservoir
5 Modes of Transmission
Droplet, Airborne, Common Vehicle, Vectorborne, Contact (direct or indirect)
Susceptible Host
Not Resistant or Immune
Medical Asepsis
the destruction of pathogenic microorganisms after they leave the body
disinfection
use of various chemicals that can be used to destroy many pathogenic microorganisms
1:10 Solution
most readily available and least expensive disenfectant
surgical asepsis
all microbial life, pathogens and non pathogens are destroyed before an invasive procedure
Gas Sterilization
often used for wheelchairs and hospital beds
Dry Heat Sterilization
requires higher temperature than steam sterilization but longer exposure times
Chemical Sterilization
use of the same chemical used for chemical disinfection
Steam Sterilization (autoclave)
uses steam under pressure to obtain high temperature of 250-254F with exposure of 20-40 min
Handwashing
the most important means of preventing the spread of infection
Personal Protective Equipment
Masks, goggles, face shileds, respirators
isolation precautions
method of infection control that assumes all human blood and body fluids were potentially infectious
standard precautions
designed to prevent direct contact with blood and other body fluids u using PPE
transmission based precautions
the second tier of precautions are to be used when the patient is known or suspected of being contagious
po
by mouth/orally
pr
per rectum
sl
sublingual (under the tongue)
iv
intravenous
im
intramuscular
sq
subcutaneous
qd
every day
bid
twice a day
tid
three times a day
qid
four times a day
pc
after meals / not on empty stomach
qhs
each night
prn
as needed
heart location
in the thoracic cavity between the lungs just behind the sternum
Upper chambers of the heart
right & left atria (atrium-singular)
Lower chambers of the hear
Right & left ventricles
Endocardium
innermost layer of the heart
Myocardium
middle layer of the heart
Epicardium
outermost layer of the heart
pericardium
the sac in which the heart is contained
right atrium
receives deoxygenated blood returning to the heart via the superior vena cava
right ventricle
receives deoxygenated blood from the right atrium which it pumps to the lungs for oxygenation through the pulmonary artery
pulmonary arteries
the only arteries in the body that carry deoxygenated blood
left atrium
receives deoxygenated blood returning from the lungs via the rught and left pulmonary veins
pulmonary veins
the only beins in the body that carry oxygenated blood
left ventricle
receives the oxygenated blood from the left atrium and pumps it to the body through the aorta
aorta
the largest artery of the body
Atrioventicular Valves (AV)
Tricuspid & Mitral Valve
Tricuspid Valve
;between the right atrium and the right ventricle
Mitral Valve
between the left atrium and left ventricle
Pulmonic Valve
between the right ventricle and pulmonary trunk
Aortic Valve
between the left ventricle and aorta
Murmurs
caused by diseases of the valves or other structural abnormalities
S1
first heart sound
S2
second heart sound
Autonomic Nervous System (ANS)
subdivided into Sympathetic and Parasympathetic systems
ANS
Automatic Nervous System
sympathetic nervous system
affect both the atria and ventricles by increasing the heart rate
parasympathetic nervous system
affects only the atria by decreasing the heart rate
automaticity
the ability of the cardiac pacemaker cells to spontaneously initiate their own electrical impulse without being stimulated from another source
excitability
the ability to respond to external stimulus: chemical,electrical, and mechanical
conductivity
the ability of all cardiac cells to receive an electrical stimulus and transmit the stimulus to other cardiac cells
Contractility
the ability of the cardiac cells to shorten and cause cardiac muscle contraction in response to an electrical stimulus
Depolarization
positive - contracting
repolarization
negative - relaxation
SA Node
primary pacemaker of the heart and has a normal firing rate of 60-100 bpm
LEAD I
Left Arm is positive
Right Arm is negative
LEAD II
Left Leg is Positive
Right Arm is negative
LEAD III
Left Leg is positive
Left Arm is negative
Lead aVR
Right arm is positive and the other limbs are negative
Lead aVL
Left arm is positive and the other limbs are negative
Lead aVF
Left leg/foot is positive and the other limbs are negative
V1
4th intercostal space, right sternal border
V2
4th intercostal space, left sternal border
V3
between v2 and v4
V4
5th intercostal space, left midclavicular line
