1. CAS is IAS corrected for:
a. Position and instrument error
b. Instrument, pressure, and density error
c. Relative density only
d. Compressibility
a. Position and instrument error
2. With an almost discharged battery there will be:
a. A decrease of voltage with increasing load
b. Increase of current with decrease of voltage
c. Decrease of current with increasing load
d. Increase of voltage with increasing load
a. A decrease of voltage with increasing load
3. At what height is it mandatory for one flight crew deck to wear an oxygen mask?
a. 25,000ft
b. 32,000ft
c. 37,000ft
d. 41,000ft
d. 41,000ft
4. When would the negative differential limits be reached/exceeded?
a. Rapid descent when AC descends below cabin altitude
b. During ground pressure testing
c. Rapid ascent when aircraft climbs
d. When changing to manual operation
a. Rapid descent when AC descends below cabin altitude
5. Maximum Differential pressure:
a. Is the maximum authorized pressure difference between the inside of the fuselage and the atmospheric ambient pressure
b. Is the absolute pressure provided by the vacuum pump
c. Is the pressure loss over a given time li
a. Is the maximum authorized pressure difference between the inside of the fuselage and the atmospheric ambient pressure
6. Cabin altitude in pressured flight is:
a. The altitude corresponding to cabin pressure regardless of aircraft height
b. Is presented on a second needle on the aircraft altimeter
c. Altitude at which cabin pressure equals ambient pressure
d. Altitude co
a. The altitude corresponding to cabin pressure regardless of aircraft height
7. With a gas turbine engine, engine anti-icing should be selected 'ON':
a. Whenever the igniters are on
b. Whenever the IOAT is +10�C or below and the air contains visible moisture
c. Whenever the TOAT is +10�C or below and it is raining
d. Whenever the
b. Whenever the IOAT is +10�C or below and the air contains visible moisture
8. Which of the following instruments require inputs of both pitot and static pressure?
a. Airspeed indicator, machmeter and vertical speed indicator
b. Airspeed indicator, vertical speed indicator, altimeter
c. Airspeed indicator only
d. Airspeed indicat
d. Airspeed indicator and machmeter
9. When smoke appears in the cockpit, after donning the oxygen mask the pilot should select:
a. Normal
b. 100%
c. Diluter
d. Emergency
d. Emergency
10. When is spark plug fouling most likely to occur?
a. In the climb if you have not adjusted the mixture
b. Cruise power
c. In the descent if you have not adjusted the mixture
d. Max take-off power
a. In the climb if you have not adjusted the mixture
11. If a CSD overheat warning is shown:
a. The CSD can be disconnected and the pilot must control the alternator himself
b. The pilot must throttle back to reduce the load on the alternator
c. The CSD can be disconnected then reconnected later when the te
d. The CSD can be disconnected but not used for the rest of the flight
12. When does the engine High Pressure fuel shut off valve close?
a. After a booster pump failure
b. When the engine fuel switch is selected 'ON' during engine start
c. When flight idle is selected
d. When the engine fuel switch is selected 'OFF' during e
d. When the engine fuel switch is selected 'OFF' during engine shut-down
13. The LED indicator on the emergency torch is flashing at 4 seconds intervals. This indicates:
a. The battery is charging
b. The torch is serviceable
c. The battery needs replacing
d. The filament is broken
b. The torch is serviceable
14. A shuttle valve will:
a. Allow the accumulator to be emptied after engine shut down
b. Reduce pump loading when normal system pressure is reached
c. Automatically switched to a more appropriate source of hydraulic supply
d. Operate on a rising pressur
c. Automatically switched to a more appropriate source of hydraulic supply
15. What is the purpose of inboard ailerons?
a. To reduce wing bending at high speed
