Pathogenesis is?
A sequence of events that lead to or underlines a disease
Which of the following tissues breaks down fastest after dealth?
Retina
The first step in performing a necropsy should be to?
Review the signalment and history
In order to remove the tongue, larynx and associated structures which bone must be cut?
Hyoid bones
You are extracting tissue samples for possible virus isolations, ideal specimens for this purpose should come from all of the following except?
Muscle
Which of the following chambers of the heart should be opened first?
Right auricle
Ruminant are necropsied with their body in which position?
Left lateral recumbent
Which of the following joints is the the most difficult to access in the necropsy of the horse?
Coffin
Which of the following animals should be rinsed in warm soapy water before starting the necropsy?
A bird suspected of having psittacosis
The advantage of freezing a body prior to the necropsy is that it?
Has no advantage and is contraindicated
When fixing tissues for histopathologic examination, what should be the ratio between the volume of the tissue and the fixative
1:10
Which of the following fixative is used when preserving whole brains for histopathologic examination?
50% formalin
Which of the following techniques should be used when performing a necropsy on very small birds?
After opening body cabities, fix the entire carcass
You are performing necropsy on a cat and need to inflate the lungs to achieve fine fixation. Which of the following substances will you use for this?
Formalin
Which of the following is the most common fixative used in histopathologic examination?
10% buffered formalin
Which of the following is not an important step before performing a necropsy?
Keep the body frozen until the necropsy can be performed to prevent rapid decay
Which of the following nerves must be avoided when giving intramuscluar injections in a cat or dog?
Scaitic
Which of the following urine collection techniques is most suitable for bacterial culture?
Cystocentesis
You are about to administer fluid to a newborn piglet; your best choice for administration is usually via the _____ route
IP
Generally speaking, which of the following types of catheters is most commonly used for peripheral vein catheterization?
Over-the-needle
You warn a coworker that using the____ vein route to administer a particularly irritating drug can cause thrombosis and sloughing of the tail?
Coccygeal
To prevent pharyngeal or esophageal trauma when using a balling gun to administer a bolus, you should?
Insert it into mouth and work it gently back to pharynx, keeping the animals head down
While drawing a small volume of blood from a dog, you place the dog in the lateral recumbent position and grasp the lower leg, applying circumferential pressure to occluded and distended the ____ vein
Medial saphenous
Large-volume samples of blood are commonly collected from the cranial vena cavalier in which animal?
Commercial pig
When liquids must be administered with a syringe or dropper, the tip of the syringe or dropper is placed?
Between the cheek and the gums and the muzzle is held at a neutral angle
A neonates puppy has a bloated stomach that needs decompression. Before I setting an
Tip of the nose to the 13th rib
You are trying to insert an OGT tube into a dog when the animal coughs. This means the tube?
May have entered the trachea and should be removed
Which of the following sites is not ideal for applying transdermal medications?
The back of the untrimmed neck
_____ will increase the rate of drug delivery of a fentanyl patch
Contract with an external heat source
Eyesdrops should be administered ______, where as ointment forms are administered _____?
Onto the sclera; onto the upper sclera or lower palperbral border
A vet has prescribed both a ophthalmic solution and an ophthalmic ointment for your pet at this time, you should?
Apply the solution to the eye 3 to 5 minutes before the ointment
To accurately administer medication into a dog's ear canal
Grasp pinna and pull it upward and slightly out laterally and insert tip of dispenser
Lactose has been added to your patients enema solution, you will?
Hold the rectum closed with a gloved hand for the allotted time and then remove the catheter and let the intestine evacuate
In intranasal vaccine administration, you should?
Depending on the method, place the tip of the vaccine dispenser into the nostril or tilt the patients head back and squeeze a pipet of vaccine onto the plane of the nose
The most common route for administering vaccines is the ____ route
SC
You are responding to a critically ill patient in an emergency situation, you will administer the small-volume, medication via the _____ route for fast absorption
IO
The preferred sire for most SC injections is the
Dorsolateral region from the neck to the hips
The most frequently used sites for IV injections is dogs are the _____ vein and ______ vein
Cephalic; lateral saphenous
Which of the following veins is less commonly used for IV injections in a cat?
