1. In community surveys, a frequent symptom of malnutrition is:
a. scurvy
b. rickets
c. low serum albumin
d. low hemoglobin
d. low hemoglobin
2. Which is the least common symptom in the elderly?
a. osteomalacia
b. osteoporosis
c. obesity
d. Hypertension
a. osteomalacia
3. What is included in the study of demograpics?
i. age of individuals ii. population iii. sex of individuals iv. socioeconomic factors
a. i only
b. all of the above
c. ii, iii
d. i, ii, iii
d. i, ii, iii
4. Athletes should receive....
a. salt pills only during the summer months
b. extra protein
c. carbohydrate loading 2 weeks prior to an event
d. water during an event to replace lost fluids
d. water during an event to replace lost fluids
5. HOw many grams of protein would you receive on a 1500 kcal diet which is 20% protein?
a. 70
b. 75
c. 64
d. 300
b. 75
6. A patient is on a high protein, low carb diet. What advice should you offer?
a. increase fluid intake
b. decrease the intake of complex carbs
c. decrease fluid intake
d. decrease the intake of saturated fats
a. increase fluid intake
7. An insulin dependent diabetes living alone calls you with symptoms of nausea, vomiting, and anorexia. What do you recommend?
a. continue with insulin and eat anything he can
b. continue with insulin and drink anything he can
c. discontinue the insulin
b. continue with insulin and drink anything he can
8. Which infant is at the greatest risk?
a. 20 lbs. hemoglobin 10
b. 22 lbs. hemoglobin 10.5
c. 19 lbs. hemoglobin 11
d. 30 lbs. hemoglobin 9
d. 30 lbs. hemoglobin 9
9. Which of the infants in the above questions has a normal hemoglobin
a. 20 lbs. hemoglobin 10
b. 22 lbs. hemoglobin 10.5
c. 19 lbs. hemoglobin 11
d. 30 lbs. hemoglobin 9
a. a, b, d
b. b, d
c. c, d
d. a, b,c
d. a, b,c
10. An alcoholic patent has a low serum albumin, low hemoglobin, high ammonia, abnormal liver function test and ascites. Why is he on the 500 mg sodium diet?
a. secondary renal failur
b. hypoaldosteronism
c. hypoalbuminemia
d. hyperammonemia
c. hypoalbuminemia
11. Which of the following should the patient in the above question have for lunch?
An alcoholic patent has a low serum albumin, low hemoglobin, high ammonia, abnormal liver function test and ascites. Why is he on the 500 mg sodium diet?
a. 4 oz of cottag
c. 1 ounce roast beef
12. Which of the followng should be included in the diet for celiac disease?
i. decrease intake of eggs. ii. use potato and rice flour iii. IM vitamin b12 and iron iv. low cal, high fat, high proteins
a. ii, iii
b. iii, iv
c. i, ii, iv
d. ii, iv
a. ii, iii
13. A 75 yar ofemale weighs 100 lbs, 5'2" tall, lives alone, has a poor appetite. Serum albumin is 1.8; BUN is 35. She is depresed, eats one meal a day, ha dkwashiorkor and needs a high calorie, high protein diet. Using the SOAP format, what information s
c. poor appetite, lives alone, depressed
14. From the above question, what should be listed in "a"
a. needs a high cal, high protein diet
b. has protein malnutrition
c. poor appetite, lives alone, depressed
d. 5'2", 100 lbs, BUN 35
b. has protein malnutrition
15. How many calories are in 300 ml of a 5% dextrose solution?
a. 51
b. 60
c. 15
d. 200
a. 51
16. A single 19 year old female is 6 months pregnant. She has not gained any weight and has not seen a physician. Hemoglobin is 9.; Hematocrit is 30. What is the most important recommendation for her?
a. see a physician immediately
b. apply for WIC immedi
a. see a physician immediately
17. A female, 5'7" tall, weighs 115 bs. Six months ago she weighed 130 lbs. What is her % of ideal body weight?
a. 85%
b. 83%
c. 81%
d. 87%
a. 85%
18. A vegan is allergic to milk. Which nutrient would you expect might be deficient in her intake?
a. protein, calories
b. vitamin b12, D
c. vitamin C, calcium
d. vitamin A, D
b. vitamin b12, D
19. A pt with crohn's disease needs the following diet:
i. high fat, high cal, high protein
ii. low fat with fat soluble vits, vit c, b12
iii. high calorie, high protein
iv. high residue, low fat, fat soluble vits
v. low cal, low residue, fat soluble vits
b. ii, iii
20. Which of the following diets is appropriate for reactive hypoglycemia?
a. decrease fat, spread CHO throughout the day, 5-6 small meals
b. increased complex carbs, low fat, high protein
c. decreased comple cars, low fat
d. high protein, high fat, high
a. decrease fat, spread CHO throughout the day, 5-6 small meals
22. When assessing nutritional stats, which would be the most beneficial?
a.24 hr recall, hx of weight changes
b.medical hx, diet rder, socioeconomic status
c. clinical observations, weight status, cultural habits
d. diet intake info, clinical data, lab d
d. diet intake info, clinical data, lab data
23. The first function of th public health nutritionist is:
a. assess the needs of the community
b. counsel patients with special dietary needs
c. write pamphlets with special dietary needs
d. expand the role of dietititans
a. assess the needs of the community
24. What nutrients most affect the renal solute load?
a. protein and carbs
b. sodium and carbs
c. protein and sodium
d. sodium and fat
c. protein and sodium
25. The elderly need how many ml of water per KG?
a. 35
b. 45
c. 30
d. 25
c. 30
26. According to the Diabetic Exchange Lis, when substituting 2% milk for skim ilk, you must omit how many fat exchanges?
a. 1/2
b. 1
c. 1 1/2
d. 2
b. 1
27. If a man normally consuming 2600 cals per day reduces his intake o 1500 cals per day, how much weight will he lose in one week?
a. 0.5 kg
b. 1.0 kg
c. 1.5 kg
d. 2.0 kg
b. 1.0 kg
28. For which of the following diseases is diet therapy the primary treatment?
a. peptic ulcer
b. diabetes
c. Wilson's Disease
d. galactosemia
d. galactosemia
29. Which of the following best reflect protein status?
a. serum albumin
b. serum transferrin
c. retinol-binding protein
d. prealbumin
d. prealbumin
30. Following a Billroth II steatorrhea often results. Whats the likely cause?
a. bacterial vergrowth in the remaining loop
b. lack of pancreatic secretion due to less duodenal hormone secretion
c. a diet restricting simple carbs
d. rapid absorption of si
b. lack of pancreatic secretion due to less duodenal hormone secretion
31. Meats curd with whey won't be tolerated by someone with:
i. lactose intolerance ii. diabetes iii. post-gastrectomy iv. duodenectomy
a. i, ii, iii
b. ii, iii, iv
c. i
d. i, iii, iv
c. i
33. A PEG feeding would be useful in a patient with:
a. head or neck cancer, who will not be able toe at normally for weeks
b. short bowel syndrome
c. duodenal ulcers
d. pancreatitis
a. head or neck cancer, who will not be able toe at normally for weeks
34. A pt with hepatitis needs a high protein intake. Besides helping the liver to regnerate, what other purpose is served?
