Medical assistant certification complete study guide CCMA / NHA 2018, NHA CCMA, NHA CCMA EXAM REVIEW

An abnormal decrease in the size of a muscle is?

Atrophy

The cell from which a muscle develops is?

Myoblast

The abbreviation for Alzheimer's Disease?

AD

An Otoscope is used to?

Inspect the exterior ear canal

The procedure that is used to puncture the chest to remove fluid is called ?

Thoracentesis

Which of the following lab tests would be abnormal for a patient with anemia?

Hematocrit/hemoglobin

Hyperparathyroidism may be treated by which medical specialist?

Endocrinologist

An abnormal increase in total of WBCs is?

Leukocytosis

Extremely rapid breathing is called?

Hyperpnea

Which of the following suffixes refers to pain?

-algia

A suffix used to denote a surgical repair is?

-plasty

A mammogram is a radiograph of the?

Breast

The term alopecia is synonymous with?

Baldness

Another term for chewing is?

Mastication

A nevus in the antecubital area is a

Mole on the inside of the elbow

An inflammation of a joint is?

Arthritis

Fat makes up?

Adispose tissue

The cause of disease is referred to as?

etiology

The function of the olfactory nerve is?

Smelling

An oophorectomy is a surgical procedure of the?

Ovaries

The study of diseases and treatment of the male and female urinary bladder is?

Urology

A diagnostic procedure that alows for visualization of the urinary bladder is

Cystoscopy

A patient with hives most likely will report that he or she has

Urticaria

Lines body cavities that open to the outside?

A mucous membrane

The ventral region of the body is described as

Anterior

The body cavity that contains the intestines is the

Abdominal

Movement of a body part toward the midline of the body is

Adduction

The plane that divides the body into front and back halves is

Frontal

This Can follow a viral illness in children?

Reye's syndrome

The vertebrae of the lower back are the

Lumbar

An acute infectious skin disease caused by strep or staph is

Impetigo

The bone located in the posterior of the skull is the?

Occipital

The type of bone fracture in which the bone is bent and partially broken is a?

Greenstick fracture

the peripheral nervous system is composed of how many pairs of spinal nerves?

31

The pons and medulla make up the

Brain stem

A failure of bone marrow to produce red blood cells results in which type of anemia

Aplastic

Protrusion of a part of the stomach through the esophageal opening in the diaphragm is a?

Hiatal Hernia

The tympanic membrane is the?

Eardrum

The largest Artery in the body is the?

Aorta

The SA node Is the?

pacemaker of the heart

An x-ray taken to confirm a fracture of the distal forearm includes both the?

Radius and ulna

Which of the following demonstrates an involuntary muscle action?

heartbeat, breathing, peristalsis, pupil dilation

Which of the following organs are located in the RUQ?

Liver

An abnormal lateral curvature of the spine is known as?

Scoliosis

The diaphragm is stimulated by which nerve?

Phrenic

The alpha cells in the pancreas are responsible for the production of?

Glucagon

The surgical removal of the gallbladder is a?

Cholecystectomy

The cranial nerve involved in blindness is the?

Optic

The number of permanent teeth is?

32

Legally, a physician

May refuse to accept a patient if he or she chooses

An itinerary Is a?

a planned route or journey

Professionalism may best be displayed by?

Staying calm when dealing with angry patients

The ability to imagine taking the place of the patient and accepting the patient's behavior is?

Empathy

The patient's medical record belongs to?

The physician

A breast mass is found in a woman whose mother and sister have died from breast cancer. She cancels her next three follow-up appointments. Which defense mechanism is she using?

Denial

Personality differences are due to?

age, experience, heredity, environment)

Which is not a characteristic desirable in a medical assistant?

Impatience

Which is not an example of stereotyping?

Young children react differently to stressful situations

To release medical information the patient must sign a?

release form

Which of the following should be reported to the health department?

HIV

Which of the following is objective data?

Vital signs

Which of the following phone calls should be given immediately to the physician?

Another physician

In Maslow's hierarchy of needs, the need to be loved and free from loneliness is a?

Social need

If a patient refuses to consent to treatment, the medical assistant should?

Delay treatment and inform/consult the physician

An enforceable contract contains?

All of the above (an offer, an acceptance, a consideration, a capacity)

The opposite of anterior is?

Posterior

Informed consent should include which of the following elements?

All of the above (benefits and risks of the treatment, purpose of treatment, nature of the patient's condition, assessment of the patient's understanding o the treatment)

All of the following are reasons for revoking a physcian's license except?

Providing atypical care

The control center of a cell of?

Nucleus

Subcutaneous tissue is?

found under the skin, contains fat, is an injection site, connects the dermis to the muscle surface

Which is not a bone of the lower extremity?

Humerus

The muscle in the upper extremity that is used as an injection site is the?

Deltoid

Gas exchange in the lungs takes place in the?

Alveoli

The Liver makes?

bile, detoxifies harmful substances, produces heparin, stores glycogen

The fertilized ova implants into the?

Endometrium

Testosterone is produced in the?

Testes

There are _______pairs of spinal nerves?

31

Gustatory receptors are located in the?

Mouth

Insulin decreases ?

blood sugar level

A decrease in the total number of white blood cells?

Leukopenia

The physician is legally obligated to report?

deaths, births, communicable diseases, abuse

The prefix "Brady" means?

Slow

The opposite of superficial is?

Deep

An authorization in advance to withdraw artifical life support is an?

Advance Directive

Unconsciously avoiding the reality of an unpleasant event is called?

Denial

Tell me more about it" is an example of?

An open-ended statement

The study of the CAUSE of a disease is?

pathology

Nonverbal communication may be conveyed by?

All of the Above (touch, eye contact, body position, silence)

Bulimia is an?

Eating disorder

A cerebral vascular accident can also be called a?

Stroke

Rubeola is also called?

Measles

A sexually transmitted disease caused by a protozoal infestation is?

Trichomoniasis

An eletrolyte that has an important influence of the activity of the heart muscles is?

Potassium

Which of the following respiratory disorders is characterized by a loss of lung capacity?

Emphysema

The type of membrane that lines cavities of the body that open to the outside is?

Mucous

Another name for an open fracture is?

Compound Fracture

Which of the following types of scheduling is not a good type of time management?

Double-booking

What piece of mail should be placed on top when sorting the physician's mail?

Envelope marked "Personal

Open punctuation is characterized by?

Absence of punctuation after the salutation and a comma after the complimentary close

The federal insurance program that provides for the medically indigent is?

Medicaid

The process of transferring an amount from the day sheet to the ledger is?

Posting

A numeric filing system requires the use of an?

Alphabetical cross-reference

The file folder label for Jennie Holmes-Mathis should be?

Holmes-Mathis, Jennie

Third-party participation in an office indicates the relationship between the?

Physician, Patient and Insurance company

A claim may be rejected by an insurance company because of the omission of?

All of the Above (complete diagnosis, policy number, patient birth date, itemization of charges)

How much postage is required for a first-class letter that weighs 3 oz if the first ounce costs .34C and each additional ounce is .25?

.83 cents

When the word "Confidential" is to be typed on the envelope, it should be placed?

Below the Return Address

The most formal of complimentary closings is?

Very Truly Yours

When making an appointment, which of the following is not needed?

Insurance Information

This type of call allows more than one person in more than one place to talk simultaneously?

Conference Call

This computer procedure protects against the loss of data?

Backing-Up

A tickler file is?

Future events arranged in chronological order

All of the following would require a CPT code except?

Diarrhea

Which of the following characteristics of a receptionist could make an impression on a patient?

Appearance, professionalism, manners, attitude

A "V-code" Refers to?

Factors that influence health status

Mail that is opened accidentally should be?

Resealed with tape, and notes as "opened in error

Which of the following are E/M descriptors?

All of the Above (physical exam, school physical, well-baby check-up, pre-op physical)

Which is an example of a third-party payer?

Medicare

In the POMR (PROBLEM ORIENTED) system, the intial database includes?

A numbered list of present problems

A trial balance is a comparison of the?

Ledger card totals and account-receivable balance

When adding information to the medical record, new notes are added?

Newest to the front

Which of the following calls require immediate transfer to the physician?

Calls from Another physician

Appointments should be scheduled?

In consecutive order without larg gaps

Which is not part of basic information obtained at the patient's first visit?

Diagnosis

Standard size paper and envelope for business correspondence is

8 1/2 x 11; no. 10 envelope

Patient's ledger cards should be kept In a?

Separate ledger file

The bank statement is reconciled with the?

Checkbook

The record of the proceedings of a meeting is the?

Minutes

Which of the following protects data from being lost?

Backing-Up

The scheduling system based on scheduling similar appointments or procedures together is called?

Grouping

Appropriate information to include in a patient information brochure would be?

Information about the scope of the practice

A new employee must complete which of the following?

W-4 form

Which of the following abbreviations is not correct?

HGB

Patient information that is released without patient's authorization could result in legal charge of?

Invasion of privacy

A correctly addressed envelope includes?