Lateral saphenous
Fluids or drugs that have an osmolality great than 600 mOsm/L should be administered through a _____ vein
Jugular
The required distance for a jugular catheter insertion us estimated by measuring the distance from the intended insertion site to the caudal edge of the _______ muscle
Triceps
When you notice the patient is whimpering, you check the catheter and notice redness and swelling near the injections site you should
Aspirate 5 ml of blood back through the catheter, infuse the tissue surrounding the site with 2% lidocaine, and add either cold or warm compresses
Urine samples degrade rapidly, so they should be analyzed promptly or refrigerated for no more than
2 days
In camelids, the urethral orifice is most easily located as
A palpable groove on the floor of the vulva
if sand colic is suspected in a horse a _____ may be used as a diagnostic test
fecal sedimentation test
in bovine rumen fluid collection, the placement of the tube within the rumen can be confirmed by blowing into the tube and...
listening for gurgling
bronchoalveolar lavage
provides lung fluid sample that are better for a cytologic assessment than samples obtained by transtracheal aspriration
abdominocentesis performed on the _____ reduces the likelihood of tapping the spleen (in horses) or rumen ( in ruminant)
parmedian site to the right of the midline
which of the following is not indication for bone marrow aspiration?
patients with serve thrombocytopenia
which of the following describes the process of thoracocentesis
after survival prep, clipping, and lidocaine injections into around the site, don gloves are insert the catheter into the caudal aspects of the intercostal space and cranial to the anterior edge of rib. using gentle pressure, aspirate until a slight negat
which of the following is not true of diagnostic peritoneal lavage?
it has the same indication as abdominocentesis, but less effective and should be used when the former is not possible
which of the statements about the process of arthrocentesis is true?
joint fluid can be drawn from distal joints with out anesthetic or sedation if it will not cause the patient pain and if the patient is not currently experiencing pain
when performing a bone marrow aspiration on a small animal, what factors play into site selection when deciding between the ilium, humerus, and femur?
patients age, size, and conformations
which of the following statements regarding methods of oral medications administration in large animals is false?
while it may seen like a intuitive solution administering the medication, when using a syringe, never add sweetness like molasses, maple syrup, or applesauce to the medications, as the viscosity can significantly change the absorption time
which of the following is true of nasogastic intubations (NGT)
NGT is a procedure commonly used in equine patients
which of the following statements regarding the IM route of drug administration is false?
when injecting into the semimembranosus or semitendinosus muscles, the needle should enter the dorsal aspect of the muscle and be directed caudally
when collecting a milk sample from a diary animal, for which of the following methods is it to important to clean the teat end before collecting the sample?
none; the teats should always be cleaned before collecting a milk sample
intrarectal drug administration
may have both local and systemic effect
how does the queen or bitch stimulate urination or defecation of the newborn?
by licking the urogenital area
The average gestation in horses lasts _____ days
340
When should a pregnant mare receive a rectal examination an transrectal ultrasound imaging?
around 15 days, 30 days, and then 90 days
a pregnant mare begins exhibiting a vaginal discharge you had not noticed before, this may indicate?
placentitis or urine pooling
by performing a transrectal ultrasound study, the vet can evaluate gross fetal movement and measure the eye orbit to?
estimate fetal age
vaginal examination in late-term mare is not recommended unless?
delivery is imminent
_____ can be used in a noninvasive way to measure the heart rates of the foal and more during labor
telemetry
in late-term pregnancy, the foal will have a heart rate between _____ beats/minute
40 to 150
you are assessing vital signs in a late-term pregnant mare, because she is at rest, you anticipate a heart rat of around _____ beats/minute
40 to 50
mares often foal
at night
you observe an agitated pregnant mare who is pacing, nickering, lifting the tail head, turning and biting at her sides, and kicking her abdomen, from this you deduce that she is in stage _____ of labor
1
if you observe sweating around the shoulders of a mare in labor
the mare will foal in the next half hour or so
what stage of labor in the mare is explosive and starts when the mares placenta ruptures and her "water breaks"?