b. To reduce wing twisting at low speed
c. To reduce wing bending at low speed
d. To reduce wing twist at high speed
d. To reduce wing twist at high speed
16. In what range is GPWS operative?
a. 2450 - 0 ft
b. 3000 - 50 ft
c. 2450 - 50 ft
d. 3000 - 0 ft
c. 2450 - 50 ft
17. A nose wheel control system
a. Prevents the nosewheel from castering at all times
b. Allows the nosewheel to caster within preset limits about the neutral position
c. Allows the nosewheel to caster freely at all times
d. Prevents the nose gear from lo
b. Allows the nosewheel to caster within preset limits about the neutral position
18. At an aircraft taxiing speed of 10mph, the anti-skid braking system is:
a. Inoperative
b. Operative
c. Operative only on the nosewheel brakes
d. Operative only on the main wheel brakes
a. Inoperative
19. A pressure head is subject to the following errors:
a. Position, manoeuvre induced, temperature
b. Position, manoeuvre induced
c. Position, manoeuvre induced, density
d. Position, manoeuvre induced, instrument
d. Position, manoeuvre induced, instrument
20. Total Air Temperature is:
a. The maximum temperature attainable by the air when brought to rest, adiabatically
b. The temperature indicated on the air temperature thermometer plus the ram rise
c. The static air temperature minus the recovery factor
d.
a. The maximum temperature attainable by the air when brought to rest, adiabatically
21. When entering a steep turn, an IVSI is likely to show:
a. No change in altitude
b. A slight climb
c. A slight descent
d. A slight descent at high airspeed only
b. A slight climb
22. An aircraft is flying at constant indicated altitude over a warm airmass. The altimeter reading will be:
a. Correct
b. Greater than the real altitude
c. Less than the real altitude
d. Oscillating around the correct altitude
c. Less than the real altitude
23. An aircraft is travelling at 120 kts, what angle of bank would be required for a rate 1(one) turn?
a. 30�
b. 12�
c. 18�
d. 35�
c. 18�
24. An aircraft is travelling at 100kts forward speed on a 3� glidescope. What is its rate of descent?
a. 500 ft/min
b. 300 ft/min
c. 250 ft/min
d. 600 ft/min
a. 500 ft/min
25. You are flying at a constant FL 290 and a constant mach number. The total temperature increases by 5�. The CAS will:
a. Remain approximately constant
b. Increase by 10 kts
c. Decrease by 10 kts
d. Will increase or decrease depending on whether you are
a. Remain approximately constant
26. . With air in the hydraulic system, you would:
a. Ignore it because normal operation would remove it
b. Bleed the air out of the system
c. Allow the accumulator to automatically adjust itself
d. Expect it to operate faster
b. Bleed the air out of the system
27. A hand pump is usually fitted:
a. For ground servicing purposes
b. Lowering the landing gear in an emergency
c. Pressurising the oleo struts in the air
d. Retracting the gear after take-off
a. For ground servicing purposes
28. What controls cabin pressurisation?
a. ECS pack mass flow controller
b. Outflow valve
c. Engine bleed valve
d. Inflow valve
b. Outflow valve
29. At what height is it mandatory for one flight crew deck to wear an oxygen mask?
a. 25,000ft
b. 32,000ft
c. 37,000ft
d. 41,000ft
d. 41,000ft
30. The EGT indication on a piston engine is used:
a. To control the cooling air shutters
b. To monitor the oil temperature
c. To assist the pilot to adjust the fuel mixture
d. To indicate cylinder head temperature
c. To assist the pilot to adjust the fuel mixture
31. The magnetic heading reference unit has a precision rate of:
a. 1�/min
b. 2�/min
c. 5�/min
d. 3�/min
b. 2�/min
32. How do you control power in a jet engine?
a. By controlling the mixture ratio
b. By controlling the fuel flow
c. By controlling the airflow
d. By controlling the bleed valves
b. By controlling the fuel flow
33. What type of autoland system would be required for the landing to continue following a single failure below alert height?
