Exam One - Chapter 1, 3, 4, 6

Fear

is a basic emotion that involves activation of the "fight-or-flight" response of the autonomic nervous system.
Instantaneous reaction to any imminent threat
Allows escape

Uncued Panic Attacks

occur when the fear response occurs in the absence of any obvious external danger
Symptoms are nearly identical to fear response
Often accompanied by sense of impending doom
Cognitive component may be unique to panic attacks

B
There is no one behavior that serves to make someone abnormal.

1. What makes defining abnormality difficult?
a. There are so many types of abnormal behavior tha they can't be accurately described.
b. There is no one behavior that serves to make someone abnormal.
c. Most of us are abnormal much of the time so that we

D
There is no sufficient element

2. Which of the following is a sufficient element to determine abnormality?
a. Suffering
b. Maladaptiveness
c. Deviancy
d. There is no sufficient element

D
The values of a society may change over time

3. The fact that body piercings are commonplace today while they would once have been viewed as abnormal illustrates that _________________.
a. Modern society is unlikely to change
b. What is acceptable for men and women is no longer different
c. American

B
Is a necessary condition for making a diagnosis

4. According to the DSM-5's definition of mental disorder, clinically significant disturbance in behavior emotion regulation, or cognitive functioning _________________.
a. Must not be present in order to make a diagnosis
b. Is a necessary condition for m

B
When a label is used to describe an individual's behavior, information about the person may be lost.

5. Which of the following is a disadvantage of having a classification for mental disorders?
a. A classification system establishes the types of problems that mental professionals can treat.
b. When a label is used to describe an individual's behavior, in

B
A work in progress that classifies mental disorders based on what is currently known.

6. Which of the following best describes DSM?
a. A complete guide to the origin, diagnosis and treatment of mental disorders.
b. A work in progress that classifies mental disorders based on what is currently known.
c. A fundamentally flawed collection of

C
A description of the necessary and sufficient conditions for mental illness

7. Which of the following is included in the DSM?
a. A discussions of the various causes of mental disorders
b. A means of identifying different mental disorders
c. A description of the necessary and sufficient conditions for mental illness
d. A descripti

C
necessary cause

8. In order to deveilop chicken opx, one must be exposed to the virus that causes chicken pos. In other words, the virus is a ___________.
a. risk factor
b. sufficient cause
c. necessary cause.
d. contributory cause

B
sufficient cause; necessary cause

9. While having a gene for Parkinson's Disease guarantees that Parkinson's Disease will develop, this is not the only factor that can lead to Parkinson's disease. In other words, the presence of the gene is a ________, but not a __________.
a. risk factor

D
the psychological processes associated with low self-esteem are the trigger for depression

10. Suppose that low self-esteem is a diathesis for developing depression later in life. This means that __________.
a. people who currently are depressed will have low self-esteem
b. low self-esteem is a proximal trigger for depression
c. people with low

A
people with a very high level of a diathesis may need only a small amount of stress to develop the disorder

11. The additive model of the diathesis stress theory proposed that ____________.
a. people with a very high level of a diathesis may need only a small amount of stress to develop the disorder
b. people with a very high level of a diathesis may need a ver

C
the person can successfully adapt and survive in threatening circumstances

12. When psychologists say that a person shows resilience, it means __________.
a. the person has not been faced with significant stressors
b. that regardless of the stresses the person faces, he or she will feel no emotional distress
c. the person can su

C
A combination of psychological therapy and antidepressant drugs

13. A psychiatrist take a biopsychosocial viewpoint from psychopathology. Which of the following treatments is she most likely to suggest for a patient's current state of depression?
a. Intense psychotherapy
b. A prolonged vacation
c. A combination of psy

B
Genes play a role in most mental disorders.