a. it helps increase iron absorption
b. it restores glycogen reserves
c. it helps prevent fatty liver
d. it helps prevent necrosis o
c. it helps prevent fatty liver
36. Which foods are most likely to cause an allergic reaction?
a. shellfish, peanuts, wheat
b. wheat, chocolate, rice
c. citrus fruits, milk, corn
d. chocolate, milk, corn
a. shellfish, peanuts, wheat
37. Which set of conditions is most commonly seen in American children?
a. obesity, dental carries, anemia
b. hypertension, dental carries, rickets
c. hyperkinesis, anemia, dental carries
d. dieabetes, obesity, anemia
a. obesity, dental carries, anemia
38. A 1500 cal diabetic diet with 45% cals from carbs is prescribed. One third of the carb grams is met with 1/2 cup oj, 1 cup milk, and:
a. 1 slice of toast
b. 2 slices of toast
c. 2 slices toast and 1/2 cup oatmeal
d. 1/2 slice of toast
b. 2 slices of toast
39. Which of the following is a medium fat meat?
a. pork chop
b. tunafish packed in water
c. roast lamb
d. chicken without skin
c. roast lamb
40. Which government agency would you contact regarding food distribution?
a. USDA
b. FDA
c. HHS
d. Food stamps
a. USDA
41. Which has the greatest effect on the real solute load?
a. potassium
b. sodium
c. glucose
d. protein
d. protein
42. Which is not a fiber in the diet?
a. cellulose
b. hemicellulose
c. amylose
d. pectin
c. amylose
43. What is the diet for hypertension?
i. low sodium ii. high potassium. iii. high calcium
a. i
b. i, ii
c. i, iii
d. i, ii, iii
a. i
44. The NHANES study looks at which parameters?
i. dietary ii. clinical iii. biochemical
a. i,
b. i, ii
c. i, iii
d. i, ii, iii,
d. i, ii, iii,
45. What is a major reason for constipato in the elderly?
a. a diet low in high residue foods
b. a diet high in low residue foods
c. decreased gastric motility
d. lack of physical exercise
c. decreased gastric motility
46. A 11 month old infant is at the 95th percentile weight for age and has been for the past 9 months. What should you do?
a. recommend increasing food intake by 25%
b. recommend decreasing food intake by 50%
c. watch the child's growth for the next 6 mon
d. nothing, he's fine
47. A 6'2" male, large frame, 230 lbs with type II diabetes should:
a. gain 5lbs, to be at desirable body weight
b. lose 20 lbs slowly following a balanced diet
c. lose 20 lbs in 4 weeks on an 800 cal diet
d. lose 10 lbs slowly by following a balanced die
b. lose 20 lbs slowly following a balanced diet
48. A patient with chronic pacreatitis should consume oral pancreatic enzymes:
a. with large meals and faty foods
b. only if steatorrhea increases
c. with all meals and snacks
d. only if consuming a high fat, low protein diet
c. with all meals and snacks
49. If a patient is about to be discharged when you receive the discharge diet order, you should....
a. give him something to take home
b. there is not enough time so forget it
c. enroll him in the outpatient clinic and schedule an appointment
d. teach hi
c. enroll him in the outpatient clinic and schedule an appointment
50. Following a cholecystectomy, bile is produced by the:
a. pancreas
b. liver
c. spleen
d. portal vein
b. liver
51. HOw many calories are in 1.5 liters of a 25% dextrose solution?
a. 850
b. 1275
c. 1000
d. 1500
b. 1275
52. Research suggests that in order to guard against cancer you should ingest:
a. carotene and vitamin c
b. vitamins c and b12
c. protein and vitamin a
d. vitamins e and k
a. carotene and vitamin c
53. Which of the following may be the cause of loose stools in a tube fed patient?
i. feeding was administered at too rapid rate
ii. the osmolality of the feeding was too low
iii. the patient is constipated
iv. an inadequate amount of intestinal surfcace
d. i, iv
54. an elevated T4 indicates:
a. galactosemia
b. hypothyroidism
c. hyperthyroidism
d. ketonuria
c. hyperthyroidism
55. Before discontinuing a parenteral feeding, provide enteral support to prevent:
a. development of a fatty liver
b. ketoacidosis
c. hypoglycemia
d. hepatic encephalopathy
c. hypoglycemia
56. Which of the following weight gains puts pregnant women at risk?
a. less than 4 lbs/month in the last half of pregnancy
b. less than 5lbs/month in the last half of pregnancy
c. less than 6 lbs/month in the last half of preganancy
d. more than 2 lbs/mo
a. less than 4 lbs/month in the last half of pregnancy
57. Iron deficiency anemia has the following characteristics:
i. large cells laden with hemoglobin ii. small, pale cells. iii. hypchromic, microcytic. iv. macrocytic or megaloblastic
a. i, iii
b. ii, iii
c. i, iv
d. ii, iv
b. ii, iii
58. Which hormone moves milk hrou the mammary ducts?
a. prolactin
b. progesterone
c. estrogen
d. oxytocin
d. oxytocin
59. Which anthropometric measurements are useful in assessing adults?
a. tricips skinflod, head circumference, arm muscle circum
b. head circum, arm muscle circ, height, weight
c. serum albumin, triceps skinfold
d. triceps skinfold, arm muscle cir, height
d. triceps skinfold, arm muscle cir, height, weight
60. Which is a measure of somatic protein?
a. serum albumn
b. serum transferrin
c. mid-arm muscle circ
d. triceps skin fold
c. mid-arm muscle circ
61. Muscle mass is determined using the:
a. triceps skinfold & arm circ.
b. skinfold caliper
c. BEE
d. urinary creatinine measurement
a. triceps skinfold & arm circ.