stage 2
a pregnant mare you are attending experiences an explosive rupturing of the placenta, and allantoic fluid escaped vaginally, you are aware that is the foal is not delivered within 30 minutes, the foal with experience?
hypoxemia- low oxygen blood levels
a mare who has just delivered her foal lies down and begins to expel the placenta, you mark that she is now in stage _____ of labor
3
you need a blood sample from a weak hospitalized kitten, where is the best site for drawing blood?
jugular vein
you have been directed to take a radiograph of the abdomen of a sick puppy along with that of one of his healthy littermates. You know that for a successful image, you will need to use _____-detail intensifying screens and _____-emulsion film
high; single
if possible you should obtain radiographs of normal littermates of a sick or weak puppy of kitten. Why?
for comparison
as long as neonates are close to their dams and the mammary glands, the can maintain?
thermal balance
as the neonate begins to take up food, this increases its
metabolic rate
an owner has been keeping his cats newborn kittens warm with extra bedding, at what age do puppies and kittens have a temp. that is similar to an adults temp.?
6 weeks
what to complications may occur when tube feeding a hypothermic neonate?
pneumonia and bloat
About how often should puppies be nursing?
every 2 to 4 weeks
what is the likely body temperature of a neonate that appears lethargic and uncoordinated but is responsive?
78
to 85
F
by the end of what week are puppies and kittens able to stand and have a good postural reflexes?
weeks 3
during an unusually cold winter night when a couple run into the emergency department with a litter of kittens they found in their barn. the kittens are all hypothermic, you treat them with appropriate ambient temp. and humidity, and four of them begin to
when the patient has audible gut sounds and is moderately warmed
you are careful to check oral mucous membranes in a new litter of puppies because you know that and disease process, imbalance of fluid, or electrolytes in the newborn quickly lead to
dehydration
a newborn puppy is dehydrated and need low-volume fluid administration, this can be administered
intravenously, intraosseously, intraperitoneally, or subcutaneously
when administering fluids intraosseously to a feline neonate, an 18 or 19-gauge needle can be placed in the _____ tibia or _____femur
proximal; proximal
you notice that one kitten in a liter has still not begun to nurse, and it has been 24 hours since delivery. what is this neonate at increased risk for if suckling does not occur after 24 to 36 hours
hypoglycemia
you notice that coworker is preparing to administer a dextrose solution, which of the following routes should be avoid and why?
subcutaneous; to avoid tissue damage
you are examining a litter of neonatal puppies when you notice that one puppy has irregularities, including a hairless lump and other uneven hair over his dorsum. you bring this to the vet, this puppy need to be assessed the possible presence of
spina bifida
the neonatal period in puppies and kittens is defined as the period
characterized by complete dependency on the bitch or queen for survival for nutrition, warmth, and care
which of the following statements regarding the examination of a neonatal animal is false?
to evaluate the hydration of neonate, check the skin turgor rather than the mucous membranes
which of the following would be considered abnormal in the first 24 hours of a foals life?
demonstration of a menace response
which of the following are signs of dysmaturity in a foal?
long coarse hair, erupted incisor teeth, and angular limb formation
which of the following in not mentioned in the text as being an acceptable alternative if a foal is unable to nurse directly form its mother?