Omission of all punctuation

Which of the following circumstances would waive the need for a written release of medical records?

A subpoena

In double-entry bookkeeping, the original entry is put onto the?

Daily log

The correct way to indicate an enclosure notation is?

Enclosure

A superbill provides which of the following?

Insurance Claim

Which of the following is the purpose of records management?

All of the Above (storage, arranging, accessibility, classifying)

Which coding system is not associated with medical procedures?

ICD9-CM

Which is not an indexing rule?

Initials come after complete names

ICD-9-CM codes that refer to factors that may influence the patient's health status are

V-Codes

The smallest piece of information that the computer can process is a (n)?

Bit

The index of files on a disk is the?

Directory

The appointment system of the office should take into account the needs of the?

Physcians and Patients

Dear Mrs. May" is an example of?

Mixed punctuation

A master list of equipment inventory includes all of the following except the?

Operating Manuals

Which of the following hospital records may be released by the authorization of the attending surgeon only?

Operative Notes

An illness that existed before an insurance policy is written is known as a?

Pre-Existing Condition

A patient has not been seen in the office for two years. HIs record would be found in the?

Inactive Files

An important consideration when deciding how to position the computer monitor at the reception desk is?

Patient Confidentiality

Which group of patients should be escorted to the exam room and given instructions on what they ar to do?

All of the Above (Children, New patients, established patients, elderly)

Which information is not essential for the surgery scheduler when requesting a surgery date?

Name of Assisting Physcian

The notation "Julia Jones, MD" means

A copy of the letter is sent to Dr. Jones

A "History and Physical" usually contains all of the following except?

Results of lab tests

Under a manged care plan, the physcian agrees to?

Accept predetermined fees

Which type of insurance organization uses the fee-for-services concept?

PPO

Which factor is not included when determining the level of service for E and M codes?

Cost of Services

When money is placed in an account, which of the following documents is prepared?

Deposit Slip

The most common color-coding system color codes the?

Patient's surname

Standard precautions are designed to be used for?

All patients

Disposable single-use gloves should be worn?

When handling specimens, and when performing venipuncture

Normal oral tempature, in degrees, is?

98.6 f

Normal respiratory rate for an adult is?

14-20 breaths per minute

Vital signs include?

Blood Pressure

The pulse rate is usually higher in?

Children than adults

Pulse rate is decreased by?

All of the Above (sleep, brain injury, causing increased pressure, hypothyroidism)

A high fever occurs when the body temperature, in degrees, is?

103-105 f

The pulse pressure is?

The difference between the systolic and dialstolic blood pressure

A patient who weighs 45 kg also weighs how many pounds?

99

A patient who is 72 inches tall is?

6 feet

During a physical exam, percussion is most commonly used to examine the?

Chest and back

A patient's reaction to stress, use of defense mechanisms, and resources for support would be recorded under?

Social History

Subjective findings include?

How the patient feels, information about the patients family, previous pregnancies

Visual acuity is?

Clearness of Vision

The purpose of a Proctoscopy is to examine the?

Rectum

A patient in the Sims' position is lying on the?

Left side and chest, with right leg flexed

A patient lying flat on the abdomen is in the?

Prone Position

The physician uses which of the following to examine the patient's eyes?

Ophthalmoscope

The patient should be placed in which of the following positions for examination of the head and neck?

Sitting

For an obstetrics exam, urine is routinely checked for the presence of?

Glucose and protein

A patient should be taught that the best time to perform a self-breast exam is about?

One week after her period

An infection that has a rapid onset, severe symptoms, and subsides in a short period of time is called?

Acute

Sterile wrapped items can be safely stored, and considered sterile, for up to?

21-28 days

When removing a pack from the autoclave, you notice that the sterilization indicator has not changed color. You should?

Unwrap the pack; rewrap the pack; replace the indicator; resterilze

Scrubbing an item with soap and water before sterilization is?

Sanitization

The type of immunity that develops from having the disease is?

Acquired active

When opening a sterile pack, the top flap should be opened?

Away from the body

The finest suture material of the following list is?

8-0

A type of instrument that is used to grasp or hold tissues or objects is a?

Forceps

Betadine (providone-iodine) should not be used on the skin of a patient who is allergic to?

Iodine

Wound drainage that contains pus is charted as?

Purulent

The angle for the insertion of the needle for an ID injection is?

10-15 degrees

A medication that is placed under the tongue is being administered by which technique?

Sublingual

To administer an intramuscular injection, which needle would you use?

1 1/2 21 gauge

A type of drug that increases urinary output is?

Diuretic

The physician orders 250 mg amoxicillin IM. The vial reads "500 mg per 1 ml." How much would be given to the patient?

0.5 ml

When a specimen is placed in a centrifuge, a tube of similar size containing liquid of similar weight should be placed?

Directly opposite the specimen

Microscopic examination pf a urine sample should be performed?

Within 1/2 hour of collection

The absence of urinating formation is termed?

Anuria

Normal specific gravity is generally between?

1.010-1.025

A CBC includes?

All of the Above (platelet count, hemoglobin and hematocrit, WBC count)

Capillary blood is usually obtained?

From a skin puncture

A cholecystogram is used to view the?

Gallbladder

Heat application dilates?

blood vessels

The wave on an EKG that represents contraction of the atria is?

P

The pacemaker of the heart is called the?

Sinoatrial Node

A standard EKG has how many leads?

12

The standard speed for recording an EKG is?

25mm/sec

To cauterize a small lesion on the oral mucosa, the physician may use an applicator with?

Silver Nitrate

A common lab test that may be ordered for a patient on Coumadin therapy is?

Pro Time

Which one of the following types of suture material is absorbable?

Catgut

The minimum number of cells to be counted in a differential blood smear is?

100

A hemoglobin of 10 g/dl is approximately equivalent to a hematocrit of?

30 %

Which of the following lab results should be called to the attention of the physician?

Sed rate: 30mm/hr

The stain used to identify bacteria is the?

Gram stain

On standing for a long time, a urine sample becomes?

Alkaline

A blood sample for serum is collected in which of the following tubes?

Red-stoppered

Which of the following are categories to classify instruments used in surgery?

All of the above (probing and dilating, cutting and dissecting, grasping and clamping, retracting)

The first thing that should be done in an emergency situation involving an unconscious person is to?

Assess victim's airway

A physical examination of a urine sample includes?

All of the above (odor, color, transpareency, specific gravity)

Most drugs are metabolized in the?

Liver

The Ishihara test tests for?

color-blindness

Which is not a common symptom of a myocardial infarction?

Polyuria

Hemostats are a type of?

Forceps

The normal ratio for respiration to pulse is?

4 to 1

Symptoms of insulin shock include?

All of the above (restless and confusion, cold, clammy skin, profuse sweating, rapid, weak pulse)

Which is the most important route for the elimination of drugs from the body?

Kidney

Prozac is an example of an?

Anti-depressant

The two most important factors in performing an effective handwash are?

Friction and running water

At which age is the first MMR vaccination recommended?

Twelve months

If a patient describes an aura before the onset of a severe headache, this if often a sign of a?

Migraine

A function of hemoglobin is to?

Carry oxygen and carbon dioxide

A quality assurance program in the lab?

Ensures the accuracy of results

The reaction of the PPD test is read?

48-72 hours after it is administered

The abbreviation for "both ears" is?

AU

The blood type known as the "universal donor" is?

O

A lower GI series is performed to outline the?

Colon

A technique that provides soft tissue images in three dimension is?

CT Scan

Massive and prolonged exposure to radiation can result in?

Cancer

The first group of leads to be recorded on an EKG are?

Leads I, II, and III

Streptococci are arranged in?

Chains

Pulse rate may be increased in all of the following except?

Increasing age

The electrode that is used for grounding in an EKG is?

RL (right leg)

Which federal agency oversees the safety of health facilities?

OSHA

A drug reference contains all of the following information except?

Cost

Ibuprofen has analgesic and antipyretic properties and is used to treat?

All of the above (pain, arthritis, headache, sysmenorrhea)

Which of the following patient instructions is critical for a successful Holter Monitor recording interpretation?

Keep a written recording of all daily activities

The involuntary muscular action that moves food along the GI tract is called?

Peristalsis

The first dose of DTP (DTap) vaccine should be administered at?

Two months

A ligament connects?

Bone to bone

Tissue samples removed during a biopsy would be sent to which department of the lab?

Histology

Which of the following would be least likely to contaminate the sterile field?

Nonsterile person entering the room

An antihistamine that may be used to treat an allergic reaction is?

Benadryl

Each of the following abbreviations is correctly defined except?

qod-every day

Surgical asepsis should be maintained when performing which of the following?

Needle Biopsy

How often should quality control tests be performed in the lab?

Daily

This type of nerve conducts impulses toward the brain?

Afferent

Sweat glands are termed?

Sudoriferous glands

An infectious inflammatory skin disease caused by staphylococci and characterized by vesicles that later crust is called?

Impetigo

A decrease is bone density may indicate?