14. Which of the following statements is true?
a. Most behavioral disorders are determined exclusively by genes.
b. Genes play a role in most mental disorders.
c. Genes do not affect biochemical processes.
d. The genes tha twill be expressed in an individ

D
have led to a recognition of the role that genetic factors and other biological influences play in the development of many disorders

15. Biological discoveries ______________________.
a. have lessened the subjectivity of definitions of abnormal
b. demonstrate that the environment plays only a minimal role in the development of psychopathology
c. make it clear that mental disorders are

A
psychopharmacology

16. The most common current biolgoical treatment for mental disorders is ______________.
a. psychopharmacology
b. deep brain stimulation
c. electroconvulsive shock treatment
d. none of the above

C
Psychoanalytic/Psychodynamic

17. Which perspective or viewpoint focuses on intrapsychic conflicts as the cause of psychopathology?
a. Biological
b. Behavioral
c. Psychoanalytic/Psychodynamic
d. Sociocultural

A
unresolved conflicts between the id, ego and superego

18. Freud's view of mental disorders was that they were a result of _____________________.
a. unresolved conflicts between the id, ego and superego
b. genetic abnormalities that influence people's ability to cope with their environment
c. problematic tend

B
fixated

19. According to Freud, a person who does not appropriately resolve each psychosexual stage would be ______________ at that stage.
a. defended
b. fixated
c. repressed
d. displaced

D
Phallic

20. In psychoanalytic theory, which psychosexual stage center on castration anxiety?
a. Genital
b. Oral
c. Anal
d. Phallic

D
help a person feel less anxious, but because they usually work by distorting reality, they are not always adaptive

21. Defense mechanisms _____________.
a. make a person feel more anxious and have more problems, because they begin to act defensively
b. are strategies the id uses to try to achieve what it desires
c. are conscious, intentional attempts to cope in an eff

C
Projection

22. After cheating on her husband, Julia accused her husband of cheating on her. Such behavior is explained by which of the following defense mechanism?
a. Sublimation
b. Displacement
c. Projection
d. Rationalization

B
the concept of the unconscious and how it can affect behavior

23. One of Freud's major contributions to current perspectives of mental disorders is ___________.
a. the concept of the Oedipal Complex.
b. the concept of the unconscious and how it can affect behavior
c. the concept of the Electra Complex
d. the underst

C
do not view sex and the libido as the primary determinant of behavior

24. Newer psychodynamic perspectives ____________.
a. disregard most elements of Freud's theories
b. emphasize the role of the id
c. do not view sex and the libido as the primary determinant of behavior
d. recognize intrapsychic conflicts as a primary det

A
Object Relations Theory

25. Theorists who focused on individuals' interactions with real and imagined other people and on the relationships that people experience between the symbolic representation of another person defined the psychodynamic perspective termed ____________.
a.

A
after repeated pairings with a stimulus that naturally causes a response, a neutral stimulus will cause a similar response

26. The central principle of classical condition is that ____________.
a. after repeated pairings with a stimulus that naturally causes a response, a neutral stimulus will cause a similar response
b. we repeat those actions that we see others engage in
c.

C
instrumental/operant conditioning

27. Learning not to do something because you are punished or rewarded when you do it is an example of ______________.
a. classical conditioning
b. generalization
c. instrumental/operant conditioning
d. observational learning

C
conditioned stimulus

28. After being bitten by a dog, Jose finds that he feels afraid wheever he sees a dog. In classical conditioning terms, the dog can be described as a(n)_______________.
a. conditioned resopnse
b. unconditioned response
c. conditioned stimulus
d. uncondit

A
focusing on symptoms

29. The Behavioral perspective has been criticized for _____________.
a. focusing on symptoms
b. not providing an explanation for how abnormal behavioral responses are acquired
c. viewing basic human nature as good
d. its overemphasis on the use of punish

B
results from distorted thinking and information processing which influence behavior

30. Cognitive-behavioral psychologists believe that abnormal behavior _____________.
a. consists of learned maladaptive response patterns
b. results from distorted thinking and information processing which influence behavior
c. results from neurotic thoug

C
schema

31. According to Aaron Beck, a(n) ______________ is an underlying representation of knowledge that guides the current processing of information and often leads people to distortion in attention, memory, and comprehension.
a. assimilation
b. accommodation

B
assimilation

32. New perceptions and experiences tend to be worked into our existing schemas, even if the new information must be distorted to fit them. this process is called ______________.
a. accommodation
b. assimilation
c. appropriation
d. attribution