62 Gastric irritants include:
a. black pepper, chili powder, black pepper, alcohol, cocoa
b. seeds nuts, chili powder, black pepper, alcohol
c. caffeine, black pepper, nuts, alcohol
d. oj, black pepper, chili powder, alcohol
a. black pepper, chili powder, black pepper, alcohol, cocoa
63. Good advice for a pt with a hiatal hernia is to:
a. increase intake of complex carbs
b. lower the fat content of the diet
c. don't eat before bed
. avoid coffee
c. don't eat before bed
64. the dumping syndrome:
i. follows a gastrectomy ii. is secondary to carb overload iii. draws fluid into the intestine iv. needs a high carb diet
a. i, iii, iv
b. ii, iii, iv
c. i
d. i, ii, iii
d. i, ii, iii
65. Nutritional therapy for hepatitis includs:
a. high protein, high carb, mod fat, high cal
b. high protein, low carb, low fat, mod cal
c. low protein, high carb, low fat, high cal
d. low protein, high carb, low fat, low cal
a. high protein, high carb, mod fat, high cal
6.
Esophageal varices may be caused by:
a. portal hypotension
b. portal hypertension
c. a high fiber diet
d. a high fiber diet, high res diet
b. portal hypertension
67. The diet for hepatic coma is low in protein due to:
a. low ammonia levels
b. high cholesterol diet
c. high ammonia levels
d. high LDL
c. high ammonia levels
68. in cystic fibrosis, the most impaired nutrient is:
a. protein.
b. disaccharides
c. electrolytes
d. fat
d. fat
69. hormones that control blood pressure and blood components are produced in:
a. the heart
b. the liver
c. the kidneys
d. the lungs
c. the kidneys
70. An acid ash would be created by ingesting:
a. corn, cranberries
b. milk
c. vegetables
d. fruits
a. corn, cranberries
71. symptoms of nephrosis include:
a. dehydration, hypocholesterolemia
b. albuminuria, hypercholesterolemia
c. edema, hypocholesterolemia
d. hypotension, hyperalbuminemia
b. albuminuria, hypercholesterolemia
72. The catecholamines released during stress cause:
a. hypertension
b. hyperglycemia
c. diuresis
d. elevated BUN
b. hyperglycemia
73. Which is a part of the nutritional therapy for IDDM in a lean person?
a. time meals
b. decrease caloric intake
c. it is not crucial to maintain consistency of calories if average intake is low
d decrease the frequency of feedings
a. time meals
74. Increased serum uric acid levels may lead to:
a. galactosemia
b. glycogen storage disease
c. gout
d. PKU
c. gout
75. The diet for galactosemia should exclude:
a. high fat foods
b. high chol foods
c. organ meats, MSG
d. simple carbs
c. organ meats, MSG
76. the ketogenic diet is used to help treat:
a. cystic fibrosis
b. seizures
c. chronic renal failure
d. hypotension
b. seizures
77. Immediately following a severe burn, nutritional therapy should include:
a. high cal
b. high protein
c. high cal, vites, minerals
d. fluid and electrolyte replacement
d. fluid and electrolyte replacement
78. The theory of obesity that refers to receptors in the hypothalamus is the:
a. lipostatic theory
b. set point theory
c. glucostatic theory
d. glucose obese theory
c. glucostatic theory
79. The VMA test diet measures:
a. fat malabsorption
b. total catecholamines
c. protein malabsorption
d. vitamin, mineral absorption
b. total catecholamines
80. A fecal excretion of __grams of fat/24 hrs is considered fat malabsorption.
a. less than 1
b. more than 7
c. 3-5
d. 2-4
b. more than 7
81. Iatrgenic malnutrition is:
a. vitamin and mineral malabsorption
b. protein malabsorption
c. protein, calorie malnutrition
d. kwashiorkor
c. protein, calorie malnutrition
82. What are the similarities between WIC and Food stamps?
i. regulated by USDA ii. have at risk criteria iii. have income criteria iv. a health exam is required
a. i, ii, iii, iv
b. i, ii, iii
c. ii, iii, iv
d. i, iii
d. i, iii
83. A 60 kg female receives 2700 kcals on PN. The calorie to nitrogen ration is 150:1. How many grams of nitrogen is she getting?
a. 14
b. 16
c. 18
d. 20
c. 18
84. What type of fo would you feed to a pt o has the athetoid form cerebral palsy?
a. milk-based products
b. finger foods like a hot dog in a roll
c. milk free products
d. galactose free foods
b. finger foods like a hot dog in a roll
85. Osteoporosis is most likely to occur in:
a. the physically active adult
b. non smoker
c. a black female
d. a white female
d. a white female
86. Which is a quick diet assessment tool for a large group?
a. food frequency lists
b. diet history forms
c. weighing food samples and recording intake
d. food records
a. food frequency lists
87. compared to human milk, commercially prepared infant formula is:
a. similar in nutrient content
b. equivalent to human milk in nutrient content and antibodies
c. higher in protein and iron but lacks antibodies
d. lower in protein and iron and lacks an
c. higher in protein and iron but lacks antibodies
88. Which of the followign is not associated with anorexia nervosa?
a. food aversions
b. distorted body image
c. schizophrenia
d. constant concern about weight status
c. schizophrenia
89. What is the approp dvice for a person with anorexia nervosa?
a. offer a wide variety of foods and frequent feedings
b. offer liquids high in cals and protein
c. offer nasogastric feedings
d. regular mealtimes, and a varied moderate intake
d. regular mealtimes, and a varied moderate intake
90. A female who eats a wide variety of foods and takes supplemental iron and birth control pills may be:
a. marginally deficient in folic acid
b. low in calcium
c. low in vitamin A
d. low in zinc
a. marginally deficient in folic acid
91. The immobilized state can lead to low levels of:
a. albumin and calcium
b. albumin and sodium
c. calcium and potassium
d. potassium and zinc
a. albumin and calcium
92. A man with a peptic ulcer should consume:
a. milk every two hrs
b. a bland diet
c. a balanced diet he can tolerate
d. a low roughage diet
c. a balanced diet he can tolerate
93. A cholesterol level of 240 mg needs treatment first with:
a. diet
b. diet and drugs
c. drugs
d. exercise, diet, and drugs
a. diet
94. An infant formula for lactose intolerance might include:
i. whey , coconut oil ii. casein hydrolysate, corn oil, glucose iii. soy protein, corn syrup solids iv. sodium caseinate, hydrolyzed cornstarch