Osteoporosis

The largest portion of the brain is the?

Cerebrum

An impairment of vision due to old age is/

Presbyopia

An infection of the middle ear may be charted as?

Otitis Media

The valve located between the right atrium and left ventricle is the?

Tricuspid

The medical term for whooping cough is?

Pertussis

The region between the lungs that contains the heart, aorta, esophagus, and bronchial tubes is the?

Mediastinum

Inflammation of the nasal mucosa results in?

Rhinitis

A disease that is characterized by muscle rigidity, a shuffling gait, and progressive tremors is?

Parkinson's disease

Which of the following accessory organs of digestion stores and concentrates bile?

Gallbladder

Micturition is a synonym for?

Urination

Which of the following indicates an aggravation of symptoms?

Exacerbation

A woman who has given birth to two or more children may be called?

Multipara

The release of an ovum from the ovary is?

Ovulation

Male sterilization is called a?

Vasectomy

Which of the following are ways in which pathogens can be spread?

All of the above (transmission by a vector, person-to-person contact, environmental contact, object-to-person contact)

The "colored" portion of the eye is known as?

Iris

All of the following are bones of the middle ear except the?

Pinna

The combining form for "bone" is?

Osteo-

Slow heartbeat is also called?

Bradycardia

A temporary absence of respiration is?

Apnea

A collection of blood in the pleural cavity is called a?

Heomthorax

An endoscopic examination of the rectum is charted as a?

Sigmoidoscopy

The downward projection from the lower edge of the soft palate is the?

Uvula

The combining form "labio" means?

Lip

The hollow, muscular organ that temporarily stores urine in the?

Urinary Bladder

The secretion from an endocrine glad is called a?

Hormone

Progesterone is produced by the?

Corpus Luteum

The region between the vagina and anus is termed the

Perineum

Which of the following is not a part of the axial skeleton?

Scapula

A wound that barely penetrates the skins is charted as being?

Superficial

A surgical opening into the eardrum to avoid rupture is a?

Myringotomy

An antipyretic agent works against?

Fever

-Stasis?

to stop or control

Splenomegaly?

Enlargement of spleen

Sten/o?

Narrowing

-Stomy?

Forming a new opening

Subpulmonary?

Below the lungs

Tenodynia?

Painful tendon

Thrombectomy?

Surgical removal of blood clot

Tympan/o?

Eardrum or drumlike

Unilateral?

On one side

Transthorax?

Across the chest

-Pexy?

Suspension or fixation

Abortion?

Termination of pregnancy before viability

Rrhexis?

Rupture of a vessel, organ, or tissue

Hypoglycemia?

Less than normal blood sugar

9 Quadrants in a human body are?

Cranial, Spinal, Dorsal, Thoracic, Diaphram, Abdominal, Ventral, Pelvic, and Abdominopelvic

The human body has 206 bones, cartilage and ligaments. The framework of the body is called the?

Skeletal System

Alplasia?

Lack of formation or development; usually refers to organ

12 pair of bones that make up the thorax; the bars of the cage?

Ribs

Lordosis (swayback)?

Excessive curvature in the lumbar portion of the vertebral column

Scoliosis?

Abnormal lateral curvature of the vertebral column

A tort is ?

A type of civil law.

Malfeasance is one form of?

malpractice

Kyphosis (hunch back)?

An excessive curvature in the thoracic portion of the vertebral column.

AIDS (Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome)?

Decreased immunity resulting from infection with the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) Leaving the victim suscetible to opportunistic diseases.

Tachycardia?

Increased heart rate (pulse)

Muscular System?

Contains approx. 650 muscles that form of the body.

Mammoplasty?

Surgical reconstruction of the breast

Menigocele?

Herniation of the meninges

Lymphadentitis?

Inflammation of the lymph gland/ nodes

Inter/o

Between in the midst

Malacia?

Softening of the tissues

Myc/o?

Fungus or mold

Vas/o?

Vessel or duct

Arthritis, Arthr/o?

Inflammation of the joints

-Itis?

Inflammation

Rhinorrhea?

flow or discharge from the nose

Anteroposterior?

Passing from front to rear

Anterior (ventral)?

Front of the body

Dactyl/o?

Digit, finger, or toe

Cytology?

study of cells

Cystitis?

Bladder inflammation

Cholecysitis?

Inflammation of the gallbladder

Cyanosis?

Bluish condition of the skin

Chiroplasty?

surgical repair of the hands

Cervicofacial?

pertaining to the face and neck

Cardiomegaly?

enlargement of the heart

Bradycardia?

slow heart rate (pulse)

Hemiplegia?

Paralysis of the one half of the body

Gynecopathy?

any disease of the female reproductive system

Nasopharyngeal?

pertaining to nose and throat

Metrorrhexis?

Rupture of the uterus

Absorption?

The transfer of the products of the digestion into the blood and lymph for circulation.

Menostasis?

suppression of the menses

Posterior (dorsal)?

Back of the body

Pneum/o?

Air

Peri?

around about

Adrenomegaly?

enlargement of the adrenal glands

Abdominocentesis?

surgical puncture of the abdomen to remove fluid

Neuralgia?

pain in nerves

Onchocryptosis?

An ingrown nail (hidden in the nail bed) nail, finger or toenail

Neurotripsy?

surgical crushing of a nerve

-Logy?

the study of

Necrosis?

Death of tissue or bone

Nephrolysis?

Destruction of the kidney tissue

Intracerebral?

within the main part of the brain

Intravascular?

within a vessel

Nephropathy?

Disease of kidney

Leukopenia?

Decreased white cells

Onychomycosis?

condition of fungus of the nails

oophorectomy?

excision of an ovary

Litholysis?

destruction of a stone

Nervous system?

Regulates body functions and processes. Communicates stimuli and responses throughout the body. Generates thoughts, sensations, emotions and perceptions.

Chemicals are made up of?

atoms and molecules

Organ?

group of tissues working together to perform a function

Tissues?

Groups of cells with similar structures and functions (such as the connective tissues)

Cells?

Structural and functional units of life

-Lysis?

Destruction, Destroy and Dissolution

Pneumon/o?

Lung

Phonia or Phon/o?

voice

Phag/o?

Ingest or eat

Algesia?

pain or sensitivity to pain

Gastritis?

inflammation of the stomach

Gastrectasia?

stretching of the stomach

Enteritis?

Inflammation of the small intestine

Endocarditis?

inflammation of the inside lining of the heart

Encephalitis?

inflammation of the brain

-Emia?

pertaining to the blood

Dyspepsia?

indigestion or painful digestion

Gastritis or Gastr/o?

inflammation of the stomach

Neuropathy?

disease of the nerves

Rrhagia?

burst forth or hemorrhage

Lateral?

side of body

Medial?

middle of body

Duodenscopy?

Inspection of the duodenum with a scope

Homeostasis?

The equilibrium or health of the body as measured by established norms for blood pressure, heart rate, temperature, resp. rate, and other indicators.

Bones and related structures that support?

Skeletal system

Muscles and related structures that accommodate movement?

Muscular system

Dextr/o?

Right

Dermatosis?

Any skin lesion or eruption

The study of body structure?

Anatomy

The study of body function?

Physiology

The study of abnormal changes in body structures or functions?

Pathology

Skin and related structures that contain and protect?

Integumentry system

A group of organs working together to perform a set of related functions are?

Systems

Dacryocystitis?

Inflammation of a tear sac

cytoscopy?

microscopic examination of cells

Abduction?

Moving away from the body mid-line. (The opposite of adduction)

AB?

away from; absent

Orchid?

testicle

Orchidectomy?

surgical removal of the testicle

Osteoarthropathy?

Disease of joints and bones

Osteocyte?

Bone cell

-Pepsis?

Digestion

Phleborrhexis?

Rupture of a vein

Proctorrhagia?

Hemorrhage of the rectum

Pyeloplasty?

surgical repair of the renal pelvis

Arteriosclerosis?

thickening (hardening) of the arteries

Antipyretic?

against fever; fever reducing

Analgesia?

to take away pain, free from pain

Hemostasis?

Control bleeding or to stop bleeding

ot/o?

ear

Algia?

pain

Otalgia?

ear pain

Posteromedial?

middle of the back or middle of the back side

hypothermia?

below normal temperatue

retinopathy?

disease of the retina

Hepatomegaly?

Enlargement of liver

Hysterorrhapy?

suturing of the uterus

Acrocyanosis?

Blue condition of the extremities

Retroperitoneal?

Behind the peritoneum

Proper interaction with pediatric patients includes the following EXCEPT?

Telling a child that a procedure will not hurt at all.

The salutation of a letter is placed?

Two lines below the inside address.

A urine test that compares the weight of urine to that of distilled water is?

specific gravity

The ECG lead that measures the difference in electrical potential between the right arm and left arm is?

Lead I

Intra?

Within

Sub?

Beneath, below, or under

Lith/o?

Stone

Gingivoglossitis?

Inflammation of the gums and tongue

Laparotomy?