all of them are replacements for mares milk
*cows milk
*goats milk
*commercially available milk replacer
the cranial vena cava is commonly used to collect blood in which animal
ferret
which of the following is a marsupial
sugar glider
you need to collect blood from a rabbit, your site of choice will most likely be the
lateral saphenous muscle
which of the following is a commonly diagnosed bacterial zoonotic disease carried by birds and spread through the respiratory route
chlamydiosis
which of the following is arboreal and requires a tall cage with branches
sugar glider
what makes up the white part of the birds droppings
urates
you are asked to conduct a stomach wash in a lizard to confirm the presence of which of the following organisms
cryptosporidia
which of the following zoonotic diseases is carried by many reptiles
salmonellosis
palpebral edema due to vitamin a deficiency is seen in which of the following
turtle
which of the following statements is true about descenting in ferrets
ferrets still have a musty odor from their owners
which disease can ferrets catch from their owners
influenza
adult rabbits often fight because they are normally
territorial
you are examining a rabbit for possible malocclusion, which teeth should you pay special attention to
incisors and molars
which of the following have cheek pouches that can be used as a transportation device
hamsters
hypoglycemia is a problem in which of the following
ferrets and sugar gliders
what is the cloacal probe used for in snakes
determining sex
mammary glan tumors are particulary common in which animal
rats
mycoplasma spp cause what type of clinical problem in rodents
respiratory infection
why is it illegal to keep north American prairie dogs as pets in united states
they carry plague and monkeypox
which of the following is not a rodent
hedgehog
you are attempting to perform a crop wash to examine a birds upper gastrointestinal track and obtain samples for a wet-mount microscopic evolution, the problem is your patient has an underdeveloped crop what should you do
pass a sterile tube through the mouth into the esophagus
a birds water bowl should be
mounted on the wall of the cage or enclosure to keep it clean
you have been asked to collect a fecal sample from a lizard, you will use a colonic wash with a volume, of saline at _____ or less of the animals weight
1%
the majority of captive reptile species can accommodate will in humidity range of
50% to 70%
you are examining a pet iguana and want a sample of gastrointestinal and urinary fluids, you realize that you can retrieve both samples from the
cloaca
_____ are one type of inflammatory cell that may be found in a cytologic evaluation via a cloacal swab or crop wash
heterophils
when advising and owner on transporting his or her pet bird to the veterinary hospital which of the following is not good advice
the cage should be thoroughly cleaned and new provided to reduce stress and injury to the bird
which of the following is an important piece of specialized equipment for any veterinary hospital that decides to treat reptiles
tuberculin syringes, microliter syringes, microhematocrit tubes
which of the following is (are) true regarding the veterinary care of rodent
isoflurance of sevoflurance are the best choices of anesthetic for rodents
which of the following statements regarding the diet of guinea pigs is (are) true
all of the above
*should be fed a grass-based
*should have access to grass hay
*vitamin C supplements may be added to water
you are unable to access a vein for intravenous administration in a neonate who experiences cardiovascular collapse, you much administer fluids soon, what alternative route might you use with success
IO
_____ is an example of a synthetic colloid
hetastarch
you are administering hetastrach to a patient during resuscitation, what is the greatest risk of the administration of a synthetic colloid
coagulopathy
during a transfusion of a plasma-containing blood product a horse begin to sweat and show piloerection, the vet is most likely to
slow the transfusion and continue monitoring the reactions may resolve on their own
which of the following is not true. TACO
is rare in euvolemic patients
sodium bicarbonate can be an appropriate treatment for
extreme acidemia
about two-thirds of the total body water in mammals is made up of
ICF
all crystalloid IV solutions contain _____ in water and are characterized by their _____
electrolytes; osmolality
a horse needs immediate resuscitation in response it is best to deliver
hypertonic saline followed by isotonic crystalloids
you are treating a horse who you have just discovered has large colon impaction she is already receiving IV fluids the impaction itself will most likely be treated using which route
enteral route via nasogastric tube
a critically ill horse will need fluid therapy during surgery has been anesthetized but which route will you most likely use for the fluid administration
intravenous
you have been asked to administer two medications simultaneously but you have noticed that the two drugs may not be compatible assuming the DR wants these administered you will