a. i, ii, iii
b. ii, iii
c. ii
d. i, iii
b. ii, iii
95. A patient with nephrosis, will likely exhibit:
a. hypercholesterolemia, albuminemia, edema
b. hypertension, hypocholesterolemia
c. hypotension, azotemia
d. malnutrition, hyperalbuminemia
a. hypercholesterolemia, albuminemia, edema
96. The above pt should receive how many grams of protein per KG.
A patient with nephrosis, will likely exhibit:
a. .5-.6
b. .6-.8
c. .8-1.0
d. 1.0-1.4
c. .8-1.0
97. Fiber, like that found in oats, beans and bran cereals, results in:
a. increased water absorption from the intestine
b. binding of bile acids
c. decreased sodium excretion in the stool
d. small, compact stools
a. increased water absorption from the intestine
98. A patient suffering from bulimia may have all of the following symptoms except:
a. sore throat
b. dental problems
c. extreme weight loss
d. rectal bleeding
c. extreme weight loss
99. The efficacy of a low sugar, low artificial flavor diet on hyperkinesis is:
a. it works in two out of three pts
b. it has not been scientifically proven effective
c. it has never been tested
d. it has been proven effective
b. it has not been scientifically proven effective
100. Which of the following is not a sign of marasmus?
a. severe protein and calorie wasting
b. weight loss
c. edema
d. low anthropometric measurements
c. edema
101. Urea excretion is relate to ___while creatinine excretion is related to ____.
a. muscle mass, protein intake
b. protein intake, muscle mass
c. protein intake, adipose reserves
d. protein intake, calcium intake
b. protein intake, muscle mass
102. A pt has a rare urea disease where the body is unable to synthesize urea. what might be the result?
a. elevated ammonia levels
b. elevated BUN
c. elevated glucagon levels
d. compromised visceral protein levels
a. elevated ammonia levels
103. Which statemet applies to nutritional screening?
a. Only a physician makes the referral
b. only a dietitian makes the referral
c. it is exclusively done by nursing
d. all health team members can participate according to policy
d. all health team members can participate according to policy
104. A sandwich with 2 pieces of white bread and 2 oz of turkey provides how many calories?
a. 250
b. 145
c. 198
d. 290
a. 250
105. Current research on the relationship between cancer and diet includes all of the folowing except....
a. cancer is associated with the intake of vitamin A
b. it is related to demographic factors
c. its is related to epidemiologic data
d. it is associa
b. it is related to demographic factors
106. Two liters of a 5% dextrose solution provide how many calories?
a. 170
b. 340
c. 212
d. 195
b. 340
107. When instructing a pt on diet therapy needed during intake of a monoamine oxidase inhibitor, which would not be included?
a. milk, cottage cheese yogurt
b. yogurt, ricotta cheese
c. swiss cheese, yogurt
d. cheddar cheese, swiss cheese
d. cheddar cheese, swiss cheese
108. Catecholamines have what physiological effect?
a. induce diuresis
b. cause hypoglycemia
c. cause sodium retention
d. cause potassium retention
c. cause sodium retention
109. The realtionship between vitamin A and cancer is shown by:
a. etiology studies
b. epidemiologic studies
c. demographic relationships
d. socioeconomic satisfication
b. epidemiologic studies
110. Why would a man who eats very litlerotein have an albumin of 5.5g/dL?
a. carbs keeps albumin levels elevated
b. he is dehydrated
c. serum albumin falls quickly with protein deprivation
d. it is a sign of protein malnutrition
b. he is dehydrated
111. The diet for stomatitis is:
a. low fat, high carbs, normal protein
b. avoid spices, very hot, cery cold, sour tart foods
c. high protein, high carb
d. liquids, mostly carbs
b. avoid spices, very hot, cery cold, sour tart foods
112. The BMI for a woman who is 5'7" tall and weighs 148 lbs indicates she is:
a. underweight
b. of normal weight
c. overweight
d. obese
b. of normal weight
113. Which of the following is not a guideline for Medicaid?
i. low income ii. over the age of 60 only
iii nutritional need
a. i
b. ii, iii
c. ii
d. iii
b. ii, iii
114. Which survey is repeated every few years?
a. NHANES
b. WHO
c. TEn State
d. FAO
a. NHANES
115. The year 2010health goals are an outgrowth of a report by:
a. ADA
b. the surgeon general, under HHS
c. WHO
d. FAO
b. the surgeon general, under HHS
116. Which of the following is an example of year 2010 goal?
a. decrease in sat fat consumption
b. an increase in iron intake
c. a decrease in infant mortality
d. an increase in the intake of comple carbs
c. a decrease in infant mortality
117. When a starved pt begns to eat, they might expect:
a. constipation
b. an increased workload on the heart
c. lethargy
d. diarrhea
b. an increased workload on the heart
118. What is the diff betwen the diet for diabetes and the diet for reactive hypoglycemia?
a. the hypoglycemia diet has more carbs and fat
b. the hypoglycemia diet has less fat and more carb
c. the hypoglycemia diet has less carbs
d. the hypoglycemia diet
c. the hypoglycemia diet has less carbs
119. The immediate post-stress release of glucagon:
a. increases glucose uptake into cells
b. increases glucose relase into the bloodstream
c. increases insulin release
d. increases fluid and sodium excretion
b. increases glucose relase into the bloodstream
120. Which of th folwing is the appropriate diet for peritoneal dialysis?
a. .8 g protein; 35 cals/KG
b. 2.0 g protein, 30 cals/KG
c. 1.3 g protein, 35 cals/KG
d. 1.0 g protein, 35 cals/KG
c. 1.3 g protein, 35 cals/KG
121. What is an example of a program that provides food to the needy?
a. the Food Bank
b. food stamp program
c. child care program
d. WIC
a. the Food Bank
122. Which formula is high in cal and low in protein?
a. aminaid
b. osmolite
c. sustacal
d. jevity
a. aminaid
123. What is the goal of the dietary guidelines?
a. prevention of chronic disease
b. provide standards for food stamp allocation
c. provide standards for WIC
d. provide standards for EFNEP
a. prevention of chronic disease
124. IF an IDDM tells you she eats meals on an irregular schedule, you should:
a. obtain more info about her usual eating habits
b. explain that insulin therapy is related to intake
c. do nothing if blood sugar levels are ok
d. ask her to complete a detai
b. explain that insulin therapy is related to intake
125. The allowance for food stamps is based on:
a. the average cost of food used by a family of the same size
b. the USDA thrifty food program
c. data from the congregate meal program
d. the cost of the basic four
b. the USDA thrifty food program
126. A single man with two daughters, ages 10 & 11, is looking for aid. Which program might provide assistance?
a. WIC
b. food stamps
c. child care food program
d. headstart
b. food stamps
127. Why is an affluent couple (the man with diabetes, 67 years old, and the wife with a broken arm, 50 years of age) not eligible for MOW?