Incision of the abdominal wall

Dys?

Difficult, or painful

Kinesi/o?

Movement, or motion

-ia?

Pertaining to

Dyskinesia?

Difficult movement

Adeno?

Gland

-oma?

Tumor

Adenoma?

Tumor of a gland

-Pathy?

Any disease

Gyneco?

Female

Pyogenesis?

Formation of pus

Hyperplasia?

Excessive formation of cells or tissue

Hemi?

Half, one half

Plegia?

Pertaining to paralysis

Spinal cavity?

Contains the spinal cord;runs continuously from the brainstem in the cranial cavity to the end of the spinal cord

Cranial cavity?

Contains the brain

Thoracic cavity?

Contains the heart,lung, and large blood vessels;it is separated from the abdominal cavity by the diaphragm;within the thoracic cavity lies the mediastinum a smaller cavity between the lungs that contains the heart and large blood vessels

Abdominal cavity?

Contains the stomach, most of the intestines, the kidneys, liver, gallbladder, pancreas, and spleen; it is separated from the thoracic cavity (superior) by the diaphragm and from the pelvic cavity

Pelvic cavity?

Contains the urinary bladder, rectum, and internal organs of the male and female reproductive system

The body contains different types of_____ found in the diverse organs and systems?

Tissues

The study of tissue is called?

Histology

Forms the outer surface of the body?

Epithelial tissue

Squamous (flat and irregular) cuboidal or columnar?

Cells

Simple or stratified?

Layers

Supports and connects other tissues and structures?

Connective tissues

Produces movement?

Muscular tissue

_______ are thin sheets of tissue that line and protect structures?

Membranes

The main tissue of the outer layer of the skin is?

Epithelial membrane

The glands that are saclike in structure and produce oily secretions that lubricate the skin are?

Sebaceous

The portion of skeletal bone that manufactures blood cells is the?

Red bone marrow

The structure that attach muscles to bone are?

Tendons

Nerve fibers are insulated and protected by a fatty material called?

Myelin

The function of the lacrimal apparatus is to?

Produce tears to lubricate the eye

A bone that is part of the pelvic girdle is the?

Ischium

The cellular components of blood include?

Erthrocytes, leukocytes and platelets

An organ located in the left upper quadrant is the?

Spleen

The structure in the body also known as the voice?

Larynx

The wavelike movement the propels food through the digestive tract is called?

Peristalsis

The process that does not require oxygen for the breakdown of glucose is referred to as being?

Anaerobic

The term that means the body is in a state of equilibrium or balance is?

Metabolism

The funnel shaped basin that forms the upper end of the ureter is the?

Renal pelvis

In both males and females the entire pelvic floor is called the?

Perineum

A pregnancy that develops in a location outside the uterine cavity is referred to as?

Ectopic pregnancy

Which of the following body systems includes the thyroid and pituitary glands

Circulatory

The term inguinal pertains to what area or structure of the body?

Groin

The measure of acidity or alkalinity of solution is called?

pH ( hydrogen ion)

The thoracic and abdominal cavities of the body are separated by the?

Diaphragm

The chambers of the heart are the?

Ventricles and atria

An example of active immunity is?

Producing antibodies as a result of having a disease

The structure in the body also known as the voice box is the?

Larynx

The wavelike movement that propels food through the digestive tract is called?

Peristalsis

The process that DOES NOT REQUIRE oxygen for the breakdown of glucose is referred to as being?

Anaerobic

The term that means the body is in state of equilibrium or balance?

Homeostasis

The funnel shaped basin that forms the upper end of the uterus?

Renal cortex

In both males and females the entire pelvic floor is called?

Perineum

The measure of acidity or alkalinity of a solution is called?

p-h

A term that describes a solution that has the same concentration as cell fluids is?

Isotonic

The fibrous bands that support organs to hold them in place are?

Fascia

The membrane that surrounds the heart is the?

Pericardium

The small tip of the cartilage at the lower end of the sternum is the?

Xiphoid process

A major muscle in the body that assists in raising the arm away from the body is the?

Satorius

Cells that carry or transmit impulses toward the central nervous system are called?

Afferent neurons

The spaces in the brain where cerebrospinal fluid is formed is/are the?

Ventricles

Impulses from the receptors for smell are carried to the brain by the?

Olfactory nerve

The hormone that is essential for growth is produced in the?

Pituitary gland

Which of the following represents layers of the heart?

Epicardium and myocardium

The blood vessel that brings blood from the head, chest, and arms back to the heart is the?

Superior vena cave

Which of the following is the proper sequence for the flow of blood in the body?

Artery ?? vein?? arteriole

The condition and f inflammation of the lymphatic vessels is called?

Lymphangitis

The lymphatic system includes the following organs and tissue EXCEPT?

Hypothalamus

The process in which white blood cells take in and destroy waste and foreign material is called?

Phagocytosis

The structure common to the respiratory and digestive systems is the?

Pharynx

An accumulation of air in the pleural space that may lead to collapse of the lung is called?

Pneumothorax

The leaf shaped cartilage that covers the opening of the larynx is the?

Epiglottis

Most of the digestive process occurs in the?

Small intestine

The lining of the stomach has many folds called?

Rugae

The first portion of the small intestine?

Duodenum

An accumulation of excessive fluid in the intercellular spaces is called?

Edema

The kidneys are located in the?

Retroperitoneal space

The term hydronephrosis means?

Distention of the renal pelvis resulting from obstructed flow of urine

The sex glands of the male and female reproductive system are the?

Testes and ovaries

The bone that lies between the hip and the knee is the?

Femur

The largest artery in the body is the?

Abdominal aorta

The term that refers to absence of mentsral flow in a woman of reproductive age is?

Amenorrhea

The hormone produced by the embryonic cells of the fetus?

Human chorionic gonadotropin hormone

A substance necessary for proper formation of a blood clot is?

Thrombin

The left atrioventricular AV valve in the heart is also known as the?

Mitral valve

The only artery in the body that carries deoxygenated blood is the?

Pulmonary artery

A localized dilation resulting from weakness of a blood vessel wall is a?

Aneurysm

An example of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is?

Emphysema

A portion of the large intestine is the?

Sigmoid

A chronic degenerative disease of the liver is?

Cirrhosis

The tube that permits urine to pass from the bladder to the outside of the body is the?

Urethra

The innermost layer of the uterus is the?

Endometrium

The frontal or coronal plane of the body divides the body into?

Front and rear

The membrane attached to internal organs is the?

Visceral layer

The term that describes a disorder that breaks down tissues in a body system is?

Degenerative

The study of the cause of any disease or of all factors that may be involved in the development of a disease is?

Etiology

The chronic skin condition characterized by a red flat area covered with silvery scales is?

Psoriasis

Which of the following is not one of the cranial bones?

Maxilla

The bone that is part of the shoulder girdle and is between the sternum and the scapula is the?

Clavicle

The type of muscle responsible for producing peristaliyis?

Smooth

The type of joint motion that allows movement away from the midline of the body such as moving the arms straight out to the sides is?

Abduction

The sympathetic system of the autonomic nervous system is responsible for?

Dilation of bronchi of the lungs

The portion of the brain that aids in the coordination of voluntary muscle action is the?

Cerebellum

Strabismus is a condition of the eye causing?

Cross eyed appearance

A structure found in the inner ear is the?

Cochlea

The clusters of cells called the islets of langerhans are located in the?

Pancreas

A goiter is associated with abnormal function of the?

Thyroid gland

The Rh factor in Blood is?

An antigen that affects a persons blood type

A heart disease that is present at birth is?

Congenital heart disease

Which of the following blood vessels is proximal to the heart?

Ascending aorta

The human immunodeficiency virus is the cause of which disease

Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome

Which of the following statements is accurate about the lungs?

The sac covering the lungs is the pleural sac

A communicable infectious disease of the lungs is?

Tuberculosis

An example of inflammatory bowel disease is?

Crohns disease

A form of gum disease in the mouth is?

Vincent's disease

A chronic malignant disease characterized by enlargement of the lymph nodes and spleen is the?

Hodgkin's disease

The fluid contained within the body cells is called?

Intercellular fluid

Plasma?

Is the liquid part of blood and interstitial fluid is tissue found in spaces between cells

Isotonic?

Means the same concentration of fluid inside and outside a cell.

Two important electrolytes found in the body are?

Sodium and potassium

Zinc and magnesium?

Are minerals

Protein and carbohydrates?

Are nutrients

Nitrogen and carbon dioxide?

Are gases

A condition resulting from renal failure and causing high levels of blood urea nitrogen is?

Uremia

The period of pregnancy is called?

Gestation

The hormone that causes contraction of uterine muscle during labor is?

Oxytocin

The region located directly below the umbilical region is the?

Hypogastric region

An example of exocrine glands are?

Sebaceous glands

The order of the vertebral column from top to bottom is?

Cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, coccyx

The muscle located on the anterior thigh and that functions to extend the leg is the?

Quadriceps femoris

The artey located in the upper arm is the?