a. Fail soft
b. Fail passive
c. Fail operational or fail active
d. Land 2 system
c. Fail operational or fail active
34. If cabin pressure is decreasing, the cabin VSI will indicate:
a. Zero
b. Climb
c. Descent
d. Reducing pressure
b. Climb
35. The purpose of an accumulator is to:
a. Relieve excess pressure
b. Store fluid under pressure
c. Store compressed gas for tyre inflation
d. Remove air from the system
b. Store fluid under pressure
36. How much fuel can be jettisoned?
a. A specific amount
b. The captain decides
c. All
d. A specified amount must remain
d. A specified amount must remain
37. What do three green lights represent when the landing gear is selected down?
a. The gear is down
b. The gear is down and locked
c. The gear and doors are down and locked
d. The gear is travelling between up and down
b. The gear is down and locked
38. The most likely cause of brake fade is:
a. Oil or grease on the brake drums
b. Worn stators
c. The pilot reducing the brake pressure
d. The brake pads overheating
d. The brake pads overheating
39. A cylinder head temperature gauge measures:
a. The temperature of the hottest cylinder
b. The temperature of all the cylinders and gives an average reading
c. The temperature of the coolest cylinder
d. The temperature of the two cylinders furthest awa
a. The temperature of the hottest cylinder
40. The excess cabin altitude alerting system must operate to warn the crew at:
a. 8,000ft
b. 10,000ft
c. 13,000ft
d. 14,000ft
b. 10,000ft
1. Upon landing, spoilers
A. decrease directional stability on the landing rollout.
B. function by increasing tire to ground friction.
C. should be extended after the thrust reversers have been deployed.
B. function by increasing tire to ground friction.
2. Approaching the runway 1� below glidepath can add how many feet to the landing distance?
A. 250 feet.
B. 500 feet.
C. 1,000 feet.
B. 500 feet.
3. Arriving over the runway 10 knots over VREF would add approximately how many feet to the dry landing distance?
A. 800 feet.
B. 1,700 feet.
C. 2,800 feet.
C. 2,800 feet.
4. One typical takeoff error is
A. delayed rotation which may extend the climb distance.
B. premature rotation which may increase takeoff distance.
C. extended rotation which may degrade acceleration.
B. premature rotation which may increase takeoff distance.
5. Excessive takeoff speeds may result in approximately a
A. 4% takeoff distance increase for each 1% of additional takeoff speed.
B. 1% takeoff distance increase for each 2% of additional takeoff speed.
C. 2% takeoff distance increase for each 1% of addi
C. 2% takeoff distance increase for each 1% of additional takeoff speed.
6. Under normal operating conditions, which combination of MAP and RPM produce the most severe wear, fatigue, and damage to high performance reciprocating engines?
A. High RPM and low MAP.
B. Low RPM and high MAP.
C. High RPM and high MAP.
A. High RPM and low MAP.
7. What criteria determines which engine is the "critical" engine of a twin-engine airplane?
A. The one with the center of thrust closest to the centerline of the fuselage.
B. The one designated by the manufacturer because it develops most usable thrust.
A. The one with the center of thrust closest to the centerline of the fuselage.
8. In a light, twin-engine airplane with one engine inoperative, when is it acceptable to allow the ball of a slip-skid indicator to be deflected outside the reference lines?
A. When practicing imminent stalls in a banked attitude of over 60�.
B. While ma
C. When operating at any airspeed of VMC or greater with only enough deflection to zero the side slip.
9. Which condition has the effect of reducing critical engine failure speed?
A. Slush on the runway or inoperative antiskid.
B. Low gross weight.
C. High density altitude.
A. Slush on the runway or inoperative antiskid.
10. Which part(s) in the turbojet engine is subjected to the high temperatures and severe centrifugal forces?
A. Turbine wheel(s).
B. Turbine vanes.
C. Compressor rotor(s) or impeller(s).
A. Turbine wheel(s).
11. Which place in the turbojet engine is subjected to the highest temperature?
A. Compressor discharge.
B. Fuel spray nozzles.
C. Turbine inlet.
C. Turbine inlet.
12. The most important restriction to the operation of turbojet or turboprop engines is
A. limiting compressor speed.
B. limiting exhaust gas temperature.
C. limiting torque.
B. limiting exhaust gas temperature.
13. What characterizes a transient compressor stall?
A. Loud, steady roar accompanied by heavy shuddering.
B. Sudden loss of thrust accompanied by a loud whine.
C. Intermittent "bang," as backfires and flow reversals take place.
C. Intermittent "bang," as backfires and flow reversals take place.
14. What indicates that a compressor stall has developed and become steady?
A. Strong vibrations and loud roar.
B. Occasional loud "bang" and flow reversal.
C. Complete loss of power with severe reduction in airspeed.
A. Strong vibrations and loud roar.
15. Which type of compressor stall has the greatest potential for severe engine damage?
A. Intermittent "backfire" stall.
B. Transient "backfire" stall.
C. Steady, continuous flow reversal stall.
C. Steady, continuous flow reversal stall.
16. What recovery would be appropriate in the event of compressor stall?
A. Reduce the throttle and then rapidly advance the throttle to decrease the angle of attack on the compressor blades, creating more airflow.