use a central-line catheter
if an IV catheter is being placed in the jugular vein, the vessel should be occluded at the
thoracic inlet
your hospitalized patient acquires a fever of unknown orgin he has an IV catheter you will
remove and replace the catheter in a different vein as a precaution
in a gravity-fed IV fluid system the rate of administration is
largely dependent on the patients position and manually by opening of closing a clamp
in a volumetric pump fluid system
the required volume of fluids can be programmed to be delivered over a set amount of time
the _____route can be used to administer large volumes of fluid for slow absorption
subcutaneous
in most cases the single best way to track changes in hydration and body water through
frequent monitoring of body weight
your patient experiences an acute bleeding episode, you are prepared to begin blood transfusion if the PCV drops below
20% to 25%
patient A:a colt who has not reciver passive transfer of maternal immunity, patient B: requires treatment for hypoalbuminemia, what do both patients require
ringer lactate solution transfusions
you and the vet are monitoring a horse who received an emergency transfusion 1 day ago, now before a next transfusion the vet directs you to help conduct a major crossmatch, you understand that this test will help detect
agglutination reactions between the donors RBCs and the recipients plasma
a horse rancher wants several of his healthiest animals to donate blood to be stored for future emergencies, the maximum blood collection volume should be calculated based on
lean body weight
_____fluids have a lesser osmolality than blood and provide a greater proportion of water than of electrolytes
hypotonic
short wavelength equals _____ frequency sound _____ patient penetration and _____ image resolution
high; lower; increased
the cathode is
negatively charged and the site of electron production
in an x-ray tube electrons are boiled and then accelerate rapidly toward the
positively charged anode
the smaller the focal spot the _____ the image
more distinct
the x-ray beam is
stronger toward the cathode side
the milliamperage selector controls the
volume of electron
the peak kilovoltage selector controls the
speed of the electrons
while taking an x-ray to decrease patients motion blur you want the _____ milliamperage and _____ time settings required to arrive at the desired milliampere seconds
highest; shorter
having a short exposure time does all of the following expect
decrease the mill. requirements
all of the following are examples of acceptable means of labeling a radiograph expect
a permanent marker on firm after devloping
what is the average life span of an intensifying screen
10 to 12 years
what is the yearly maximum exposure dose for occupationally exposed invividuals
5 rem
what is equality factor for diagnostic radiation
1
what percent of sound is reflected when ultrasound beams intersect air
75%
you need to administer radionuclides to a large dog, you wisely choose the _____ route as the primary route of administration
PO
a German shepherd for a computed tomography scan you arrange him in which position
ventrodorsal or dorsoventral recumbent position
at the end of the year you are most likely to discover that CT scanning has been most frequently used for
head and spinal examinations
you use less concentrated media when performing CT scanning because
CT scanning is more contrast sensitive
when is it safe to bring ferromagnetic metal into or near MRI unit?
it is never safe
radiographic density is controlled primarily by
peak kilovoltage
the change in an x-ray beams strength as a result of passing through matter is called
attenuation
fast-speed films produce x-ray with _____detail
increased
in digital radiography system "ghost" images or artifacts
occur when one is imaging objects that require a very high exposure
the appearance of linear striations or planking in the background of a digital radiographic image is
due to plate saturatiom
when compared with film radiography systems both CR and DR
use the same principles of radiation protection
which of the following is not a characteristic of portable radiographic units
they all use a grid
scatter radiation can be described as
lower-energy x-ray photons that have undergone a change in direction after interacting with structures in the patients body
Potter-bucky diaphragm grid
the movement of the diaphragm is timed to suit a particular exposure
Baruim sulfate is an example of a
insoluble inert radiopaque medium
which of the following statement is true of mechanical restraints for use in imaging
once the animal is in the proper position, the image must be taken rapidly
the standard format for digital imaging and communications in medicine called
DICOM
the _____ is a grid whose movement is timed to suit a particular exposure
potter-bucky diaphragm
which of the following is a portable device that can provide ventilator support during cardiopulmonary cerebral resuscitation providing either room air or 100% oxygen depending on the model
ambu bag