Brachial artery

What arteries are located in the neck?

Carotid artery

What artery is located in the armpit axillary area?

The subclavian artey

Any foreign body substance that enters the body and induces an immune response is a?

Antigen

An immunoglobulin?

Also known as an antibody is a substance produced in response to an antigen

An enzyme?

Is a protein produced in the body that causes a breakdown of food

A globulin?

Is a protein in the blood associated with antibodies

The smaller leg bone lateral to the tibia is?

The fibula

The femur?

Is the largest bone in the body, is the thigh bone

The patella?

Is the kneecap

Tarsals?

Refer to any one of the seven ankle bones

The small pouch that the first part of the large intestine is the?

Cecum

The small intestine are parts of the?

Jejunum, duodenum, and ileum

The region between the stomach and small intestine is the?

Plyorus

The hormone that regulates the amount of water that is eliminated with urine is?

ADH; anti diuretic hormone

ACTH; adrenocorticotropichormone?

Stimulates the adrenal cortex to produce cortical
Hormones that aid in protecting he body in stress and injury

FSH; follicle stimulating hormone?

Stimulates the growth and activity of the ovarian follicle

TSH; thyroid stimulating hormone

Stimulates thyroid gland to produce thyroid hormones

Diabetic retinopathy is a result of damage to the?

Eyes

Which of the following statements is TRUE?

Type 2 diabetes is non insulin dependent diabetes

Which of the following is protein found in a he epidermis that makes the skin waterproof?

Melanin

What is a protein found in the dermis to that provides strength and flexibility?

Collagen

What are hairlike processes that trap and move foreign particles?

Cilia

What is the most common condition of the eye associated with aging?

Presbyopia

What is a condition of farsightedness in which the distant objects can be seen more clearly that closer objects?

Hyperopia

A condition causing impaired vision from an irregular curve of the cornea?

Astigmatism

A inability of both eyes to simultaneously focus on a subject?

Strabismus

Abnormal growth of blood vessels or other materials in the retina?

Macular degeneration

What structure is at the neck of the bladder and surrounds the urethra?

Prostate

The epigastric anatomical region of the abdomen is located?

Distal to the sternum

Collagen a substance found in the dermis is a?

Fibrous protein

Which of the following glands are located in the sides of the vaginal opening and produce mucus?

Bartholin gland

The prostate and Cowper gland?

Are glands associated with the male reproductive system

Endocrine glands?

Have no ducts and secrete hormones directly into the blood stream

When the foot is moved outward the joint movement is?

Abduction

Circumduction?

Is moving in a circular motion

Flexion?

Is bending a body part

Is moving toward the body or inward?

Adduction

Extension?

Is straightening a body part

The master gland of the body is the?

Pituitary gland

A fracture of the radius characterized by bending of the bone with the skin left intact is referred to as?

Green stick closed

Spermatozoa normally fertilize the female ovum in the?

Fallopian tube

The glomerulus is a cluster of blood capillaries found in the?

Nephron

The disorder characterized by uncontrollable episodes of falling asleep is?

Narcolepsy

The regulation of body temperature is controlled by the?

Hypothalamus

Which of the following is NOT A NEUROTRANSMITTER?

Aldosterone

Acetylcholine, norepinephrine, and epinephrine?

Are all neurotransmitters

Cranial nerve 1, the olafactory nerve, is related to the sense of?

Smell

A blood cell that carries oxygen and has no nucleus is an?

Erythrocyte

During respiration exhaled air contains primarily?

Carbon dioxide

A condition causing backflow of the stomach acid through an incompetent esophageal sphincter is called?

GERD

Which of the following is the best example of nonverbal communication?

Body language

When a person generalizes the behavior or characteristics of all members of particular culture, race or religion it is referred to as?

Stereotyping

Three elements necessary for basic communication include?

Message, sender and receiver

To have proper verbal communication with a patient you should use?

Conversation at the patients educational level

Communicating with someone who is grieving the loss of a loved one is difficult when the person refuses to acknowledge the loss. This type of behavior is referred to as?

Denial

To communicate with a sight impaired patient it is important to?

Tell the patient each time before you touch him or her

To communicate with a hearing impaired patient it will be advisable to?

Speak slowly and distinctly to the patient

Which of the following is an example of and opened ended question you would ask a patient?

What day can you come in for a follow up appointment

When communicating with a difficult challenging patient you should?

Exhibit a diplomatic attitude

Which of the following is an example of behavior that demonstrates open nonverbal communication?

Leaning forward to listen

When individual is overemphasizing certain behaviors to accommodate for real or imagined weaknesses he or she is?

Compensating

Maslow's hierarchy of human needs is based on the he concept that?

Physiological needs are the most basic but are necessary for a person to progress any further toward reaching self actualization

The receiving and interpreting of a message is known as?

Decoding

Psychological behaviors that protect a person from guilt and shame are?

Defense mechanisms

WHEN COMMUNICATING with a non English speaking patient it is appropriate to?

Use gestures to demonstrate information

PREJUDICE IS A TERM that means?

You hold an opion or bias concerning an individual because of his or her affiliation with a specific group

TO ENCOURAGE further comments from a patient the interviewer can repeat what the patient has said using open ended statements that require the patient to respond. This technique is called?

Reflecting

A PATIENT WHO IS withdrawn, weeping, and isolated from others may experiencing?

Depression

MAINTAINING A PROFESSIONAL relationship with the patient means that you should?

Deliver patient care that allows you to continue to provide objective medical care

PROPER FLOW OF communication occurs in the following order?

Message, response, clarification and feedback

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING is an issue that becomes predominant during the adolescent stage of development?

Self image

TO SET THE STAGE for successful communication you should?

Sit at the patients level eye to eye and maintain eye contact with the patient if culturally appropriate

COMMUNICATION techniques that are used when interviewing a patient include?

Reflecting and summarizing

AVOID discussing patient problems in the office?

To avoid breaching confidentiality you should

THE PROGRESSION OF A persons needs from basic survival to reaching ones pinnacle or self actualization is known as maslows?

Hierarchy

THE 4 D'S?

Duty, derelict, direct cause and damage

THE BILL OF RIGHTS?

Include the right to confidentiality

THE CODE OF HAMMURABI?

Was written in 2500 bce

AN ADVANCED DIRECTIVE STATES the patients decisions for medical care before an incapacitating event?

A living will

WAS DESIGNED TO encourage health care workers to stop at the scene of emergencies by protecting them from liability for civil damages?

The Good Samaritan act

CC

Chief Complaint

Segment

Line between two wave forms

P-wave

Atrial Depolarization

How many 1mm boxes are in a 6 second Rythm strip?

30 one millimeter boxes

The SA node represents which waveform on the ekg?

Only the P-wave

What is the reading you can get from the RR interval?

Ventricular Pulse

What is the primary stage of Hemolisis?

Vascular phase and platelet phase together

What is Electophoresis?

Analyzation of the chemical components of blood e.g. hemoglobin, serum, urinem cerebrospinal fluid based on electrical charge.

Positive testing for occult blood in a stool sample turn which color?

Turns Blue on a positive test for occult blood in feces.

The stages of Hemostasis:

1. Vascular 2. Platelet Phase 3. Coagulation Phase 4. Fibronolysis

Blood Vessels

Aorta, arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venues, veins, superior and inferior vena cavae.

Outer connective tissue layer of a blood vessel

Tunica adventitia

Inner endothelial tissue layer of a blood vessel

Tunica Intima

The inner smooth layer of a blood vessel

Tunica media

The standards of right and wrong in a medical setting

Code of Ethics

What do you find in capillaries?

A mixture of venous and arterial blood is found

The average adult has how many liters of blood?

5-6 liters

What is the percentage of water in blood?

92%

Percentage of plasma in blood

55%

Percentage of Formed Elements in the blood

45%

99% of formed elements in blood

RBC's or Erythrocytes

Where you find Hemoglobin

RBC's

Where do all blood cells originate?

Bone Marrow

How many RBC's per microliter of blood

4.2-6.2 million

What is the second most numerous WBC?

Lymphocyte with 20-40%

Their numbers increase in intracellular infections and TB

Monocytes

Their numbers increase in bacterial infections and often are first on scene

Neutrophils

These WBC's play an important role in viral infection as well as in immunity.