B
is processed at a nonconscious level

33. According to cognitive theorists, a lot of information that contributes to a person's pathology __________.
a. is processed at a conscious, intentional level.
b. is processed at a nonconscious level
c. is not processed at all.
d. is processed only whe

B
assessment

34. A person comes to a mental health professional with a certain complaint. The professional attempts to understand the nature and extent of the problem. This process is called ______________.
a. diagnosis
b. assessment
c. clinical treatment
d. screening

D
provides insight into the function of cognitive domains

35. Neuropsychological Assessment is a process ______________.
a. to determine a psychological diagnosis
b. that is only conducted by a psychiatrists
c. that is only conducted if a patient has some form of brain injury
d. provides insight into the functio

B
physical abnormalities may be causing or contributing to psychological symptoms

36. Medical examinations are often a part of a psychological assessment because _____________.
a. it is an additional means for building rapport with a client
b. physical abnormalities may be causing or contributing to psychological symptoms
c. clinicians

B
assess the way a patient perceives ambiguous stimuli

37. The aim of a Projective Test is to ______________.
a. predict a person's future behavior
b. assess the way a patient perceives ambiguous stimuli
c. compare a patient's responses to those of persons who are known to have mental disorders
d. assess the

B
Projective

38. The WAIS is a(n) __________________ test.
a. Intellilgence
b. Projective
c. Personality
d. Both A and C

A
Projective; "dated

39. The Thematic Apperception Test is a(n) ________________ test and is criticized for being __________.
a. Projective; "dated"
b. Projective; too specific
c. Objective; "dated"
d. Objective; too specific

A, C
-a structured approach to personality assessment.
-a rating scale used to determine how comparable one is to individual with various psychiatric diagnoses.

40. The MMPI is ____________.
a. a structured approach to personality assessment.
b. the most commonly used test of intelligence.
c. a rating scale used to determine how comparable one is to individual with various psychiatric diagnoses.
d. a recently dev

B
Communication about abnormal behavior cannot be effective unless what is being discussed is clear.

41. Why is classification a necessary first step in developing an understanding about abnormal behavior?
a. Abnormal behavior is not abnormal until it has been classified as such.
b. Communication about abnormal behavior cannot be effective unless what is

B
Each disorder has unique symptoms

42. Which of the following is an assumption of a categorical approach to abnormal behavior?
a. Both normal and abnormal behavior lie on a continuum.
b. Each disorder has unique symptoms
c. Disorders that share common symptoms have a common etiology or cau

A
they can influence both other people's and the diagnosed person's perception of themselves in negative ways

43. One criticism of diagnostic labels is that _______________.
a. they can influence both other people's and the diagnosed person's perception of themselves in negative ways
b. there are so many different systems of diagnosis that it is hard to understan

D
Labels should be applied to disorders, not people

44. What is wrong with describing someone as being "schizophrenic"?
a. Nothing
b. Such a definitive diagnosis is rare
c. The behavior of the schizophrenic changes so rapidly
d. Labels should be applied to disorders, not people

B
Is Maria's belief consistent with the beliefs of her culture?

45. Maria believes that her dead grandmother occasionally speaks to her. In deciding if Maria has a mental illness or not, which of the following is important?
a. How old is Maria?
b. Is Maria's belief consistent with the beliefs of her culture?
c. Do peo

B
the activation of the "fight or flight" response

46. Fear is a basic emotion that involves _____________.
a. concern about the future
b. the activation of the "fight or flight" response
c. negative thoughts, but not a change in physiological arousal
d. a complex blend of negative mood and self-preoccupa

B
agoraphobia

47. Which of the following is one of the five primary types of anxiety disorders recognized in the DSM-5?
a. hypochondriasis
b. agoraphobia
c. dissociative fugue
d. bipolar disorder

B
Hilda dreaded walking home alone because she felt unsafe

48. Which of the following would be an example of anxiety?
a. Julie jumped when she saw the snake/
b. Hilda dreaded walking home alone because she felt unsafe
c. Carl was certain that the food was poisoned.
d. The voices in Paul's head told him he should

C
if he or she has a subjective belief that something awful is about to happen.