B. Reduce the throttle and then slowly a
B. Reduce the throttle and then slowly advance the throttle again and decrease the aircraft's angle of attack.
17. How should thrust reversers be applied to reduce landing distance for turbojet aircraft?
A. Immediately after ground contact.
B. Immediately prior to touchdown.
C. After applying maximum wheel braking.
A. Immediately after ground contact.
18. How should reverse thrust propellers be used during landing for maximum effectiveness in stopping?
A. Gradually increase reverse power to maximum as rollout speed decreases.
B. Use maximum reverse power as soon as possible after touchdown.
C. Select r
B. Use maximum reverse power as soon as possible after touchdown.
19. A definition of the term "viscous hydroplaning" is where
A. the airplane rides on standing water.
B. a film of moisture covers the painted or rubber-coated portion of the runway.
C. the tires of the airplane are actually riding on a mixture of steam a
B. a film of moisture covers the painted or rubber-coated portion of the runway.
20. Compared to dynamic hydroplaning, at what speed does viscous hydroplaning occur when landing on a smooth, wet runway?
A. At approximately 2.0 times the speed that dynamic hydroplaning occurs.
B. At a lower speed than dynamic hydroplaning.
C. At the sa
B. At a lower speed than dynamic hydroplaning.
21. What effect, if any, will landing at a higher-than-recommended touchdown speed have on hydroplaning?
A. No effect on hydroplaning, but increases landing roll.
B. Reduces hydroplaning potential if heavy braking is applied.
C. Increases hydroplaning pot
C. Increases hydroplaning potential regardless of braking.
1. CAS is IAS corrected for:
a. Position and instrument error
b. Instrument, pressure, and density error
c. Relative density only
d. Compressibility
a. Position and instrument error
2. With an almost discharged battery there will be:
a. A decrease of voltage with increasing load
b. Increase of current with decrease of voltage
c. Decrease of current with increasing load
d. Increase of voltage with increasing load
a. A decrease of voltage with increasing load
3. At what height is it mandatory for one flight crew deck to wear an oxygen mask?
a. 25,000ft
b. 32,000ft
c. 37,000ft
d. 41,000ft
d. 41,000ft
4. When would the negative differential limits be reached/exceeded?
a. Rapid descent when AC descends below cabin altitude
b. During ground pressure testing
c. Rapid ascent when aircraft climbs
d. When changing to manual operation
a. Rapid descent when AC descends below cabin altitude
5. Maximum Differential pressure:
a. Is the maximum authorized pressure difference between the inside of the fuselage and the atmospheric ambient pressure
b. Is the absolute pressure provided by the vacuum pump
c. Is the pressure loss over a given time li
a. Is the maximum authorized pressure difference between the inside of the fuselage and the atmospheric ambient pressure