Lymphocytes

Number of leukocytes for average adult per micrometer

5000-10000

Leukopenia

Decrease in WBC's seen with viral infection and leukemia

Comprises 3-8% of wbc or leukocytes

Monocytes

Largest in size of the leukocytes

Monocytes

Carries Histamine

Basophil

Injury to a blood vessel that causes it to constrict, slowing the clot of blood

Cascular phase of hemostasis

Preferred site for venipuncture

Antecubital fossa

Test used to evaluate the intrinsic pathway and monitor heparin therapy

APTT also know as PTT

Test used to evaluate the extrinsic pathway and also used to monitor warfarin therapy

PT

Fibrinolysis

Breakdown and removal of a clot

Converts the temorary platelet plug into a stable fibrin clot

Coagulation phase

2nd choice vein for venipuncture most often the only one palpatable in an obese pt

Cephalic vein

Antiseptics used in Phlebodtomy

70% isopropyl alcohol pads most common, provolone iodine for bc, s and chlorhexidine gluconate for patients that are allergic to betadine/ iodine

Length of needle commonly used in venipuncture

1 ince (up to 1.5")

Guage of needle that can cause hemolysis

Smaller than 23 guage

Average gauge of needle used for drawing blood

21-22

3 skills of the phlebotomist

social, clerical, technical

Analytical errors during collection of blood

extended tourniquet time, hemolysis, wrong order of draw, failure to invert tubes, faulty technique under filling tubes

Analytical errors before collection of blood

Patient misidentification, improper time, wrong tube, not fasting, exercise (cortisol levels), PT posture, poor coordination with other treatments, improper side prep, medication interference

Analytical errors after blood collection

Failure to separate serum from cell (glycolisis), improper use of serum separator (not inverting tubes or not spinning tubes) delays in processing, exposure to light, improper storage conditions, dimming clots

Fistula

Permanent surgical connection between an artery and a vein, never used for venipuncture

Edima

Accumulation of fluid in tissue

Thrombophlebitis

Inflammation of a vein with a clot formation

Explanation of Hemoconcentration

The increase in proportion of formed elements to plasma caused by leaving on the tourniquet for more than two minutes

Consequence of insufficient pressure applied after withdrawal of needle

Thrombus

additives in green top tube

heparin, sodium, litium, ammonium

Why is the green top tube never used for hematology

Green tops additive heparin interferes with the Wright's stained blood test

Common tests for the lifht blue sodium citrate tube

Coagulation studies, PT (extrinsic, warfarin) APTT, PTT (intrinsic, heparin) TT, BT, FDP

Common tests for the lavendar edta tube

CBC, differential or diff., ESR, sickle cell screening

Common tests for this color tube are chemistry tests performed on plasuma such as Ammonia, carboxyhemoglobin and STAT electrolytes

Green top tube (heparin) Tests

How long does it take for blood to clot by normal coagulation process in the red top tube?

30-60 mins

The primary purpose is to provide reliable data about a patients health status by ensuring the accuracy of a test while detecting and eliminating error

What is quality control

Common test for the red topped tube

Serum chemistry tests, serology tests, blood bank (glass only)

Order of draw for cappilary specimens

lavender first, then tubes with other additives, then tubes with out additives

Antiseptic not used on a dermal puncture site

Betadine (because it interferes with several tests like bilirubin, uric acid, phosphorus and potassium

For which procedure would you warm the site for a minimum of 3-4 minutes to increase blood flow?

dermal punctures (heel sticks)

Which are the preferred sites for dermal punctures

the distal segment of the third or fourth finger of the non-dominant hand

heel sticks are performed on which patients?

infants less than 1 year old

Where on the foot is the dermal puncture made on patients less than a year old

the medial and lateral areas of the plantar surface of the foot

dermal puncture is made in

the fleshy portion of the finger slightly to the side of the center perpendicular to the lines of the fingerprints

What will occur if you puncture the heel too deep? more than 2 mm

osteomyalitis

What are the identification requirements for blood bank

Pt's full name and DOB, hospital id # or ssn for outpatient, date and time of collection as well as the phlebotomist's initials

This section of the lab uses serum to analyze the presence

Serology (immunology) Section

When checking for hormones in urine when do you collect the urine sample

first voiding in the morning

Which urine specimen provides the clearest, most accurate results?

Clean catch midstream specimen

Which urine sample requires aseptic technique?

Clean catch specimen

Examination of urine consists of

physical, chemical, microscopic

Physical examination of urine consists of

colume (adequate for testing, observing color and appearance, odor, specific gravity

What amount of urine must you have to be sufficient for analysis?

25ml

What is the normal range of specific gravity of random collection

1.005-1.030

normal range of specific gravity of urine in adults with normal diet and fluid intake

1.015-1.025

Microscopic examination of urine requires this amount

10-15ml

Urine Specific gravity

The ratio of weight of a given colume of urine to the weight of the same volume of distilled water at a constant temperature

Glycosuria

presence of glucose in the urine

Symptoms of patients with diabetes mellitus

glycosuria, polyuria, and thirst

A urine pH of what is considered neutral?

7.0 pH

the copper reaction test is used for what?

screening for glucose in urine

The presence of leukocytes in urine is an indicator for what?

bacteruria or UTI

Urine Screening for UCG or HCG

Pregnancy Test

HIPPA is for?

Patient Confidentiality

The four elements of Negligence

Duty, duty of care, derelict= breach of duty of care, direct cause, damage

Tort

Wrongful act that results in injury to one person to another

Examples of Tort

Battery, invasion of privacy, defamation of character

Defamation of character by written statement is considered

libel

Consists of injury to another person's reputation , name or character through spoken (slander) or written (libel)

Defamation of character

unpriveleged touching

Battery

The release of medical records with out the patient's knowledge or permission

Invasion of privacy

Good Samaritan Law

Rendering first aid within the scope of knowledge by a health care worker with out fear of being sued for negligence

Hypothalamus

regulates and maintains body temperature

Functions necessary for life

heart function, blood pressure, respiration, temperature

Rectal Temperature range in celsius

37.0 -38.1 C

Oral temperature range in Fahrenheit

97.6-99.6 F

Axillary temperature range in celsius

35.9-37.0C

Tympanic temperature range in F and C

98.6 F and 37C

Intermittent fever

Fluctuating fever that returns to or below the baseline then rises again

Remittent Fever

Fluctuating, remains elevated and does not return to baseline

Continuous Fever

remains constant above baseline, does not flucuate

Rectal temperature is not taken from the following patients

Patients with heart disease

WHen taking axillary temerature how long should it be taken

5-10 mins or as required by office policy

Pulse is taken where and how long

radial for 30sec x2, if tachy or brady take it 1 minute

Explain blood pressure

measurement of amount of force blood excertes on peripheral artery walls

BP cuffs too short and narrow can give false reading of what?

Hypertension

Taking BP hearing two consecutive beats gives which reading

Systolic

Patient laying on back with knees flexed, soles of feet on bed

Dorsal recumbant

This position is used to promote drainage or ease of breathing

Fowler's

This position is used for examination of the pelvic organs

Dorsal Lithotomy

Prone position is used for

used to examine back and spine

patient lays on his/her stomach with head turned to one side for comfort

prone position

Patient in on left side with the right knee flexed against abdomen

Sim's position

Patients with leg injuries or arthritis can not assume this position

Sim's position

This position is usually used for taking rectal temperature

Sim's position

This position is usually used for rectal or vaginal examination

Knee Chest

This position is used for surgical procedures of pelvic abdomen and also for shock treatment

Trendelenburg

Never leave the patient alone in the room when he/she is in this position

Knee Chest

This position is used for surgical procedures of pelvic and abdomen and also for shock treatment

Trendelenburg

If skin or eyes come in contact with chemicals wash area with water for ?

5 minutes

MSDS

Material Safety Data Sheet

What are the symptoms of shock

plale cold clammy skin, blank stare, rapid weak pulse, fast shallow breathing

First aid for shock

Open airway, call assistance, position head lower, control bleed if any, keep warm

Modes of transmission

contact (direct or indirect) droplet, airborne, common vehicle, vector

What is the least expensive and most available disinfectant for surfaces

1:10 bleach solution

Define surgical asepsis

All microbial life, pathogen and non pathogens are destroyed

What is used at 250-254F, 15 pounds of pressure for 20-40 minutes

Autoclave

Used for instruments that easily corrode

dry heat sterilization

What is the most important means of preventing the spread of infections?

Handwashing

PPE includes?

mask, goggles, face shields, respirator

What defines standard precautions?

