Which of the following is incorrectly matched?
A) endogenic � internal processes
B) exogenic � external processes
C) radioactive decay heat � exogenic energy source
D) weathering � exogenic breaking and dissolving the crust
C) radioactive decay heat � exogenic energy source
When geologists conclude that the Grand Canyon sequence of rocks was formed through hundreds of millions of years of deposition, mountain building, and erosion, they are basing this conclusion on the principle of ________ which states that ________.
A) ca
D) uniformitarianism; the geologic processes that operated in the past are the same as those that operate today, and they occurred in accordance with the same laws of nature that are operating today
3) Knowledge of Earth's interior is mostly derived from...
A) direct sampling of the interior using deep-test wells.
B) work in Earth's deepest caverns and caves.
C) indirect evidence involving the analysis of seismic waves.
D) historic and prehistoric re
C) indirect evidence involving the analysis of seismic waves.
4) Earth's interior is layered because...
A) centrifugal force separated out the materials based on weight as the Earth solidified.
B) materials became sorted based on density as the Earth solidified.
C) materials became sorted based on electromagnetic fi
B) materials became sorted based on density as the Earth solidified.
5) Which of the following gives the correct sequence of layers in Earth, from the surface to the center?
A) crust, inner core, mantle, outer core
B) inner core, outer core, mantle, crust
C) mantle, crust, inner core, outer core D) crust, mantle, outer cor
D) crust, mantle, outer core, inner core
6) The density of material below the Moho is
________ that above it.
A) greater than
B) less than
C) the same as
A) greater than
7) On average, the thickness of oceanic crust is ________ that of continental crust
A) greater than
B) less than
C) the same as
B) less than
8) A rock transformed from any other rock through extreme heat and or pressure is referred to as
A) sedimentary.
B) metamorphic.
C) igneous.
D) ancient.
B) metamorphic.
9) The continuous alteration of Earth materials from one rock type to another is known as the
A) geologic cycle.
B) rock cycle.
C) hydrologic cycle.
D) tectonic cycle.
B) rock cycle.
10) Limestone is a type of ________ rock that forms when ________.
A) igneous; magma cools
B) igneous; lava cools
C) sedimentary; calcium carbonate precipitates, or organic material containing calcium carbonate accumulates in a water environment
D) sedime
C) sedimentary; calcium carbonate precipitates, or organic material containing calcium carbonate accumulates in a water environment
11) Vertical elevation differences in a local landscape are referred to as
A) relief.
B) an order of relief.
C) topography.
D) crust.
A) relief.
12) Which of the following is an example of a first order of relief?
A) the Alps and Rockies
B) the Tibetan Plateau
C) the Shenandoah Valley
D) North America plate
D) North America plate
14) The six types of topographic regions are defined based on
A) arbitrary elevation other descriptive criteria in common use.
B) complex statistical analyses of surface relief variation across the surface of Earth.
C) local criteria that have never been
A) arbitrary elevation other descriptive criteria in common use.
15) A continental craton is best described as
A) the product of active folding and faulting.
B) the surface accumulation of molten rock.
C) the inactive remains of ancient tectonic activity.
D) a landform undergoing constant tectonic activity.
B) the surface accumulation of molten rock.
16) If you wanted to avoid earthquakes, which of the following areas would be the safest to live?
A) convergent plate boundary
B) divergent plate boundary
C) island arc along a subduction zone
D) shield
D) shield
13) The measurement of land elevation relative to sea level is known as
A) bathymetry.
B) hypsometry.
C) topography.
D) geodesy.
B) hypsometry.
17) Which of the following properly describes the formation of continental crust?
A) All continental crust was formed millions of years ago. There is no active continental crust being formed.
B) The formation of continental crust is independent of the for
C) The formation of continental crust involves the entire sequence of seafloor spreading, subduction, remelting of oceanic crust, and subsequent rise of the remelted material.
18) When rock strata are strained beyond their ability to remain an intact unit, displacement occurs in a process known as
A) folding.
B) faulting.
C) broad warping.
D) stressing.
B) faulting.
19) Orogenesis refers to
A) the beginning of extensive faulting.
B) a general term for a mountain-building episode that thickens continental crust.
C) a general thinning of the crust.
D) the formation of mountains without faulting, folding, or the capture
B) a general term for a mountain-building episode that thickens continental crust.
20) An earthquake is best described as
A) the point within the Earth where seismic waves originate.
B) the sharp release of energy in the Earth's crust that creates seismic waves. C) the amount of ground displacement along a fault.
D) the amount of stress
B) the sharp release of energy in the Earth's crust that creates seismic waves.
The science that specifically studies the origin, evolution, form, and spatial distribution of landforms is
A) geology.
B) geography.
C) geomorphology.
D) environmental chemistry.
C) geomorphology.
22) The dynamic equilibrium model refers to
A) a balancing act between tectonic uplift and rates of denudation by weathering and erosion in a given landscape.
B) a theory involving the cyclic or evolutionary development of a landscape.
C) a sequential dev
A) a balancing act between tectonic uplift and rates of denudation by weathering and erosion in a given landscape.
23) Which of the following is not a denudation process?