a. she is too young
b. they are affluent
c. this program does not cater to special diets
d. they can leave the hous
d. they can leave the house
128. Which is permitted on a diet which excludes gluten?
a. rye
b. corn
c. barley
d. wheat bread
b. corn
129. Which nutrients are involved in energy metabolism?
a. pyridoxine and cyanocobalamin
b. copper and zince
c. pantothenic acid and biotin
d. folic acid and iron
c. pantothenic acid and biotin
130. Where can a pregnant teen lear to cook?
a. EFNEP
b. Child nutrition services
c. UNICEF
d. WIC
a. EFNEP
131. In metabolic acidosis, which of the following is involved?
a. excretion of potassium
b. excess calcium retention
c. excretion of sodium bicarbonate
c. excretion of sodium bicarbonate
132. HOw can you enhance usuage of commodity foods from a food donation program?
a. teach food donation staff how to use the itmes
b. make a poster on usage
c. give each participant recipes using the food items
d. calculate the amounts of nutrients provid
c. give each participant recipes using the food items
133. A poor, healthy 19 ear old mother is unsure how to feed her 4 year old child. which program may offer her the most help?
a. EFNEP
b. WIC
c. HHS
d. CACFP
a. EFNEP
134. An athlete weighs more than the average person of his height. What should you do first?
a. put him on a slow eight reduction diet
b. examine other anthropometric measurements
c. have him increase his exercise
d. suggest he drink more water
b. examine other anthropometric measurements
135. The most effectiv nutrition assessment method for large groups is the:
a. food dieary
b. 24 hr recall
c./ food frequency list
d. diet histroy
c./ food frequency list
136. Which is the most appropriate bedtime snack for a diabetic on NPH insulin?
a. apple juice and crackers
b. graham crackers and diet soda
c. fresh fruit and crackers
d. cheese and crackers
d. cheese and crackers
137. What can be done to lower the respiratory quotient of a tube fed pulmonary patient?
a. add MCT oil to decrease energy required for growth
b. change the type of fate to improve oxygen exchange
c. add carb to decrease the respiratory quotient
d. add a
d. add a fat emulsion to replace some of the carbs
138. Which correlates best with energy intake?
a. lean body mass
b. triceps skinfold
c. body mass index
d. body weight
d. body weight
139. Which of the following most affects osmolarity?
a. protein
b. sugar
c. electrolytes
d. fat
c. electrolytes
140. Which fiber is insoluble in water?
a. pectin
b. gums
c. hemicellulose
d. polysaccharides
c. hemicellulose
141. An infant wants a bottle at bedtime. You should counsel the parents to:
a. give the bottle only at bedtime
b. give the bottle only if the baby insists
c. only give the milk in the bottle
d. only give water in the bottle
d. only give water in the bottle
142. A diabetic wants to exchange his bedtime snack of 8 oz whole milk. What do you suggest?
a. 1 oz cheese and 1/2 cup OJ
b. 2 graham crackers and 1/2 cup OJ
c. 1 oz cheese
d. 2 oz cheese
a. 1 oz cheese and 1/2 cup OJ
143. Which of the following may result in hypoalbuminemia?
a. amino acid supplementation prior to surgery
b. a high protein diet with inadequate water
c. providing only 5% dextrose in water solution after stress
d. giving a trauma patient enteral feeding
c. providing only 5% dextrose in water solution after stress
144. A mother with 2 daughters, ages 8 and 11, does not earn enough money to feed her family. Which program would you suggest?
a. WIC
b. Food Stamps
c. Child Care Food Program
d. Medicaid
b. Food Stamps
145. Which drink would a Mormon choose?
a. cola
b. 7-up
c. tea
d. coffee
b. 7-up
146. What section of the intestine is most likely to be involved in Crohn's disease?
a. ileum
b. jejunum
c. duodenum
d. appendix
a. ileum
147. What advice would you give to the above patients?
a. low protein, high fat, b12 supplements
b. eat small portions of a varied diet
c. high protein, low fat, low residue diet with vit b12 supplements
d. high fat, high residue diet with vit b12
c. high protein, low fat, low residue diet with vit b12 supplements
148. An infant's failure to thrive can be seen in:
a. their behavior
b. comparison with growth chart
c. weight for height
d. height for age
b. comparison with growth chart
149. Which of the following has the fewest calories?
a. plain hamburger on a bun
b. chef's salad with dressing
c. green salad with 1000 island dressing & shredded cheese
d. fried fish sandwich
a. plain hamburger on a bun
150. Which of the following indicates protein cal malnutrition?
a. a creatinine height index of 93%
b. height for weight ration of 89%
c. triceps skinfold and arm muscle circumference of 79%
d. serum albumin of 4.5; transferrin of 410
c. triceps skinfold and arm muscle circumference of 79%
151. A child with AIDS needs a high cal and ____ intake.
a. megadose
b. high protein
c. low fat
d. low residue
b. high protein
152. An appropriate measurement for iron status in a local community is:
a. serum iron
b. transferrin
c. TIBC
d. hematocrit
d. hematocrit
153. Which of the following may help decrease cavities?
a. raisins
b. carrots
c. cheese
d. yogurt
c. cheese
154. Which test helps you determine if a diabetic has been following his diet?
a. blood glucose
b. urine ketones
c. glycosylated hemoglobin
d. urine sugar
c. glycosylated hemoglobin (A1c)
155. YOu discover an incorrect diet order entered in the patient's chart. YOu should:
a. chart the order as incorrect
b. file the order because it was written by a physician
c. discuss the order with the physician and make suggestion
d. change the order i
c. discuss the order with the physician and make suggestion
156. What is the best therapy for weight los?
a. reducing 500 cal per day & exercise
b. support groups, exercise, and diet control
c. exercise, diet, behavior modifications
d. exercise and diet control
c. exercise, diet, behavior modifications
157. Which is most assoc with the incidence of type II diabetes?
a. sugar intake
b. protein intake
c. overweight
d. salt intake
c. overweight
158. According to the ADA exchange lists, what is the nutrient content of the following: 1 cup cantaloupe, 1/2 cup cereal, 1 cup 1% milk, 1 tsp margarine, 1 tsp low sugar jelly, black coffee, 1 slice toast.