All patients are presumed to be infective for blood borne pathogens

This is an infection control method designed to prevent direct contact with blood or other body fluids

Standard precautions

This replaces universal precautions and body substance isolation

Standard precautions

Don gloves, face shields if danger of splashing, dispose of all needles with out recappiong into the sharps container

Standard Precautions

This is the second tier of precautions used when patient is contagious

Transmission based precautions

Define contact precautions

Reducing the risk of transmission of microorganisms direct or indirect

Special air handling and ventilation are required to prevent

Airborne diseases under Airborne Precautions

This is an emerging and important problem in the health care field

Latex Sensitivity

Every health care worker with this latex allergy should wear this

Medical alert bracelet

po

Per oral

pr

Per rectum/suppository

sl

sublingual under tongue

IM

Intramuscular

SQ

Subcutaneous

qd

every day

bid

twice a day

tid

three times a day

qid

four times a day

pc

post consumption/ after a meal

qhs

each night or at bed time

prn

as necessary or when needed

sig

from the latin, let it be labeled

The inner most layer of the heart

endocardium

a muscular hollow organ located in thoracic cavity between lungs

the heart

actually the inner visceral layer of the pericardium

Epicardium

the sac containing the heart

pericardium

serous fluid

prevents friction as the heart beats

recieves deoxygenated blood returning to the heart from the body

Right Atrium

recieves deoxygenated blood from the right atrium which it pumps to the lungs throguh the pumonary artery

Right Ventricle

receives oxygenated blood from the left atrium and pumps it to the body thru the aorta

Left Ventricle

The av valves

Tricuspid and Mitral (bicuspid ) valves

The Semilunar valves

Aortic and pulmonic

Valve located between the left atrium and the left ventricle

Mitral or bicuspid

Valve lovated between the right ventricle and the pulmonary trunk

pulmonic valve

heart sounds produced by closure of the valves

murmors

caused by diseases of the valves or other structural abnormalities

Murmors

First heart sound due to the closure of the mitral and tricuspid valves

S1 in the upper chambers or the atria

S2 in the ventricles

second heart sound due to the closure of the aortic and pulmonic valves

arteries supplying the heart

right and left coronary from the aorta

Arteries supplying the heart

right and left coronary from the aorta

The ans or autonomic nervous system is subdvided into

sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system

The SP or sympathetic nervous system affects

both, the atria and the ventricles by increasing heart rate conduction and irritability

The pns or parasympathetic nervous system affects

atria only by decreasing heart rate, conduction and irritability

Automaticity

ability of the cardiac cells to initiate own electrical impulses without outside stimulation

Excitability or irritability

ability of cardiac cells to respond to external stimulus

Contractility

ability of cardiac cells to shorten (muscle contraction) in response to electrical stimulus

Digitalis, dopamine, epinephrine

Drugs that increase the contractility of the heart

Results in myocardial relaxation

repolarization

Consists of anterior, middle and posterior divisions that distribute electrical impulses by SA to AV node

Internodal pathway

This fires at 20-40 bpm

Purkinje fibers

limb leads consist of

3 bipolar and 3 augmented leads

These record electrical potentials in the frontal plane

Lead I, Lead II, Lead III and the chest leads

On Lead III, which is the positive lead

the left leg is positive

Which limb is always the ground

right leg

Waveform

movement away from the isoelectric line either positive or negative

Interval

waveform plus a segment

Complex

Several waveforms

The normal P wave in standard and precordial leads does not exceed

0.11s in duration or 2.5 mm in height

The vertical axis on the ekg paper measures

Amplitude or voltage

J (RST) junction

point at which QRS complex ends and the ST segment begins

ST segment

from J point to the onset of the T wave

Normal indication for a stress test

Evaluation of a patient withchest pain and a normal ekg, arrythmia, monitoring a pt, with a recent MI

The percentage of the target heart rate during a stress test that makes it valid

85%

Hematocrite is made up of

hemoglobin x 3

Define hematocrit

The percentage by colume of packed red blood cells in a given sample of blood after centrifugation

Opposite of anemia

polycythemia

When taking a pharmacologic stress test, it is concluded when

85% of the target rate is achieved

Drugs used for a pharmacologic stress test

adeosine, dipyridamole, dobutamine

Ectopic Rythms

electrical impulses originating from somewhere else but the SA node

Pre-excitation Syndrome

Electrical impulses of the heart bypass the normal pathway and instead go down an accessory shortcut

Conduction Block

electrical impulses go down but encounter blocks and delays

Indication for temination of a stress test

SOB (shortness of breath), chest pain, dizziness, blood pressure abnormalities

Ischemia

decrease in amount of blood flow

What is the hallmark of a infarction

The presence of abnormal Q waves

List some cardiac markers

Triponin, CK, LDH, SGOT, AST

What is a negative holter?

A negative holter will have no significant arrhythmias or ST changes

How long is a holter monitor worn?

24 hours or longer

Why is a holter monitor done?

To rule out arrhythmia's or ischemia

How many electrodes are on a holter monitor

5

A positive holter is one that recorded at least one or more of these abnormalities

Tachy or bradycardia, ST segment elevation or depression, pauses

When is the event monitor used?

Only when symptoms occur

List drugs givenfor acute MI

Oxigen, Epinephrine, Isoproterenol, Dopamine (Intropin) Beta blocker (olol), Lidocaine, Verapamil, Digitalis, Morphine, Nitroglycerin

What is a powerful smooth muscle relaxant with the side effect of headache

Nitroglycerin patch or SL

Digitalis does

increases the force of cardiac contractions as well as cardiac output, tocicity in 20% of patients

Butterfly

Winged infusion set

What is the most important task of a phlebotomist

patient ID

With the bevel upward insert the needle at which angle?

15-30 degrees

Prandial

Fasting

What is important to do first after dermal puncture?

Wipe away the first drop

Timed specimens

Hormone levels, blood levels of medications, monitor PT condition E.G. Hemoglobin level *internal bleeding )

While administering a OGTT it is important to take what with each sample

Urine Sample

When are OGTT scheduled to begin?

0700-0900 7-9am

The two hour postprandial test is used for?

evaluation of diabetes mellitus

The OGTT test is used for ?

Diagnosing diabetis mellitius and evaluating patients with frequent low blood sugar

The 3 hour OGTT is used to test for

To test for hyperglycemia

The 5 hour OGTT is used for

To test for hypoglycemia, for disorders of carbohydrate metaolism

PKU

Tests for babies and to detect phenylketouria, a genetic disease that causes mental retardation and brain damage

Cold Agglutinins

Antibodies produced in response to atypical pneumonia must be kept at 37c

ABG, AMMONIA, lactic acid, pyruvate, parathyroid test handling

Chilled in crushed ice and water mixture

Billi

Bile

Which blood tests can NOT be done using dermal puncture

ESR, BC

You have the right to caring staff who believe your reports of pain

Example of the patient bill of rights for pain management

Method of taking pulse used on children and patient with irregular heartbeat

Apical pulse

Orthopenia

Difficulty breathing when laying flat

Define Cheyne- Stokes

Regular pattern of irregular breathing rate

Medical Assistant role in the physical examination

Room prep, patient prep, assisting the doctor

Hazards

Physical, chemical , biological

This technique is not permitted in the lab

Never draw a pipette by mouth

Expresionless face and staring eyes are indications of

Shock

Agents are

Any infective microorganisms, viruses,fungi, bacteria, and parasites

Define common vehicle

Water, food, drinking from the same glass, kissing

What fires at 40-60 bpm

AV junction, bundle of HIS

Which are unipolar leads?

aVR, aVL, aVF

Whhich test is used to evaluate primary hemostasis

Bleeding time test

How long is the lifespan of a platelet?

9-12 days

When the vaccutainer method can not be used you would use

10-12ml Syringes

Which tube nmust be filled completely?

Light Blue sodium citrate tube to maintain a ratio of 9:1

Chief Complaint

the reason why the patient came to see the physician.

History of Present Illness

explanation of the CC to determine the onset of the illness.

Past,family,and social history

summary of personal and family health problems as well as social to include marital status, occupation, use of drugs, etc.

Body Processes necessary for life:

Body Temperature, Respiration, Heart Function

Vital Signs of body function:

temperature, pulse, respiration, blood pressure

Febrile

presence of fever

afebrile

absence of fever

intermittent fever

fluctuating fever that returns to or below baseline

remittent fever

fluctuating fever that remains elevated and does not return to baseline

continuous fever

fever that remains constant; does not fluctuate

axillary temperature

least accurate; taken under the arm

tympanic temperature

useful for children; placed in the ear

rectal temperature

per rectum; most effective

normal adult pulse range

between 60-100 bpm

apical pulse

taken over the apex of the heart by auscultation

normal respiration rate

12-20 per minute (Adults)

apnea

temporary complete absence of breathing

tachypnea

respiration rate greater than 40 per minute

bradypnea

decrease in the numbers of respiration

cheyne stokes

regular pattern of irregular breathing rate

orthopnea

decrease in numbers of respiration

hypoventilation

reduced amount of air enters the lungs resulting in decreased oxygen level

hyperpnea

abnormal increase in the depth and rate of breathing

hyperventilation

increased amount of air entering the lungs

Systole

the highest amount of pressure exerted during the cardiac cycle

Diastole

the lowest amount of pressure exerted during the cardiac cycle

Palpation

the sense of touch to determine the characteristics of an organ system

Percussion

tapping or striking the body to determine the position, size and density of the underlying organ/tissue

Auscultation

listening to sounds produced by internal organs

Horizontal Recumbent Position

patient lies on back w/legs extended (used for most physical exams)

Dorsal Recumbent Position

patient lies on back with knees flexed and soles of the feet flat on the bed

Fowler's Position

semi/sitting position where back of the table is elevated.