6. Cabin altitude in pressured flight is:
a. The altitude corresponding to cabin pressure regardless of aircraft height
b. Is presented on a second needle on the aircraft altimeter
c. Altitude at which cabin pressure equals ambient pressure
d. Altitude co
a. The altitude corresponding to cabin pressure regardless of aircraft height
7. With a gas turbine engine, engine anti-icing should be selected 'ON':
a. Whenever the igniters are on
b. Whenever the IOAT is +10�C or below and the air contains visible moisture
c. Whenever the TOAT is +10�C or below and it is raining
d. Whenever the
b. Whenever the IOAT is +10�C or below and the air contains visible moisture
8. Which of the following instruments require inputs of both pitot and static pressure?
a. Airspeed indicator, machmeter and vertical speed indicator
b. Airspeed indicator, vertical speed indicator, altimeter
c. Airspeed indicator only
d. Airspeed indicat
d. Airspeed indicator and machmeter
9. When smoke appears in the cockpit, after donning the oxygen mask the pilot should select:
a. Normal
b. 100%
c. Diluter
d. Emergency
d. Emergency
10. When is spark plug fouling most likely to occur?
a. In the climb if you have not adjusted the mixture
b. Cruise power
c. In the descent if you have not adjusted the mixture
d. Max take-off power
a. In the climb if you have not adjusted the mixture
11. If a CSD overheat warning is shown:
a. The CSD can be disconnected and the pilot must control the alternator himself
b. The pilot must throttle back to reduce the load on the alternator
c. The CSD can be disconnected then reconnected later when the te
d. The CSD can be disconnected but not used for the rest of the flight
12. When does the engine High Pressure fuel shut off valve close?
a. After a booster pump failure
b. When the engine fuel switch is selected 'ON' during engine start
c. When flight idle is selected
d. When the engine fuel switch is selected 'OFF' during e
d. When the engine fuel switch is selected 'OFF' during engine shut-down
13. The LED indicator on the emergency torch is flashing at 4 seconds intervals. This indicates:
a. The battery is charging
b. The torch is serviceable
c. The battery needs replacing
d. The filament is broken
b. The torch is serviceable
14. A shuttle valve will:
a. Allow the accumulator to be emptied after engine shut down
b. Reduce pump loading when normal system pressure is reached
c. Automatically switched to a more appropriate source of hydraulic supply
d. Operate on a rising pressur
c. Automatically switched to a more appropriate source of hydraulic supply
15. What is the purpose of inboard ailerons?
a. To reduce wing bending at high speed
b. To reduce wing twisting at low speed
c. To reduce wing bending at low speed
d. To reduce wing twist at high speed
d. To reduce wing twist at high speed
16. In what range is GPWS operative?
a. 2450 - 0 ft
b. 3000 - 50 ft
c. 2450 - 50 ft
d. 3000 - 0 ft
c. 2450 - 50 ft
17. A nose wheel control system
a. Prevents the nosewheel from castering at all times
b. Allows the nosewheel to caster within preset limits about the neutral position
c. Allows the nosewheel to caster freely at all times
d. Prevents the nose gear from lo
b. Allows the nosewheel to caster within preset limits about the neutral position
18. At an aircraft taxiing speed of 10mph, the anti-skid braking system is:
a. Inoperative
b. Operative
c. Operative only on the nosewheel brakes
d. Operative only on the main wheel brakes
a. Inoperative
19. A pressure head is subject to the following errors:
a. Position, manoeuvre induced, temperature
b. Position, manoeuvre induced
c. Position, manoeuvre induced, density
d. Position, manoeuvre induced, instrument
d. Position, manoeuvre induced, instrument
20. Total Air Temperature is:
a. The maximum temperature attainable by the air when brought to rest, adiabatically
b. The temperature indicated on the air temperature thermometer plus the ram rise
c. The static air temperature minus the recovery factor
d.
a. The maximum temperature attainable by the air when brought to rest, adiabatically