a. 397 kcal, 12 g pro, 61 g cho, 6.5 g fat
b. 34
c. 365 kcal, 12 g pro, 57 g cho, 7 g fat
159. Iron status is best monitored by:
a dietary and clinical methods
b. dietary and lab studies
c. dietary studies
d. anthropometric studies
b. dietary and lab studies
160. Which bacteria may cause gastric ulcers?
a. Salmonella
b. STreptococcus aureus
c. Helicobacter pylori
d. Clostridium perfringens
c. Helicobacter pylori
161. The appropriatediettherapy following a Billroth II is:
a. high carb, low fat, high protein
b. high fat, high protein, high carb
c. decrease simple carbs, high protein, moderate to high fat, b12 supplements
d. low fat, low protein, high carb
c. decrease simple carbs, high protein, moderate to high fat, b12 supplements
162. Which of the following diseases may lead to anemia?
a. myocardial infarction
b. galactosemia
c. renal failure
d. diabetes mellitus
c. renal failure
163. To learn about prenatal problems in the community, go to:
a. Center for Disease Control
b. WIC
c. NHANES
d. FDA
b. WIC
164. Which best applies to nutritional screening?
a. JCAHO standards must be followed
b. should include nutritional parameters
c. done after nutritional problems are identified
d. only done on at risk patients
b. should include nutritional parameters
165. When using anthropometric measurements, the most important factor is:
a. competence of the practitioner and calibration
b. number of participants done at one sitting
c. that the patient be sitting
d. that they be done early in the morning
a. competence of the practitioner and calibration
166. A pork chop is which type of meat exchange?
a. high fat
b. medium fat
c. medium fat plus one fat exchange
d. lean
d. lean
167. What should most be encouraged in a Headstart program?
a. nutrition activities related to food
b. participation for at least one year
c. class instructions
d. healthy snacks
a. nutrition activities related to food
168. Medicaid benefits apply to:
a. healthy adults
b. a 60 year old female
c. those at nutritonal risk
d. low income individuals
d. low income individuals
169. The symbol U on a food label indicates:
a. it is treated with UV light
b. is treated with radiation
c. vitamin retention has been retained during processing
d. it is a kosher designation
d. it is a kosher designation
170. Congregate meals and home delivered meals fall under:
a. WIC
b. EFNEP
c. Older americans act, title III
d. Medicare
c. Older americans act, title III
171. Which is most characteristic of marasmus?
a. serum albumin of 2.5 g/dL
b. edema
c. severe fat and muscle wasting
d. decreased lymphocytes
c. severe fat and muscle wasting
172. The stasis of pancreatic juice and bile could result in:
i. autodigestion ii. fat malabsorption iii. obstructive jaundice
a. i and ii
b. i and iii
c. ii and iii
d. i, ii, and iii
d. i, ii, and iii
173 A side effect of antidepressants is:
a. chronic diarrhea
b. muscle wasting
c. excess weight gain
d. nausea and vomiting
c. excess weight gain
174. Which would you recommend to a Mexican American on a low fat diet?
a. low fat cotage cheese
b. skim milk
c. beans and rice
d. low fat yogurt
c. beans and rice
175. Hypertension will decrease with a decrease in:
a. fiber
b. alcohol
c. potassium
d. calcium
b. alcohol
176 What mecation is affected by serum sodium levels?
a. LIthium
b. Mellaril
c. Valproate
d. Tetracycline
a. LIthium
177. A child has been measured several times before the age of 2 years. Results of the measurements were not accurate because the child was measured:
a. first thing int he morning
b. standing up
c. after breakfast
d. with light clothing
b. standing up
178. Which of the following is not a government agency?
a. health and human services
b. food and drug administration
c. food and nutrition board
d. american heart association
d. american heart association
179. Low levels of folate, pyridoxine and cyanocobalamin are associated with
a. glycogen storage disease
b. homocystinurias
c. phynylketonuria
d. galactosemia
b. homocystinurias
180. A pt with low hemoglobin and low MCV might have:
a. microcytic anemia
b. macrocytic anemia
c. megaloblastic anemia
d. normochromic anemia
a. microcytic anemia
181. According to the 2008 diaet exchanges, 2T of peanut butter is considered:
a. 2 high fat meats
b. 1 high fat meat
c. 2 fats
d. 1 high fat meat plus 2 fats
a. 2 high fat meats
182. AFter a gastrectomy, the diet order should indicate a decrease in:
a. disaccharides
b. fats
c. protein
d. calories
a. disaccharides
184. Which of the following provides 60 g CHO?
a. 1 english muffin, 1 c skim milk, 1/2 c aj
b. 1 fat free granola bar, 1/2 c raisins, 1 c fruit yogurt with aspartame
c. 2 small waffles with 2 T lite syrup and 1 T pb
d. 1 four oz bagel with 2 T lite cream
a. 1 english muffin, 1 c skim milk, 1/2 c aj
185. The prader Willi syndrome is associated with:
a. hyperactivity
b. deficiency of glucose 6 phosphatase
c. macrocytic anemia
d. obesity
d. obesity
186. Which of the following is permitted on a diet restricting tyramine?
a. hard cheese like cheddar or swiss
b. uncured cheese like cottage cheese, ricotta
c. pickled or smoked foods
d. tofu
b. uncured cheese like cottage cheese, ricotta
187. What does a fecal fat of 12 g indicate?
a. severe fat malabsorption
b. normal fat absorption
c. high normal fat absorption
d. nothing
a. severe fat malabsorption
188. If a pt hs a biochemical block in the formation of urea, what will accumulate in his blood?
a. uric acid
b. ammonia
c. protein
d. glucose
b. ammonia
189. The main goal for a Type 2 obese diabetic with persistant hyperglycemia is:
a. weight loss
b. control of serum glucose levels
c. consumption of a low fat diet
d. consumption of a low protein diet
b. control of serum glucose levels
190. Who is the most appropriate candidate for TPN?
a. a 12 year old girl coming in for an appendectomy
b. a middle aged woman who will begin chemotherapy
c. an elderly lady with emphysema
d. a young man going for gallbladder surgery
b. a middle aged woman who will begin chemotherapy
191. When counseling an anorexic, the best advice is to:
a. be real strict in their food choices
b. be flexible and help them choose reasonable goals
c. provide a large variety of menu items
d. give them free rein with their intake
b. be flexible and help them choose reasonable goals
192. WIC encourages women with babies to:
a. formula feed
b. breast feed
c. feed solid foods early
d. feed a mixture of solid foods early and formula
b. breast feed
193. In reviewing the pt's medical record, you note a hemoglobin of 10g/dL and an MCV of 110 cu mm. YOu should document:
a. anemia due to intrinsic factor
b. anemia without nutritional implications
c. anemia with larger than normal erythrocytes
d. that th
c. anemia with larger than normal erythrocytes
194. For which disease would a low sodium diet be recommended?
a. ascites.
b. esphageal varices
c. pancreatitis
d. appendicitis
a. ascites.