Dorsal Lithotomy Position

patient lies on back with knees flexed, legs seperated and thighs are acutely flexed. feet are usually in stirrups,

Prone position

patients lies on abdomen with head turned to side

Sim's position

patient lies on left side with right knee flexed against the abdomen and left knee slightly flexed

knee-chest position

patient is on knees with chest resting on the bed and elbows resting on the bed above head

OSHA

Occupational Safety and Health Administration

external hemorrhage

controlling the bleeding is most effectively accomplished by elevating the affected part above heart level

Shock

occurs when there is insufficient return of blood flow to the heart

CPR

Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation

AMS

Agent, Modes of Transmission, Susceptible Hosts

agents

infectious microorganisms that can be classified into groups; viruses, bacteria, fungi, and parasites

Portal of Exit

the method by which an infectious agent leaves the reservoir

5 Modes of Transmission

Droplet, Airborne, Common Vehicle, Vectorborne, Contact (direct or indirect)

Susceptible Host

Not Resistant or Immune

Medical Asepsis

the destruction of pathogenic microorganisms after they leave the body

disinfection

use of various chemicals that can be used to destroy many pathogenic microorganisms

1:10 Solution

most readily available and least expensive disenfectant

surgical asepsis

all microbial life, pathogens and non pathogens are destroyed before an invasive procedure

Gas Sterilization

often used for wheelchairs and hospital beds

Dry Heat Sterilization

requires higher temperature than steam sterilization but longer exposure times

Chemical Sterilization

use of the same chemical used for chemical disinfection

Steam Sterilization (autoclave)

uses steam under pressure to obtain high temperature of 250-254F with exposure of 20-40 min

Handwashing

the most important means of preventing the spread of infection

Personal Protective Equipment

Masks, goggles, face shileds, respirators

isolation precautions

method of infection control that assumes all human blood and body fluids were potentially infectious

standard precautions

designed to prevent direct contact with blood and other body fluids u using PPE

transmission based precautions

the second tier of precautions are to be used when the patient is known or suspected of being contagious

po

by mouth/orally

pr

per rectum

sl

sublingual (under the tongue)

iv

intravenous

im

intramuscular

sq

subcutaneous

qd

every day

bid

twice a day

tid

three times a day

qid

four times a day

pc

after meals / not on empty stomach

qhs

each night

prn

as needed

heart location

in the thoracic cavity between the lungs just behind the sternum

Upper chambers of the heart

right & left atria (atrium-singular)

Lower chambers of the hear

Right & left ventricles

Endocardium

innermost layer of the heart

Myocardium

middle layer of the heart

Epicardium

outermost layer of the heart

pericardium

the sac in which the heart is contained

right atrium

receives deoxygenated blood returning to the heart via the superior vena cava

right ventricle

receives deoxygenated blood from the right atrium which it pumps to the lungs for oxygenation through the pulmonary artery

pulmonary arteries

the only arteries in the body that carry deoxygenated blood

left atrium

receives deoxygenated blood returning from the lungs via the rught and left pulmonary veins

pulmonary veins

the only beins in the body that carry oxygenated blood

left ventricle

receives the oxygenated blood from the left atrium and pumps it to the body through the aorta

aorta

the largest artery of the body

Atrioventicular Valves (AV)

Tricuspid & Mitral Valve

Tricuspid Valve

;between the right atrium and the right ventricle

Mitral Valve

between the left atrium and left ventricle

Pulmonic Valve

between the right ventricle and pulmonary trunk

Aortic Valve

between the left ventricle and aorta

Murmurs

caused by diseases of the valves or other structural abnormalities

S1

first heart sound

S2

second heart sound

Autonomic Nervous System (ANS)

subdivided into Sympathetic and Parasympathetic systems

ANS

Automatic Nervous System

sympathetic nervous system

affect both the atria and ventricles by increasing the heart rate

parasympathetic nervous system

affects only the atria by decreasing the heart rate

automaticity

the ability of the cardiac pacemaker cells to spontaneously initiate their own electrical impulse without being stimulated from another source

excitability

the ability to respond to external stimulus: chemical,electrical, and mechanical

conductivity

the ability of all cardiac cells to receive an electrical stimulus and transmit the stimulus to other cardiac cells

Contractility

the ability of the cardiac cells to shorten and cause cardiac muscle contraction in response to an electrical stimulus

Depolarization

positive - contracting

repolarization

negative - relaxation

SA Node

primary pacemaker of the heart and has a normal firing rate of 60-100 bpm

LEAD I

Left Arm is positive
Right Arm is negative

LEAD II

Left Leg is Positive
Right Arm is negative

LEAD III

Left Leg is positive
Left Arm is negative

Lead aVR

Right arm is positive and the other limbs are negative

Lead aVL

Left arm is positive and the other limbs are negative

Lead aVF

Left leg/foot is positive and the other limbs are negative

V1

4th intercostal space, right sternal border

V2

4th intercostal space, left sternal border

V3

between v2 and v4

V4

5th intercostal space, left midclavicular line

V5

5th intercostal space, anterior axillary line

V6

5th intercostal space, midaxillary line

horizontal axis

represents time: 1mm

vertical axis

measured in millivolts

running speed

25mm/sec

waveform

refers to movement away from the isoelectric line

segment

line between two waveforms

interval

waveform plus a segment

complex

several waveforms

P WAVE

deflection produced by atrial depolarization

QRS COMPLEX

represents ventricular depolarization (activation)

Q WAVE

initial negative deflection

R WAVE

first positive deflection

S WAVE

first negative deflection

T WAVE

deflection produced by ventricular repolarizations

Wandering Baseline

causes the baseline of the tracing to move up and down; due to interference with the signal

stress test

noninvasive diagnostic procedure to determine the presence and severity of coronary artery disease

ischemia

decrease in the amount of blood flow

holter monitor

contains 5 electrodes attached to the patients trunk

code of ethics

standards of right and wrong

blood vessels:

aorta,arteries, capillaries, venules, veins, superior and inferior vena cava

Tunica adventitia

outer connective tissue

Tunica media

middle smooth layer

Tunica Intima

inner endothelial layer

Avg blood amount for adult

5-6 liters

Plasma

liquid portion of the blood

Erythrocytes

red blood cells

Leukocytes

white blood cells

120 days

normal life span of an RBC

Leukocyte function

protects against infection

Thrombocytes-platelets

small irregularly shaped packets of cytoplams

Hemostasis

process by which blood vessels are repaired after inkury

Vascular Phase

stage 1 of hemostasis

Platelet Phase

stage 2 of hemostasis

Coagulation phase

stage 3 of hemostasis

Fibrinolysis

stage 4 of hemostasis

Antecubital fossa

preferred site for venipuncture

median cubital vein

first choice vein for venipuncture

cephalic vein

second choice vein for venipuncture

basilic vein

third choice vein for venipuncture

winged infusion sets

used for pediatric and elderly patients

fasting specimen

require patient to abstain from eating for at least 12 hours

edema

the accumulation of fluid in the tissues

fistulla

the permanent surgical connection between an artery and vein

Yellow Top Tube

Blood Cultures (1st)

Light Blue Top Tube

Sodium (2nd)

Red or Tiger Striped Tube

Serum / non additive tubes (3rd)

Green Top Tube

Heparin (4th)

Lavender Top Tube

EDTA(5th)

Gray Top Tube

Glucose (6th)

Hematoma

blood accumulation in the tissue surrounding the vein

Hemoconcentration

result of tourniquet being left on too long

Phlebitis

inflammation of a vein

Petechiae

tiny non-raised red spots due to the tourniquet being left on too long

Thrombus

blood clot

Thrombophlebitis

inflammation of a being with formation of clot

two hour postprandial test

used to evaluate diabetes mellitus

oral glucose tolerance test

used to diagnose diabetes mellitus

PKU

test ordered for infants to detect phenylketonuria

blood cultures

ordered to detect presence of microorganisms in the patients blood

chilled specimens

ammonia, lactic acid, gastrin, acth

light sensitive specimens

bilirubin, beta-carotene, vitamins a & b6

Dermal puncture site for infants

middle of the fourth and fifth toes to the heel

Dermal puncture site for adults

third or fourth finger of the non dominant hand

1st draw for capillary

lavender tube

2nd draw for capillary

tubes with additives

3rd draw for capillary

tubes without additives

Bacteriology

study of bacteria

parasitology

study of parasites

mycology

study of fungi

virology

study of viruses

meter

basic unit of length

liter

basic unit of capacity or volume

gram

basic unit of weight or mass

kilo

one-thousand

deci

one-tenth

centi

one-hundredth

milli

one-thousandth

micro

one millionth

nano

one billionth

components of the urinary system

two kidneys, two ureters, urinary bladder, and a urethra

first morning sample

most commonly used for routine urinalysis

mid stream specimen

collected not at the beginning or end of voiding but in the middle of urination

clean catch specimen

requires special cleaning of the external genitalia

urine output avg

1200-1500ml every 24 hours

examination of urine

physical, chemical and micrpscopic

glucose

sugar typically found in urine

Duty

duty of care

Derelict

breach of duty of care

Direct Cause

legally recognizable injury

Damage

wrongful activity must have caused the injury

tort

wrongful act that results in injury to one person by another

good samaritan law

rendering of first aid by health care professionals at the scene of an accident or sudden injury