the condition in which air becomes trapped between the body wall and the lung is called
pneumothorax
the vet is about to perform a vaginal examination on a cow, as you prep the perineal area, which of the following is not true
it is imperative to clean the perineal are before the rectal portion of the examination
an animal that assumes a praying or play bowing position most likely has _____ pain
abdominal
disseminated intravascular coagulation is primarily a disorder of the body _____ function
clotting
you are treating a patient that is severely hypernatremic, you realize that you must administer
IV fluids slowly and gradually over 2 to 3 days
in an effort to improve your patients blood pressure, you administer _____ a synthetic catecholamine in hopes of causing peripheral vasoconstriction
dopamine
when performing chest compressions on an animal that weighs more than 15 lb the animal should be placed in a
lateral recumbent position
when performing cardiac compression on a dog that weighs 9 lb what is the point of compression
directly over the heart
what is the treatment of choice for ventricular fibrillation
electrical defribrillation
what is the ideal route of drug administration during CPCR is advanced life support
intravenous route with a jugular cutdown
which drug can be administered safely via the endotracheal route
NAVEL
naloxone, atropine, vasopressin, epinephrine, lidocaine
after performing CPCR on a dog the animal develops opisthotonus with ragidity in all four limbs, where is the lesion and what is the prognosis
brainstem; grave
_____ provides a means to measure the expired dioxide concentration of expired air, where as _____ indicates a noninvasive measurement of the hemoglobin-oxygen saturation
capnography; pulse oximetry
arterial blood samples should be drawn from the _____ or femoral artery
dorsal metatarsal
as a general rule of thumb the PaO2 should be approximately _____ times the FiO2
5
in dogs and cats systolic values ranging from _____ mm hG and diastolic values ranging from _____ mm Hg are required to maintain adequate perfusion of vitial organs such as the kidneys and brain
80 to 140; 50 to 80
when selecting a cuff to use to indirectly measure a cats or dog blood pressure the _____ of the cuff should be approximately _____ of the circumference of the limb at the site of cuff placement
width; 40%
which of the following drugs promotes diuresis and decreases cerebral edema in a patient following cardiac arrest by drawing water from the interstitial space between cells
mannitol
which of the following drugs is used to treat ventricular tachycardia
lidocaine
which of the following drugs is classified as loop diuretic and is typically uses to treat heart failure and pulmonary edema
furosemide
which of the following is not part of a specialized cardiac conduction system
OR node
vertical measurements on a ECG paper represent
streanghth of the electrical impulse expressed in millivolts
in standard calibration on ECG paper each vertical 1-mm box equals
0.1 mV
the average HR can be calculated by counting the number of
ORS complexes in a predetermined time period and multiplying the number of complexes by a specific factor
an adnormal p wave likely indicates
right or left atrial enlargement
variation in the PR interval may occur with
atrioventricular dissociation
in the QRS complex a tall R wave indicates
left ventricular enlargement
the ST segment indicates the _____ repolarization
time interval from ventricular depolarization to
the QT interval represents
the total electrical systole
first-degree A V block occurs when
conduction through the A V node is delayed
a horse with a long history of severe pain prior to arrival often exhibits
abrasion over the head, face, eyes, and bony prominences of the body
nasogastric intubation in horses
should be performed in all patients examine for abdominal pain
the vet performs a "chest tap" on a horse, this most likely indicates that
the pleural space of a horse with pneumothorax was reduced to normal volume through thoracocentesis
you are helping the vet stabilize a midforelimb fracture on a horse, which of the following is not true
a lateral splint extending from the ground to the hip is secured with nonelastic
which method of helping a downed cow stand is the best option for supporting an animal for long periods of time
hydroflotation
when is it acceptable to use a rumen trocar to relieve bloat ad distended rumen?
in certain instances of severe respiratory depression
for tracheostomy in a calf, you will use a _____ mm ID tube
5- to 10-
_____ meaning difficult birth represents the majority of obstetric emergencies
dystocia
what is the first thing a technician should ascertain from a telephone triage with an owner who is worried about his or her pet
a name and phone number where the caller can be contacted if disconnected
which of the following is not a key aspect of recumbent care
do not apply fluorescein stain to the corneas of a patient who is under general anesthesia
according to the text which of the following is not a common small animal emergency
respiratory distress, urethral obstruction, acute abdomen