A) weathering
B) erosion
C) orogeny
D) mass movement
C) orogeny
24) Which of the following is not a class of mass movement?
A) fall
B) slide
C) slip
D) flow
E) creep
C) slip
25) Inclined surfaces that form the boundaries of landforms are known as
A) catchment.
B) slopes.
C) free face.
D) regolith.
B) slopes.
26) The process that breaks down rock at the Earth's surface through disintegration of rocks into mineral particles or dissolving it into water is known as
A) erosion.
B) mass movement.
C) landmass denudation.
D) weathering.
D) weathering.
27) Which of the following is not a type of physical weathering process?
A) exfoliation
B) hydrolysis
C) salt crystal growth
D) frost wedging
B) hydrolysis
28) Factors influencing the weathering process include
A) the climate of an area.
B) rock composition and structure.
C) the amount of vegetation in an area.
D) rock composition and structure, climate, and vegetation.
E) only the climate of an area and roc
D) rock composition and structure, climate, and vegetation.
29) Exfoliation and pressure-release jointing are examples of ________ weathering processes.
A) chemical
B) physical
C) biological
D) both biological and physical
B) physical
30) Karst topography is formed primarily by
A) carbonation and solution.
B) mass wasting processes.
C) oxidation and hydrolysis.
D) exfoliation and hydration.
A) carbonation and solution.
31) Processes that are related expressly to streams and rivers are termed
A) fluvial.
B) geomorphic.
C) lemnetic.
D) lotic.
A) fluvial.
32) A central peak,such as a volcanic mountain, generally produces a ________ drainage pattern.
A) radial
B) trellis
C) parallel
D) annular
A) radial
33) The area of land from which all water in it drains into the same place is known as a(n) A) interfluve.
B) watershed.
C) drainage divide.
D) fluvial units.
B) watershed.
34) Drainage density refers to
A) the thickness of the water in the stream.
B) the number of channels in an area.
C) a measure determined by dividing the length of all the the channels by the area of its drainage basin.
D) the arrangement of channels in a
B) the number of channels in an area.
35) The drop in stream elevation per unit distance is known as
A) discharge.
B) base level.
C) gradient.
D) aspect.
C) gradient.
36) Which of the following is not factored when considering discharge?
A) channel length
B) channel width
C) channel depth
D) velocity
A) channel length
37) Stream transport involves all of the following except
A) saltation.
B) bed load.
C) traction.
D) sheet flow.
D) sheet flow.
38) Excess sediment may result in which of the following channel patterns?
A) V-shaped valleys
B) braided stream
C) meandering stream
D) straight, steep-walled channels
B) braided stream
39) Channels with gradual slopes often develop a sinuous form called a ________ pattern.
A) braided stream
B) anabranching
C) meandering stream
C) meandering stream
40) Alluvial fans are formed as flowing water ________ as it leaves a constricted channel.
A) gains velocity
B) changes direction
C) down cuts
D) loses velocity
D) loses velocity
41) Which of the following is true about seawater?
A) Seawater is pure water (H20).
B) Seawater is a solution.
C) The chemical composition of seawater has great spatial variability.
D) The salinity of seawater is negligible.
B) Seawater is a solution.
42) Seawater with less than 35� is termed A) brackish.
B) brine.
C) metahaline.
D) freshwater.
A) brackish.
43) Areas with heavy freshwater runoff and low evaporation will have ________ average salinity.
A) higher than
B) lower than
C) approximately the
B) lower than
44) Which of the following is incorrect regarding the littoral zone?
A) It spans both land and water.
B) Landward, it extends to the highest waterline reached on shore during a storm.
C) In general usage, it only includes the foreshore area of coastal env
C) In general usage, it only includes the foreshore area of coastal environments.
45) Which of the following is not correct regarding tides?
A) They are produced solely by the gravitational pull of the Sun.
B) They are complex twice daily oscillations in sea level.
C) They are influenced by the size, depth, and topography of ocean basi
A) They are produced solely by the gravitational pull of the Sun.
46) High tides are known as ________ whereas low tides are kown as ________.
A) flood tides; ebb tides
B) ebb tides; flood tides
C) spring tides; neap tides
D) neap tides; spring tides
A) flood tides; ebb tides
47) An earthquake, a submarine landslide, or an eruption of an undersea volcano is capable of producing a
A) tsunami.
B) tidal wave.
C) slow-moving giant swell.
D) wave in the open ocean of great height.
A) tsunami.
48) Which of the following is not an example of a depositional coastal landform?
A) wave-built terrace
B) barrier spit
C) bay barrier
D) wave-cut platform
D) wave-cut platform
49) Coral formations
A) tend to occur poleward of 30� latitude.
B) survive in a broad ecological range because they are tolerant of temperature, salinity, and depth variation.
C) require water that is high in sediment concentration.
D) are made of animals
D) are made of animals living symbiotically with simple algae.
50) Which of the following is an example of a coastal wetland?
A) playa lake
B) mangrove swamp
C) saltwater marsh
D) both mangrove swamp and saltwater marsh
E) playa lake, mangrove swamp, and saltwater marsh
E) playa lake, mangrove swamp, and saltwater marsh