21. When entering a steep turn, an IVSI is likely to show:
a. No change in altitude
b. A slight climb
c. A slight descent
d. A slight descent at high airspeed only
b. A slight climb
22. An aircraft is flying at constant indicated altitude over a warm airmass. The altimeter reading will be:
a. Correct
b. Greater than the real altitude
c. Less than the real altitude
d. Oscillating around the correct altitude
c. Less than the real altitude
23. An aircraft is travelling at 120 kts, what angle of bank would be required for a rate 1(one) turn?
a. 30�
b. 12�
c. 18�
d. 35�
c. 18�
24. An aircraft is travelling at 100kts forward speed on a 3� glidescope. What is its rate of descent?
a. 500 ft/min
b. 300 ft/min
c. 250 ft/min
d. 600 ft/min
a. 500 ft/min
25. You are flying at a constant FL 290 and a constant mach number. The total temperature increases by 5�. The CAS will:
a. Remain approximately constant
b. Increase by 10 kts
c. Decrease by 10 kts
d. Will increase or decrease depending on whether you are
a. Remain approximately constant
26. . With air in the hydraulic system, you would:
a. Ignore it because normal operation would remove it
b. Bleed the air out of the system
c. Allow the accumulator to automatically adjust itself
d. Expect it to operate faster
b. Bleed the air out of the system
27. A hand pump is usually fitted:
a. For ground servicing purposes
b. Lowering the landing gear in an emergency
c. Pressurising the oleo struts in the air
d. Retracting the gear after take-off
a. For ground servicing purposes
28. What controls cabin pressurisation?
a. ECS pack mass flow controller
b. Outflow valve
c. Engine bleed valve
d. Inflow valve
b. Outflow valve
29. At what height is it mandatory for one flight crew deck to wear an oxygen mask?
a. 25,000ft
b. 32,000ft
c. 37,000ft
d. 41,000ft
d. 41,000ft
30. The EGT indication on a piston engine is used:
a. To control the cooling air shutters
b. To monitor the oil temperature
c. To assist the pilot to adjust the fuel mixture
d. To indicate cylinder head temperature
c. To assist the pilot to adjust the fuel mixture
31. The magnetic heading reference unit has a precision rate of:
a. 1�/min
b. 2�/min
c. 5�/min
d. 3�/min
b. 2�/min
32. How do you control power in a jet engine?
a. By controlling the mixture ratio
b. By controlling the fuel flow
c. By controlling the airflow
d. By controlling the bleed valves
b. By controlling the fuel flow
33. What type of autoland system would be required for the landing to continue following a single failure below alert height?
a. Fail soft
b. Fail passive
c. Fail operational or fail active
d. Land 2 system
c. Fail operational or fail active
34. If cabin pressure is decreasing, the cabin VSI will indicate:
a. Zero
b. Climb
c. Descent
d. Reducing pressure
b. Climb
35. The purpose of an accumulator is to:
a. Relieve excess pressure
b. Store fluid under pressure
c. Store compressed gas for tyre inflation
d. Remove air from the system
b. Store fluid under pressure
36. How much fuel can be jettisoned?
a. A specific amount
b. The captain decides
c. All
d. A specified amount must remain
d. A specified amount must remain
37. What do three green lights represent when the landing gear is selected down?
a. The gear is down
b. The gear is down and locked
c. The gear and doors are down and locked
d. The gear is travelling between up and down
b. The gear is down and locked
38. The most likely cause of brake fade is:
a. Oil or grease on the brake drums
b. Worn stators
c. The pilot reducing the brake pressure
d. The brake pads overheating
d. The brake pads overheating
39. A cylinder head temperature gauge measures:
a. The temperature of the hottest cylinder
b. The temperature of all the cylinders and gives an average reading
c. The temperature of the coolest cylinder
d. The temperature of the two cylinders furthest awa
a. The temperature of the hottest cylinder
40. The excess cabin altitude alerting system must operate to warn the crew at:
a. 8,000ft
b. 10,000ft
c. 13,000ft
d. 14,000ft
b. 10,000ft
1. Upon landing, spoilers
A. decrease directional stability on the landing rollout.
B. function by increasing tire to ground friction.
C. should be extended after the thrust reversers have been deployed.
B. function by increasing tire to ground friction.
2. Approaching the runway 1� below glidepath can add how many feet to the landing distance?
A. 250 feet.
B. 500 feet.
C. 1,000 feet.
B. 500 feet.
3. Arriving over the runway 10 knots over VREF would add approximately how many feet to the dry landing distance?
A. 800 feet.
B. 1,700 feet.
C. 2,800 feet.
C. 2,800 feet.
4. One typical takeoff error is
A. delayed rotation which may extend the climb distance.
B. premature rotation which may increase takeoff distance.
C. extended rotation which may degrade acceleration.
B. premature rotation which may increase takeoff distance.
5. Excessive takeoff speeds may result in approximately a
A. 4% takeoff distance increase for each 1% of additional takeoff speed.
B. 1% takeoff distance increase for each 2% of additional takeoff speed.
C. 2% takeoff distance increase for each 1% of addi
C. 2% takeoff distance increase for each 1% of additional takeoff speed.
6. Under normal operating conditions, which combination of MAP and RPM produce the most severe wear, fatigue, and damage to high performance reciprocating engines?