196. A 75 year old female with adequate income would benefit from:
a. Food stamps
b. congregate meals
c. efnep
d. wic
b. congregate meals
197. Which can be included in a meal for gluten-induced enteropathy?
a. spaghetti and tomato sauce
b. cheese and crackers
c. potatoes with butter
d. oatmeal with sugar
c. potatoes with butter
198. Phytochemicals, which may influence the development of tumors, are found in:
a. fruits, vegetables, grains
b. lean poultry and fish
c. low fat dairy products
d. polyunsaturated fats
a. fruits, vegetables, grains
199. Which diet is restricted in carbohydrate?
a. reactive hypoglycemia
b. diabetes
c. PKU
d. galactosemia
a. reactive hypoglycemia
200. Compared to whole milk, breast milk is:
a. lower in protein, higher in carb and fat
b. higher in protein and fat, lower in carbs
c. lower in protein, carbs, and fat
d. has the same nutrient composition
a. lower in protein, higher in carb and fat
201. A person with dumping syndrome cannot handle:
a. complex carbs
b. polysaccharides
c. disaccharides
d. amino acids
c. disaccharides
202. What is the appropriate diet for heart failure?
a. low potassium
b. low calcium
c. low sodium
d. low fat
c. low sodium
203. How many calories are provided in 1.5 liters of D25W?
a. 1275
b. 2275
c. 1500
d. 2000
a. 1275
204. A homeless pt who is deficient in all nutrients is toe be discharged. What organization may help?
a. WIC
b. EFNEP
c. the social worker group
d. the shelter
c. the social worker group
205. Why might a child with PKU have an increased incidence of dental caries?
a. phenylalanine is not converted to tyrosine
b. the diet is high in carbs, low in protein
c. pyruvate is not converted to alanine
d. the diet is devoid of protein
b. the diet is high in carbs, low in protein
206. Trauma can place the patient in:
a. an anabolic state
b. a hypermetabolic state
c. a hypothermic state
d. a hypometabolic state
b. a hypermetabolic state
207. A pt who had an ileal resection is placed on a tube feeding and begins to have diarrhea. They may be due to:
a. use of a hypertonic formula
b. use of an isotonic forumla
c. blockage of the GI tract
d. lactose intolerant
a. use of a hypertonic formula
208. Which is restricted in a diet for a hepatic encephalopathy?
a. protein, sodium, fluid
b. protein, fluid, calories
c. calories, protein, fat
d. sodium, fat calories
a. protein, sodium, fluid
209. How many non-protein calories are provided by 2 liters of a 7% aminosyn solution and 1 liter of 10% dextrose in water?
a. 340
b. 390
c. 170
d. 255
a. 340
210. When shou;d you provide nutrition counseling to an AIDS pt?
a. when nausea and vomiting becomes a problem
b. immediately upon diagnosis
c. when diarrhea occurs
d. no counseling is needed
b. immediately upon diagnosis
211. Medicare is for:
a. the elderly
b. the financially needy
c. those at nutritional rsk
d. those with medical needs
a. the elderly
212. What best measures excess calories reserves?
a. weight
b. creatinine
c. skinfold triceps
d. arm circumference
c. skinfold triceps
213. Why may a pt with ascites be dehydrated?
a. fluid has moved to interstitial spaces
b. fluid has moved to intravascula spaces
c. fluid has moved to vascular spaces
d. fluid has moved to the lungs
a. fluid has moved to interstitial spaces
214. Which of the following is equivalent to a lean meat exchange?
a. 1/4 cup low fat cottage cheese
b. 2T grated parmesan cheese
c. 1 oz mozzarella cheese
d. 1 oz swiss cheese
a. 1/4 cup low fat cottage cheese
215. Which is a common complication of AIDS?
a. constipation
b. diarrhea
c. hypoglycemia
d. hyperkalemia
b. diarrhea
216. A post surgical pt with prolonged ileus should be treated with:
a. high fiber diet
b. enteral nutrition with added fiber
c. enteral nutrition
d. parenteral nutriton
d. parenteral nutriton
217. A common result of treating an AIDS pt with zidovudine is?
a. diarrhea
b. constipation
c. anemia
d. hypokalemia
c. anemia
218. A 140 lb female on dialysis should have how many grams of protein?
a. 38-55
b. 58-63
c. 70-89
d. 30-38
c. 70-89
219. An ovese person with type 2 diabetes should:
a. time meals
b. decrease the frequency of feedings
c. achieve dbw
d increase the frequency of feedings
c. achieve dbw
220. A tube fed pt receiving bolus feedings develops a distended abdomen. What should you recommend?
a. change the tube feeding to istonic, lactose free
b. decrease the osmolality of the feeding
c. decrease the amt of water flush
d. decrease the rate
d. decrease the rate
221. Which food is highest in fiber?
a. cooked dried beans
b. a tomato
c. wheat bread
d. lettuce
a. cooked dried beans
222. Which of the following is lowest in fat?
a. hamburger
b. salami
c. goat cheese
d. canadian bacon
d. canadian bacon
223. Which is true with osteoporosis?
a. it is more common in men than women
b. it is treated with 500 mg calcium per day
c. it is common in those 65 years of age and older
d. weight bearing exercise exacerbates the problem
c. it is common in those 65 years of age and older
224. Open tube feeding should be disposed of after:
a. 48 hrs
b. 24 hrs.
c. 6 hrs
d. 3 hrs
b. 24 hrs.
225. What is a guide for calculating water needs with tube feedings?
a. 1 ccwater/0.5 kcals
b. 1 cc water/1.0 cals
c. 1 cc water/2.0 cals
d. 1 cc water/3.0 cals
b. 1 cc water/1.0 cals
226. Following a colectomy, the absorption of which of the following would be most concern?
a. vitamins d & e
b. water and sodium
c. B vits
d. Vit c
b. water and sodium
227. According to the diabetic exchange lists, which of the following is equiv to a one medium fat meat exchange?
a. 1/2 c tofu
b. 2 oz spareribs
c. 1 oz roast lamb
d. 1 oz canned salmon
a. 1/2 c tofu
228. A long term care pt has normal intestinal function but cannot eat. what tube feeding should you provide?
a. high protein, high cal formula
b. isotonic lactose free formula
c. elemental formula
d. low fiber, low fat formula
b. isotonic lactose free formula
229. Which food should someone on an MAOI not eat?
a. cottage cheese
b. herbal tea
c. pepperoni
d. butter
c. pepperoni
230. If you have a lactose intolerance, which food could you most likely handle?
a. whole milk
b. skim milk
c. ice cream
d. yogurt
d. yogurt
231. The normal range for hemoglobin a1c is:
a. 1-2%
b. 4-6%
c. 10-12 %
d. 35-40%
b. 4-6%
232. If a db pt reduces his calorie intake from 2300 to 1800 calories per day, how much will he lose in one month?
a. 4 lbs
b. 6 lbs
c. 2 lbs
d. 8 lbs.