49. The main way to tell someone is having an uncued panic attack rather than is in a state of fear is ____________.
a. whether he or she thinks about what is happening
b. whether he or she shows physiological changes such as increased heart rate.
c. if h

C
Whether there are more fear/panic symptoms or anxiety symptoms involved.

50. What is one of the major ways the anxiety disorders differ from each other?
a. Whether they have a genetic component.
b. Whether they are treatable.
c. Whether there are more fear/panic symptoms or anxiety symptoms involved.
d. Whether the disorder is

B
a common component of treatment for all anxiety disorders

51. Gradual exposure to feared cues is _________________.
a. an old treatment for anxiety disorders that is no longer used
b. a common component of treatment for all anxiety disorders
c. likely to make someone with an anxiety disorder worse in the long te

A
Avoidance is reinforced by anxiety reduction.

52. Why do people with phobias continue to avoid the thing they fear?
a. Avoidance is reinforced by anxiety reduction.
b. There is something wrong with their fight or flight system.
c. They are cognitively unable to make any other decision due to their di

A
generalization in classical conditioning

53. When Kenneth was a young boy he went to a dentist who treated him uncaringly and inflicted a good deal of pain. Even years later, he has an uncontrollable and intense fear of not only dentists but physicians, too. This best illustrates how phobias mig

A
vicarious conditioning of a phobia

54. Nicole's mother is terribly afraid of snakes. Although Nicole has never actually seen a snake, her mother has told her time and again to be careful and look for them when she is walking. Now Nicole has an intense fear of snakes and refuses to walk in

C
the "inflation effect

55. Wendy went swimming in the ocean last week and became mildly fearful when she swallowed a lot of water and felt as though she would drown. Just yesterday someone told her that a shark was seen in the water at the same time she was swimming. Now she is

C
Casey is less likely to develop a phobia because he has had lots of earlier positive experiences with dogs.

56. Casey and Josh have both been bitten by strange dogs. Casey has a dog of his own at home that he loves. Josh has little experience with dogs. Which is likely to develop a phobia?
a. Both boys are likely to develop a phobia because of the traumatic nat

C
preparedness

57. It is fairly easy to condition monkeys and humans to fear snakes but almost impossible to condition either to fear a flower. This supports the _________ theory of phobias.
a. classical conditioning
b. vicarious conditioning
c. preparedness
d. psychoan

A
Exposure therapy

58. Which of the following seems to be the best treatment for phobias?
a. Exposure therapy
b. Psychoanalysis
c. Cognitive restructuring
d. Family therapy

C
A panic attack consisting of at least 4 of 13 symptoms of a panic attack

59. Which of the following is necessary for a diagnosis of Panic Disorder?
a. Nausea
b. Depersonalization
c. A panic attack consisting of at least 4 of 13 symptoms of a panic attack
d. Derealization

B
are uncued

60. Most first panic attacks ___________.
a. follow some distressing event.
b. are uncued
c. are followed by the development of panic disorder
d. last more than an hour

B
is considered an Anxiety Disorder in DSM-IVTR but not DSM-5

61. Obsessive Compulsive Disorder _________________.
a. is considered an Anxiety Disorder in DSM-IVTR and DSM-5
b. is considered an Anxiety Disorder in DSM-IVTR but not DSM-5
c. is considered an Anxiety Disorder in DSM-5
d. has been completely removed fro

A
social phobia/social anxiety disorder

62. Kayla has just started college and wants to make friends. She refuses to go to large parties because she is afraid that she will blush and sweat, and that other people will laugh at her. She fears that people will judge everything about her. Kayla's m

C
Generalized Anxiety Disorder

63. Which phobia is not considered a subtype of a Specific Phobia according to DSM-5?
a. Animal
b. Blood-Injection Injury
c. Generalized Anxiety Disorder
d. Natural Environment

C
is more effective than no treatment even though some psychological states may resolve without treatment

64. Most researchers agree that psychotherapy ____________.
a. is equally as effective than no treatment at all because some psychological states may resolve without treatment.
b. is more effective than no treatment
c. is more effective than no treatment

D
all of the above

65. Individuals seek therapy to/for __________.
a. address current stressors
b. resolve historical issues
c. personal growth
d. all of the above