A. High RPM and low MAP.
B. Low RPM and high MAP.
C. High RPM and high MAP.
A. High RPM and low MAP.
7. What criteria determines which engine is the "critical" engine of a twin-engine airplane?
A. The one with the center of thrust closest to the centerline of the fuselage.
B. The one designated by the manufacturer because it develops most usable thrust.
A. The one with the center of thrust closest to the centerline of the fuselage.
8. In a light, twin-engine airplane with one engine inoperative, when is it acceptable to allow the ball of a slip-skid indicator to be deflected outside the reference lines?
A. When practicing imminent stalls in a banked attitude of over 60�.
B. While ma
C. When operating at any airspeed of VMC or greater with only enough deflection to zero the side slip.
9. Which condition has the effect of reducing critical engine failure speed?
A. Slush on the runway or inoperative antiskid.
B. Low gross weight.
C. High density altitude.
A. Slush on the runway or inoperative antiskid.
10. Which part(s) in the turbojet engine is subjected to the high temperatures and severe centrifugal forces?
A. Turbine wheel(s).
B. Turbine vanes.
C. Compressor rotor(s) or impeller(s).
A. Turbine wheel(s).
11. Which place in the turbojet engine is subjected to the highest temperature?
A. Compressor discharge.
B. Fuel spray nozzles.
C. Turbine inlet.
C. Turbine inlet.
12. The most important restriction to the operation of turbojet or turboprop engines is
A. limiting compressor speed.
B. limiting exhaust gas temperature.
C. limiting torque.
B. limiting exhaust gas temperature.
13. What characterizes a transient compressor stall?
A. Loud, steady roar accompanied by heavy shuddering.
B. Sudden loss of thrust accompanied by a loud whine.
C. Intermittent "bang," as backfires and flow reversals take place.
C. Intermittent "bang," as backfires and flow reversals take place.
14. What indicates that a compressor stall has developed and become steady?
A. Strong vibrations and loud roar.
B. Occasional loud "bang" and flow reversal.
C. Complete loss of power with severe reduction in airspeed.
A. Strong vibrations and loud roar.
15. Which type of compressor stall has the greatest potential for severe engine damage?
A. Intermittent "backfire" stall.
B. Transient "backfire" stall.
C. Steady, continuous flow reversal stall.
C. Steady, continuous flow reversal stall.
16. What recovery would be appropriate in the event of compressor stall?
A. Reduce the throttle and then rapidly advance the throttle to decrease the angle of attack on the compressor blades, creating more airflow.
B. Reduce the throttle and then slowly a
B. Reduce the throttle and then slowly advance the throttle again and decrease the aircraft's angle of attack.
17. How should thrust reversers be applied to reduce landing distance for turbojet aircraft?
A. Immediately after ground contact.
B. Immediately prior to touchdown.
C. After applying maximum wheel braking.
A. Immediately after ground contact.
18. How should reverse thrust propellers be used during landing for maximum effectiveness in stopping?
A. Gradually increase reverse power to maximum as rollout speed decreases.
B. Use maximum reverse power as soon as possible after touchdown.
C. Select r
B. Use maximum reverse power as soon as possible after touchdown.
19. A definition of the term "viscous hydroplaning" is where
A. the airplane rides on standing water.
B. a film of moisture covers the painted or rubber-coated portion of the runway.
C. the tires of the airplane are actually riding on a mixture of steam a
B. a film of moisture covers the painted or rubber-coated portion of the runway.
20. Compared to dynamic hydroplaning, at what speed does viscous hydroplaning occur when landing on a smooth, wet runway?
A. At approximately 2.0 times the speed that dynamic hydroplaning occurs.
B. At a lower speed than dynamic hydroplaning.
C. At the sa
B. At a lower speed than dynamic hydroplaning.
21. What effect, if any, will landing at a higher-than-recommended touchdown speed have on hydroplaning?
A. No effect on hydroplaning, but increases landing roll.
B. Reduces hydroplaning potential if heavy braking is applied.
C. Increases hydroplaning pot
C. Increases hydroplaning potential regardless of braking.