a. 4 lbs
233. A spastic quadriplegic requires:
i lower energy intake ii. increased fluid and fiber intake iii. an acid ash diet
a. i
b. i, ii
c. ii, iii
d. i, iii
b. i, ii
234. An athlete complains of weakness, rapid weight gain and muscle spasms. What may be the cause?
a. lack of adequate rest
b. too much exercise
c. carb loading
d. not enough iron
c. carb loading
235. Who is most at risk from protein calorie malnutrition?
a. a cancer patient on chemo
b. a patient with gastric ulcers
c. a pt with crohn's diesease
d. a pt with megaloblastic anemia
a. a cancer patient on chemo
236. Pts with decubitus ulcers will likely demonstrate low:
a. serum sodium
b. serum albumin
c. serum potassium
d. serum glucose
b. serum albumin
237. NHANES III increased the number of participants in which age group?
a. infants & children
b. the elderly
c. adolescents
d. pregnant women and infants
b. the elderly
238. Which type of anemia is likely to be seen in a pt with arthritis?
a. microcytic, hypochromic
b. anemia secondary to chronic disease
c. macrocytic
d. megaloblastic
b. anemia secondary to chronic disease
239. A TPN solution is to be delivered at 50 ml/hr at 3/4 strength. What is the appropriate order?
a. 900 ml formula, 300 ml water
b. 600 ml formula, 600 ml water
c. 800 ml formula, 400 ml water
d. 300 ml formula, 900 ml water
a. 900 ml formula, 300 ml water
240. Determine the calorie contribution of carb from the following parenteral formula. The amts stated are given per liter.
300 ml 60% dextrose; 500 ml 10% aa; 200 ml 20% lipid; total nutrient mixture administered at 64 ml/hr for 24 hrs.
a. 393 kcals per
c. 955 kcals per day
241. Using the above formula, determine the calories coming from lipids per day.
300 ml 60% dextrose; 500 ml 10% aa; 200 ml 20% lipid; total nutrient mixture administered at 64 ml/hr for 24 hrs.
a. 519
b. 561
c. 577
d. 624
d. 624
242. Using the above forumla, determine the protein intake per day in grams.
300 ml 60% dextrose; 500 ml 10% aa; 200 ml 20% lipid; total nutrient mixture administered at 64 ml/hr for 24 hrs.
a. 78
b. 80
c. 84
d. 86
a. 78
243. How much free water is in 1.5 liters of an enteral feeding that has 1.5 kcals per cc?
a. 1155 cc
b. 1057 cc
c. 926 cc
d. 901 cc
a. 1155 cc
244. A pt receives 4 oz whole milk and 6 graham crackers as a snack. Which of the foloowing substitutes would lower the glycemic index?
a. skim milk in place of whole milk
b. fruit juice in place of whole milk
c. 12 saltines in place of 6 graham crackers
d. 1 T pb in place of 3 graham crackers
245. Which will cause the most delay in gastric emptying?
a. lean baked meat
b. broiled cod
c. shrimp
d. corned beef
d. corned beef
246. If a pt's GFR is < 50 ml/minute, what should their protein intake be in g/KG?
a. .8-1.0
b. .6-.8
c. .55-.6
d. .2-.4
a. .8-1.0
247. A 2 yr old child wiht iron deficiency anemia has anorexia, vomiting, weight loss & restlessness. Look for:
a. excessive milk and ruit juice intake
b. excessive vit c and d intake
c. asthma and resp distress
d. pica and lead poisoning
d. pica and lead poisoning
248. Mr. Jones has heart failure but no CAD or increased CHD risk. HIs diet should be:
a. 2 gm sodium
b. 2 grm sodium
c. low chol, low sodium
d. low chol. low sat fat, low sodium
a. 2 gm sodium
249. Creatine supplements may be beneficial for the:
a. body builder
b. martahon runner
c. soccer player
d. hockey player
a. body builder
250. Acidic chyme in the duodenum is neutralized by pancreatic:
a. lipase
b. bicarbonate
c. amylase
d. protease
b. bicarbonate
251. Milk is packaged in opaque containers to avoid UV destruction of:
a. thiamin
b. riboflavin
c. niacin
d. ascorbic acid
b. riboflavin
252. Which program teaches good nutrition practices and provides foods with certain nutrients?
a. EFNEP
b. NET
c. WIC
d. MCP
c. WIC
253. A PN pt is receiving 45 kcals/KG. What may be the result?
a. hypocalcemia
b. hyperkalemia
c. hypokalemia
d. hyperphosphatemia
c. hypokalemia
254. A tube fed pt develops diarrhea. What is the most likely cause?
a. medications
b. the osmolality is too low
c. the strength is too weak
d. it is being given at an improper rate
a. medications
255. You are assessing a 4'11" female pt who weights 160 lbs. She has hypertension, high chol, and diabetes. What do you recommend?
a. low sodium
b. low carb
c. low cal
d. low fat
c. low cal
256. a pt with liver disease needs adjustments in the intake of:
a. protein, fat and sodium
b. protein, fluids, sodium
c. protein, cal, sodium
d. fluids, cal fat
b. protein, fluids, sodium
257. The data that is most useful in evaluating children is:
a. sex and age
b. iron and vit intake
c. energy intake and health history
d. height and weight
c. energy intake and health history
258. Which survey is conducted every 10 years?
a. the USDA food consumption survey
b. HANES
c. ten stae nutrition survey
d. preschool children study
a. the USDA food consumption survey
259. Goals for the community nutrition program should be based on:
a. the dietary guidelines for americans
b. the nutrition screening initiative
c. the health people report
d. the NHANES III report
a. the dietary guidelines for americans
260. The essential amino acid tryptophan is most closely related to:
a folic acid
b. riboflavin
c. niacin
d. pantothenic acid
c. niacin
261. Memory loss may be associated with a deficiency of:
a. riboflavin
b. thiamin
c. protein
d. electrolytes
b. thiamin
262. Which of the following would lower serum cholesterol levels?
a. dried beans
b. green beans
c. yellow beans
d. summer squash
a. dried beans
263. In a TPN mixture, what volume of the aa solutions listed would come closest to providing 185 calories?
a. 1000 ml of 8.5% aa
b. 850 ml of 5.5% aa
c. 500 ml of 7.0% aa
d. 500 ml of 10% a
b. 850 ml of 5.5% aa
264. Enteral feeding products that contain protein in the form of small peptides and amino acids are recommended for pts who have:
a. short bowel syndrome
b. undergone gastrectomy
c. undergone colectomy
d. undedrgone jejunostomy
a. short bowel syndrome
266. A renal pt has come for dialysis on monday morning with a serum sodium of 130 mEq/L, a BUN of 100 mg/dL, creatinine 8.0, and a 4 kg weight gain since his last dialysis on friday morning. his lab indicators were in acceptable ranges on fiday afternoon
c. consumed too much sodium, too much water, to much protein