V5
5th intercostal space, anterior axillary line
V6
5th intercostal space, midaxillary line
horizontal axis
represents time: 1mm
vertical axis
measured in millivolts
running speed
25mm/sec
waveform
refers to movement away from the isoelectric line
segment
line between two waveforms
interval
waveform plus a segment
complex
several waveforms
P WAVE
deflection produced by atrial depolarization
QRS COMPLEX
represents ventricular depolarization (activation)
Q WAVE
initial negative deflection
R WAVE
first positive deflection
S WAVE
first negative deflection
T WAVE
deflection produced by ventricular repolarizations
Wandering Baseline
causes the baseline of the tracing to move up and down; due to interference with the signal
stress test
noninvasive diagnostic procedure to determine the presence and severity of coronary artery disease
ischemia
decrease in the amount of blood flow
holter monitor
contains 5 electrodes attached to the patients trunk
code of ethics
standards of right and wrong
blood vessels:
aorta,arteries, capillaries, venules, veins, superior and inferior vena cava
Tunica adventitia
outer connective tissue
Tunica media
middle smooth layer
Tunica Intima
inner endothelial layer
Avg blood amount for adult
5-6 liters
Plasma
liquid portion of the blood
Erythrocytes
red blood cells
Leukocytes
white blood cells
120 days
normal life span of an RBC
Leukocyte function
protects against infection
Thrombocytes-platelets
small irregularly shaped packets of cytoplams
Hemostasis
process by which blood vessels are repaired after inkury
Vascular Phase
stage 1 of hemostasis
Platelet Phase
stage 2 of hemostasis
Coagulation phase
stage 3 of hemostasis
Fibrinolysis
stage 4 of hemostasis
Antecubital fossa
preferred site for venipuncture
median cubital vein
first choice vein for venipuncture
cephalic vein
second choice vein for venipuncture
basilic vein
third choice vein for venipuncture
winged infusion sets
used for pediatric and elderly patients
fasting specimen
require patient to abstain from eating for at least 12 hours
edema
the accumulation of fluid in the tissues
fistulla
the permanent surgical connection between an artery and vein
Yellow Top Tube
Blood Cultures (1st)
Light Blue Top Tube
Sodium (2nd)
Red or Tiger Striped Tube
Serum / non additive tubes (3rd)
Green Top Tube
Heparin (4th)
Lavender Top Tube
EDTA(5th)
Gray Top Tube
Glucose (6th)
Hematoma
blood accumulation in the tissue surrounding the vein
Hemoconcentration
result of tourniquet being left on too long
Phlebitis
inflammation of a vein
Petechiae
tiny non-raised red spots due to the tourniquet being left on too long
Thrombus
blood clot
Thrombophlebitis
inflammation of a being with formation of clot
two hour postprandial test
used to evaluate diabetes mellitus
oral glucose tolerance test
used to diagnose diabetes mellitus
PKU
test ordered for infants to detect phenylketonuria
blood cultures
ordered to detect presence of microorganisms in the patients blood
chilled specimens
ammonia, lactic acid, gastrin, acth
light sensitive specimens
bilirubin, beta-carotene, vitamins a & b6
Dermal puncture site for infants
middle of the fourth and fifth toes to the heel
Dermal puncture site for adults
third or fourth finger of the non dominant hand
1st draw for capillary
lavender tube
2nd draw for capillary
tubes with additives
3rd draw for capillary
tubes without additives
Bacteriology
study of bacteria
parasitology
study of parasites
mycology
study of fungi
virology
study of viruses
meter
basic unit of length
liter
basic unit of capacity or volume
gram
basic unit of weight or mass
kilo
one-thousand
deci
one-tenth
centi
one-hundredth
milli
one-thousandth
micro
one millionth
nano
one billionth
components of the urinary system
two kidneys, two ureters, urinary bladder, and a urethra
first morning sample
most commonly used for routine urinalysis
mid stream specimen
collected not at the beginning or end of voiding but in the middle of urination
clean catch specimen
requires special cleaning of the external genitalia
urine output avg
1200-1500ml every 24 hours
examination of urine
physical, chemical and micrpscopic
glucose
sugar typically found in urine
Duty
duty of care
Derelict
breach of duty of care
Direct Cause
legally recognizable injury
Damage
wrongful activity must have caused the injury
tort
wrongful act that results in injury to one person by another
good samaritan law
rendering of first aid by health care professionals at the scene of an accident or sudden injury